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Pathology > Practice quiz for Final Exam > Flashcards

Practice quiz for Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following best describes asthma?
Select one:
a. Intermittent airway inflammation with occasional bronchospasm
b. A disease of bronchospasm that leads to airway inflammation
c. Chronic airway inflammation with superimposed bronchospasm
d. Relatively fixed airway constriction

A

c. Chronic airway inflammation with superimposed bronchospasm

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2
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding the haversian system except:
Select one:
a. Spongy bone contains this system.
b. Compact bone contains this system
c. There are tiny spaces between the lamellae called lacunae.
d. There are concentric layers of bone matrix called lamellae.

A

a. Spongy bone contains this system.

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3
Q 
The most common cause of acute bursitis is:
Select one:
a. Inactivity.
b. Joint overuse. 
c. Fibromyalgia.
d. Bacterial infection.
A

b. Joint overuse

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4
Q 
Manifestations of primary hyperparathyroidism include:
Select one:
a. chronic hypercalcemia
b. increased bone resorption
c. hypercalciuria
d. all of the above
A

d. all of the above

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5
Q 
Which term describes the type of immunity that occurs when preformed antibodies are transferred from a donor to a recipient?
Select one:
a. Passive 
b. Active
c. Memory
d. Cellular
A

a. Passive

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6
Q 
All of the following are characteristics of inflammation except:
Select one:
a. warmth
b. palor 
c. pain
d. erythema
A

b. palor

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7
Q 
Risk factors for lateral epicondylitis  include all of the following except:
Select one:
a. Repetitive lifting
b. Playing tennis
c. Gout 
d. Hammering
A

c. Gout

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8
Q 
.Risk factors for acute gouty arthritis include:
Select one:
a. Obesity
b. Female gender
c. Rheumatoid arhthritis 
d. Joint trauma
A

Not RA

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?
Select one:
a. It is more common in women at a 3:1 ratio.
b. Family history of autoimmune conditions is often reported.
c. Peak age for disease onset in individuals is age 50 to 70 years. Correct
d. Wrists, ankles, and toes are often involved.

A

c. Peak age for disease onset in individuals is age 50 to 70 years

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10
Q

Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) contributes to all of the following except:
Select one:
a. inflammatory response
b. pain transmission
c. maintenance of gastric protective mucosal layer
d. Renal arteriole constriction.

A

c. maintenance of gastric protective mucosal layer

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11
Q 
Osteoporosis is defined as having a bone density more than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ standard deviation(s) below the average bone mass for women younger than 35 years old. 
Select one:
a. 1
b. 1.5
c. 2.5 
d. 4
A

c. 2.5

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12
Q

Most of the body’s iron is obtained from:
Select one:
a. animal-based food sources
b. recycled iron content from aged red blood cells (RBCs)
c. endoplasmic reticulum production
d. vegetable-based food sources

A

b. recycled iron content from aged red blood cells (RBC

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13
Q 
Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein that influences a stem cell to become a:
Select one:
a. lymphocyte
b. platelet
c. neutrophil
d. red blood cell
A

d. red blood cell

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14
Q

Neutrophils are:
Select one:
a. agranular
b. the predominant phagocytes of early inflammation
c. the largest cells in the body
d. enter the site of injury after lymphocytes and macrophages

A

b. the predominant phagocytes of early inflammation

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15
Q 
Results of hemogram (CBC) in a person with iron deficiency anemia include:
Select one:
a. microcytosis
b. elevated ferritin
c. reticulcytopenia
d. macrocytosis
A

a. microcytosis

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16
Q

Which is most consistent with the diagnosis of COPD?
Select one:
a. FEV1/FVC ratio equal to or less than 0.70 after properly timed short-acting beta agonist (SABA, e.g., albuterol) use
b. Dyspnea on exhalation
c. Elevated diaphragms noted on chest x-ray
d. Polycythemia noted on complete blood cell count

A

a. FEV1/FVC ratio equal to or less than 0.70 after properly timed short-acting beta agonist (SABA, e.g., albuterol) use

17
Q 
The diagnosis of fibromyalgia involves identifying multiple tender points throughout the body.  How many tender points must be identified to make the diagnosis?
Select one:
a. 4
b. 7
c. 11 
d. 18
A

c. 11

18
Q

Which of the following statements regarding vitamin D is false?
Select one:
a. diminishes the secretion of insulin
b. inhibits abnormal cellular growth
c. encourages the absorption and metabolism of calcium and phosphorous
d. reduces inflammation

A

a. diminishes the secretion of insulin

19
Q 
The likely causative organisms of impetigo in a 6-year-old child include:
Select one:
a. H. influenzae and S. pneumoniae
b. group A streptococcus and S. aureus 
c. M. catarrhalis and adenovirus
d. P. aeruginosa and fungi
A

b. group A streptococcus and S. aureus

20
Q 
Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions, such as atopic dermatitis, involve the action of which antibodies binding to receptor sites on mast cells?
Select one:
a. IgA
b. IgE 
c. IgG
d. IgM
A

b. IgE

21
Q 
Psoriasis vulgaris is a chronic skin disease caused by:
Select one:
a. bacterial colonization
b. absence of melanin
c. accelerated mitosis 
d. type I hypersensitivity reaction
A

c. accelerated mitosis

22
Q 
The most common  sites for squamous and basal cell carcinoma include:
Select one:
a. palms of hands and soles of feet
b. pelvic and lumbar regions
c. the abdomen
d. the face and scalp
A

d. the face and scalp

23
Q 
The most common human papillomavirus types associated with cutaneous, non-genital warts includes:
Select one:
a. 1, 2, and 4
b. 6 and 11 
c. 16 and 18
d. 32 and 36
A

b. 6 and 11

24
Q

The most common causative organisms in cellulitis are:

Select one:

a. Escheria coli and Haemophilus influenzae
b. Bacterioides species and other anaerobes
c. group a beta-hemolytic streptococci and S. aureus
d. Pathogenic viruses

A

c. group a beta-hemolytic streptcocci and S. aureus

25
Q

Pernicious anemia is usually caused by:
Select one:
a. dietary deficiency of vitamin B12
b. lack of production of intrinsic factor by the gastric mucosa
c. RBC enzyme deficiency
d. a combination of micronutrient deficiencies caused by malabsorption

A

b. . lack of production of intrinsic factor by the gastric mucosa

26
Q 
Which of the following is most consistent with the presentation of a patient with bipolar I disorder?
Select one:
a. Increased need for sleep
b. Impulsive behavior 
c. Fatigue
d. Anhedonia
A

b. Impulsive behavior

27
Q

A patient being is being evaluated in the urgent care clinic and is found to have hypokalemia. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding hypokalemia?


Select one:
a. Hypokalemia occurs when the serum level is below 135 mEq/L
b. One cause of hypokalemia is diabetic ketoacidosis.
c. Dietary causes of low potassium are common
d. Diuretics do not cause hypokalemia

A

b. One cause of hypokalemia is diabetic ketoacidosis

28
Q

Which statement is true regarding stress and the immune system?
Select one:
a. Seasonal allergies are related to stress.
b. Cardiovascular disease is one condition that is related to stress.
c. The level of proinflammatory cytokines is decreased.
d. Negative emotions cause few alterations in cytokine production.

A

b. Cardiovascular disease is one condition that is related to stress.

29
Q 
Hypothyroidism most often develops as a result of:
Select one:
a. primary pituitary failure
b. thyroid neoplasia
c. autoimmune thyroiditis 
d. radioactive iodine exposure
A

c. autoimmune thyroiditis

30
Q 
The most common risk factor for stroke is:
Select one:
a. Hypertension 
b. Factor V Leiden
c. Obesity
d. Alcohol consumption
A

a. Hypertension

31
Q

Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM)?
Select one:
a. Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis may occur as a result of lack of insulin.
b. This condition is commonly diagnosed on routine examination or work-up for other health problems.
c. Insulin resistance is a significant part of the disease.
d. A major risk factor is obesit

A

a.. Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis may occur as a result of lack of insulin.

32
Q 
An abnormality of which of the following is the most sensitive marker for myocardial damage?
Select one:
a. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
b. Creatine phosphokinase (CPK)
c. Troponin 1 (cTn1) 
d. Lactate dehydrogenase
A

c. Troponin 1 (cTn1)

33
Q 
Which of the following genes in their normal state negatively regulate proliferation?
Select one:
a. Oncogenes
b. Tumor suppressor genes
c. Proto-oncogenes
d. Telomeres
A

b. Tumor suppressor genes

34
Q 
Which process is responsible for slowing the heart rate?
Select one:
a. Sympathetic excitation
b. Parasympathetic excitation 
c. Baroreceptor reflex
d. Bainbridge reflex
A

b. Parasympathetic excitation

Pathology (14 decks)

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