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Pathology > Midterm exam > Flashcards

Midterm exam Flashcards

1
Q

_______ can move substances against their concentration gradients.

a. Active transport
b. facilitated diffusion
c. Osmosis
d. Solvents

A

Active transport

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2
Q

Movement of water and a solute through a membrane due to higher pressure on one side of the membrane than the other is:

a. diffusion
b. filtration
c. osmosis
d. hydrostatic pressure

A

Filteration

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3
Q

All of the following are characteristics of inflammation except:

a. warmth
b. palor
c. pain
d. erythema

A

Palor

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4
Q

A(n) _______ solution has the same osmolality as normal body fluids.

a. hypertonic
b. hypotonic
c. aqueous
d. isotonic

A

Isotonic

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5
Q

Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier?

a. antibacterial fatty acids
b. earwax
c. epithelial cells
d. lysozymes in tears

A

Epithelial cells

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6
Q

Which statement is true regarding the inflammatory response?

a. Inflammatory response generates a nonspecific response
b. Inflammatory response is the first line of defense
c. Inflammatory response relies on cellular components only
d. Inflammatory response is specific

A

Inflammatory response generates a non-specific response

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7
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of cellular injury?

a. Hypoxia
b. Free radical induced injury
c. Mechanical factors
d. Chemical injury

A

a. Hypoxia

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8
Q

Which of the following is the best description of the term chemotaxis?



a. Uses the second messenger system
b. Cellular signal affecting the cell of origin
c. Movement of cells along a chemical gradient
d. Ligands bind with receptors, triggering a second reaction

A

Movement of cells along a chemical gradient

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9
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_ is primarily responsible for the plasma oncotic pressure
Select one:
a. Sodium
b. Chloride
c. Potassium
d. Albumin
A

d. Albumin

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10
Q 
The most dangerous effect of hyperkalemia is its action the:
Select one:
a. Kidneys
b. Heart 
c. Lungs
d. Brain
A

b. Heart

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11
Q

Which statement is true regarding autosomal dominant gene transmission?
Select one:
a. The affected parent transmits the gene to one half of his or her children.
b. The affected gene is found in males only.
c. Generations are skipped for transmission.
d. Females will transmit the disease more often than males.

A

a. The affected parent transmits the gene to one half of his or her children.

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12
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines how a tumor spreads?


Select one:
a. rate of growth
b. body temperature
c. degree of differentiation
d. anatomic barriers
A

b. body temperature

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13
Q

All of the following statements regarding melanoma are true except:
Select one:
a. Even in the early stages, melanoma is not curable.
b. Individuals with a history of three or more sunburns are at risk for melanoma.
c. Individuals with fair skin and hair color are at risk for melanoma.
d. Melanoma may suddenly appear without warning.

A

a. The correct answer is: Even in the early stages, melanoma is not curable.

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14
Q

It is true that hyperchloremia:
Select one:
a. Occurs with a deficit of sodium
b. Occurs with an excess of bicarbonate
c. Has specific symptoms such as increased thirst
d. Requires treatment of underlying disease

A

d. Requires treatment of underlying disease

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15
Q 
An organelle that is responsible for the metabolism of cellular energy is:
Select one:
a. golgi complex
b. mitochondrion 
c. endoplasmic reticulum
d. nucleolus
A

b. mitochondrion

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16
Q

Neutrophils are:
Select one:
a. agranular
b. the predominant phagocytes of early inflammation
c. the largest cells in the body
d. enter the site of injury after lymphocytes and macrophages

A

b. the predominant phagocytes of early inflammation

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17
Q 
Common causes of edema formation (increased filtration of fluid from capillaries into surrounding tissues) include all of the following except:
Select one:
a. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure
b. Decreased hydrostatic pressure 
c. Increased capillary permeability
d. Lymphatic obstruction
A

b. Decreased hydrostatic pressure

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18
Q

The function of the clotting system in injury or inflammation includes all of the following except:
Select one:
a. Prevents the spread of infection to adjacent tissues
b. Traps microorganisms at the site of greatest inflammatory cell activity
c. Prevents clot formation at the site of injury
d. Provides a framework for future repair and healing

A

c. Prevents clot formation at the site of injury

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19
Q

Which statement regarding viruses is true?
Select one:
a. Viruses are less common than bacterial infections.
b. Viruses actively produce exotoxins.
c. Viruses contain all of their genetic information in ribonucleic acid (RNA).
d. Viruses bypass many defense mechanisms by developing intracellularly.

A

d. Viruses bypass many defense mechanisms by developing intracellularly.

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20
Q

A patient being is being evaluated in the urgent care clinic and is found to have hypokalemia. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding hypokalemia?


Select one:
a. Hypokalemia occurs when the serum level is below 135 mEq/L
b. One cause of hypokalemia is diabetic ketoacidosis.
c. Dietary causes of low potassium are common
d. Diuretics do not cause hypokalemia

A

b. One cause of hypokalemia is diabetic ketoacidosis.

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21
Q 
Which is a foreign or non-self substance?
Select one:
a. Immunoglobulins
b. Antigens 
c. Lymphocytes
d. Antibodies
A

b. Antigens

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22
Q 
Which two systems regulate the complex emotional response to pain?
Select one:
a. Frontal and cerebellar lobes
b. Limbic and reticular systems 
c. Thalamus and brainstem
d. Midbrain and nuclei of thalamus
A

b. Limbic and reticular systems

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23
Q

Which of the following is a benefit of fever?
Select one:
a. Decreases lymphocytic transformation
b. Diminishes the response of phagocytosis
c. Decreases calcium concentration
d. Deprives bacteria of a food source

A

d. Deprives bacteria of a food source

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24
Q 
All of the following statements are true regarding sleep patterns in older adults except:
Select one:
a. Sleep time is decreased
b. Sleep initiation is delayed
c. Sleep maintenance is impaired
d. Sleep is deeper
A

d. Sleep is deeper

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25
Q 
All of the following are characteristics of Alzheimer disease except:
Select one:
a. Rapid onset 
b. Memory loss
c. Increased irritabliity
d. Anxiety and depression
A

a. Rapid onset

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26
Q

Air pollution is associated with cancer. Which of the following statements pertaining to this association is NOT true?
Select one:
a. There is good evidence that air pollution is associated with cancers other than lung and childhood cancers.
b. Even modest contamination of the atmosphere can result in inhalation of appreciable doses of pollutants.
c. Radon exposure can occur in underground mines and in homes.
d. Indoor air pollution is considered worse than outdoor air pollution.

A

a. There is good evidence that air pollution is associated with cancers other than lung and childhood cancers.

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27
Q

Which statement is true regarding stress and the immune system?
Select one:
a. Seasonal allergies are related to stress.
b. Cardiovascular disease is one condition that is related to stress.
c. The level of proinflammatory cytokines is decreased.
d. Negative emotions cause few alterations in cytokine production.

A

b. Cardiovascular disease is one condition that is related to stress.

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28
Q

All of the following statements regarding fever are true except:
Select one:
a. Endogenous pyrogens may produce fever.
b. The body’s central thermostat is the hypothalamus.
c. Fever is a failure of the body to regulate temperature.
d. Fever is a possibly helpful defense.

A

c. Fever is a failure of the body to regulate temperature.

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29
Q 
Which term describes the type of immunity that occurs when preformed antibodies are transferred from a donor to a recipient?
Select one:
a. Passive 
b. Active
c. Memory
d. Cellular
A

a. Passive

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30
Q 
An individual sustains a spinal cord injury that results in paralysis below the waist.  Which of the following describes this condition?
Select one:
a. Quadriplegia
b. Hemiplegia
c. Paraplegia 
d. Diplegia
A

c. Paraplegia

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31
Q 
The sleep stage in which dreaming occurs is:
Select one:
a. Slow wave or N3
b. NREM
c. REM 
d. All of the above
A

c. REM

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32
Q 
The most common risk factor for stroke is:
Select one:
a. Hypertension 
b. Factor V Leiden
c. Obesity
d. Alcohol consumption
A

a. Hypertension

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33
Q 
Inflammation from brain injury causes \_\_\_\_\_\_ edema.
Select one:
a. neurogenic
b. vasogenic
c. intracellular
d. None of the above
A

b. vasogenic

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34
Q 
The first line of defense against microorganisms is:
Select one:
a. phagocytic cells
b. antibodies
c. anatomic barriers
d. inflammation
A

d. anatomic barriers

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35
Q 
A  \_\_\_\_\_ gene will be expressed only if it’s present in two copies.
Select one:
a. dominant
b. recessive 
c. sex-linked
d. all of the above
A

b. recessive

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36
Q 
Seizure initiation involves high-frequency firing bursts in a group of neurons that become \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. hypersynchronized 
b. severed
c. damaged
d. stunned
A

a. hypersynchronized

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37
Q

All of the following are characteristic of a hormone except:
Select one:
a. Hormones have specific rates and rhythms of secretion.
b. Hormones operate independent of feedback systems.
c. Hormones affect only cells with appropriate receptors.
d. Hormones are excreted by the kidneys.

A

b. Hormones operate independent of feedback systems.

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38
Q 
Which of the following is secreted by the posterior pituitary?
Select one:
a. Oxytocin 
b. Calcitonin
c. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
d. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
A

a. Oxytocin

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39
Q

Which result may be used as a diagnosis for diabetes mellitus?
Select one:
a. Fasting glucose value greater than 126 mg/dL
b. Plasma glucose value of 200 mg/dL or greater 30 minutes after ingesting glucose
c. Random glucose level greater than 126 mg/dL
d. Symptoms of polyphagia with a normal random glucose

A

a. Fasting glucose value greater than 126 mg/dL

40
Q

Which statement is true regarding diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Select one:
a. An increase in insulin is observed.
b. Assessment shows a decrease in catecholamines.
c. Condition peaks in older adult.
d. Accelerated gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis are present.

A

d. Accelerated gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis are present.

41
Q

Which statement is true regarding benign prostatic hypertrophy?
Select one:
a. BPH is an uncommon condition
b. BPH may be problematic if urethral compression occurs.
c. 10% of men will have BPH by age 80 years.
d. The prostate is largest at birth and continues to shrink.

A

b. BPH may be problematic if urethral compression occurs.

42
Q

Match:

Aldosterone

A

Extracellular fluid volume and plasma potassium

43
Q

Match:

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

A

menstrual cycle regulation

44
Q 
Match:
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
A

Plasma calcium concentration

45
Q

Match:

Insulin

A

Blood glucose concentration

46
Q

Which statement is true regarding aging and immune system function?
Select one:
a. Older adults have decreased circulating antibodies
b. T-cell function is increased
c. Antibody production to specific antigens is decreased
d. Response to infection is rapid.

A

a. Antibody production to specific antigens is decreased

47
Q

Eosinophils

A

defend against parasites; degrade vasoactive substances released by mast cells,

48
Q

Mast cells

A

Release chemicals that initiate the inflammatory response

49
Q

Macrophages

A

Phagocytize microorganisms and cellular debris; secrete chemicals that promote tissue healing; activate adaptive immunity

50
Q

Neutrophils

A

Phagocytize microorganisms and cellular debris soon after injury; secrete chemicals that call in longer-acting phagocytes

51
Q

Which statement regarding viruses is true?
Select one:
a. Viruses are less common than bacterial infections.
b. Viruses actively produce exotoxins.
c. Viruses bypass many defense mechanisms by developing intracellularly.
d. Viruses contain all their genetic information in ribonucleic acid (RNA).

A

c. Viruses bypass many defense mechanisms by developing intracellularly.

52
Q

Which of the following characteristics applies to type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM)?
Select one:
a. Physical activity worsens insulin resistance.
b. Major risk factors are heredity and obesity.
c. Pear-shaped body is commonly found.
d. Exogenous insulin is usually required for control of disease.

A

b. Major risk factors are heredity and obesity.

53
Q

Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM)?
Select one:
a. Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis may occur as a result of lack of insulin.
b. This condition is commonly diagnosed on routine examination or work-up for other health problems.
c. Insulin resistance is a significant part of the disease.
d. A major risk factor is obesity.

A

a. Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis may occur as a result of lack of insulin.

54
Q

Clinical presentation of type 1 DM usually includes all of the following except:
Select one:
a. Report of recent unintended weight gain
b. Ketosis
c. Polyuria
d. Thirst

A

a. Report of recent unintended weight gain

55
Q 
Hemoglobin A1C best provides information glucose control over the past:
Select one:
a. 1 to 29 days
b. 21 to 47 days
c. 48 to 63 days
d. 64 to 90 days
A

d. 64 to 90 days

56
Q 
Possible adverse outcomes from heatstroke include:
Select one:
a. Anemia
b. Hypernatremia
c. Rhabdomyolysis 
d. Leukopenia
A

c. Rhabdomyolysis

57
Q 
Hypothyroidism most often develops as a result of:
Select one:
a. primary pituitary failure
b. thyroid neoplasia
c. autoimmune thyroiditis 
d. radioactive iodine exposure
A

c. autoimmune thyroiditis

58
Q 
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is released by the:
Select one:
a. anterior lobe of the pituitary 
b. thyroid follicles
c. hypothalamus
d. adrenal cortex
A

a.anterior lobe of the pituitary

59
Q

Which statement is true regarding the effects of circulating epinephrine in the body?
Select one:
a. The heart rate will slow down.
b. The heart rate’s contractility will decrease.
c. Blood vessels to skeletal muscle will constrict.
d. Transient hyperglycemia will result.

A

d. Transient hyperglycemia will result.

60
Q

Which statement is true regarding stress and the immune system?
Select one:
a. Seasonal allergies are related to stress.
b. Cardiovascular disease is one condition that is related to stress.
c. The level of proinflammatory cytokines is decreased.
d. Negative emotions cause few alterations in cytokine production.

A

b. Cardiovascular disease is one condition that is related to stress.

61
Q

Which of the following is most consistent with a person presenting with unstable angina?
Select one:
a. A 5-minute episode of chest tightness brought on by stair climbing and relieved by rest.
b. A severe, searing pain that penetrates the test and lasts about 30 seconds.
c. Chest pressure lasting 20 minutes that occurs at rest.
d. “heartburn” relieved by position change

A

c. Chest pressure lasting 20 minutes that occurs at rest.

62
Q 
An abnormality of which of the following is the most sensitive marker for myocardial damage?
Select one:
a. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
b. Creatine phosphokinase (CPK)
c. Troponin 1 (cTn1) 
d. Lactate dehydrogenase
A

c. Troponin 1 (cTn1)

63
Q 
A leading cause of heart failure is:
Select one:
a. hypertension 
b. atrial fibrillation
c. pulmonary embolism
d. COPD
A

a. hypertension

64
Q

Which of the following best describes asthma?
Select one:
a. Intermittent airway inflammation with occasional bronchospasm
b. A disease of bronchospasm that leads to airway inflammation
c. Chronic airway inflammation with superimposed bronchospasm
d. Relatively fixed airway constriction

A

c. Chronic airway inflammation with superimposed bronchospasm

65
Q

Which is most consistent with the diagnosis of COPD?
Select one:
a. FEV1/FVC ratio equal to or less than 0.70 after properly timed short-acting beta agonist (SABA, e.g., albuterol) use
b. Dyspnea on exhalation
c. Elevated diaphragms noted on chest x-ray
d. Polycythemia noted on complete blood cell count

A

a.FEV1/FVC ratio equal to or less than 0.70 after properly timed short-acting beta agonist (SABA, e.g., albuterol) use

66
Q 
A person has a viral infection and is worried about cancer being linked to this virus. Which of the following viruses is NOT linked to the development of cancer?
Select one:
a. Epstein Barr virus
b. Hepatitis A 
c. Hepatitis B
d. Human papillomavirus
A

b. Hepatitis A

67
Q 
Clinical presentation of progressive primary tuberculosis most commonly includes all of the following except:
Select one:
a. frank hemoptysis 
b. malaise
c. fever
d. dry cough
A

a. frank hemoptysis

68
Q

Mr. Stephens, age 54, who smokes a pack of cigarettes per day, develops fever, chills, dyspnea, and a cough productive of thick yellowish-green sputum. On exam, you find a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F). He is tachypneic, with a respiratory rate of 22, heart rate of 112 BPM, and inspiratory crackles with expiratory wheezes are heard over the right upper and lower lung. A sputum stain reveals numerous white blood cells and bacteria. He is diagnosed with pneumonia.

What is the most likely causative organism?
Select one:
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae 
b. Coccidiomycosis
c. Mycobacterium
d. Moxarella catarrhalis
A

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae

69
Q

Mr. Stephens, age 54, who smokes a pack of cigarettes per day, develops fever, chills, dyspnea, and a cough productive of thick yellowish-green sputum. On exam, you find a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F). He is tachypneic, with a respiratory rate of 22, heart rate of 112 BPM, and inspiratory crackles with expiratory wheezes are heard over the right upper and lower lung. A sputum stain reveals numerous white blood cells and bacteria. He is diagnosed with pneumonia.

What is the difference between bacterial and viral pneumonia?
Select one:
a. Viral pneumonia produces more alveolar exudate than bacterial pneumonia.
b. Viral pneumonia is usually mild and self-limited, whereas bacterial pneumonia may be severe and produces substantial alveolar exudate.
c. Bacterial pneumonia may be caused by rhinovirus, whereas viral pneumonia is commonly caused by blastomycoses.
d. Viral pneumonia tends to cause more severe disease than bacterial pneumonia.

A

b. Viral pneumonia is usually mild and self-limited, whereas bacterial pneumonia may be severe and produces substantial alveolar exudate.

70
Q 
The rate of bronchiolitis is highest in which age group:
Select one:
a. toddlers
b. school-aged children 
c. infants younger than 2 years
d. adolescents
A

c. infants younger than 2 years

71
Q 
Cardiovascular diseases can contribute to male sexual dysfunction by interfering with:
Select one:
a. erection 
b. ejaculation
c. libido
d. spermatogenesis
A

a. erection

72
Q 
Sam is a 4-year-old boy who presents with a 1-week history of intermittent fever, rash, and “watery, red eyes.”  Clinical presentation is of an alert child who is cooperative with examination but irritable, with a temperature of 38°C (100.4°F), pulse rate 132 bpm, and respiratory rate of 38/min.  Physical examination findings include nasal crusting; dry, erythematous, cracked lips; red, enlarged tonsils without exudate; and elevated tongue papillae.  The diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is being considered.  The long-term consequences of Kawasaki disease include:
Select one:
a. Renal insufficiency
b. Coronary artery obstruction 
c. Hepatic failure
d. Hypothyroidism
A

b. Coronary artery obstruction

73
Q

Which statement is true regarding mood disorders?
Select one:
a. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system hormones are decreased in a large percentage of individuals with major depression.
b. Depression occurs with deficits in brain norepinephrine.
c. Environmental factors play no role in depression.
d. No genetic role exists in depression.

A

b.Depression occurs with deficits in brain norepinephrine.

74
Q

Match with symptom/disorder

Lack of pleasure in activities that are normally pleasurable

Psychiatric disorder that involves loss of contact with reality

Perception that occurs in the absence of external stimuli

False belief that persists despite contradictory evidence

A

Anhedonia

Psychosis

Hallucinations

Delusions

75
Q

According to DSM-5, a diagnosis of depression must include either depressed mood or which of the following?
Select one:
a. Lost of interest or pleasure
b. Recurrent thoughts of death
c. Feelings of worthlessness
d. Weight change (either increase or decrease)

A

a. Lost of interest or pleasure

76
Q 
A person drinks alcohol in excessive quantities. Which of the following areas is least likely to develop cancer related to alcohol consumption?
Select one:
a. Oral cavity
b. Larynx
c. Spleen 
d. Liver
A

c. Spleen

77
Q 
An individual is diagnosed with a cancerous tumor that is very poorly differentiated. Which of the following terms describes these cells?


Select one:
a. Pleomorphic
b. Anaplastic 
c. Immortal
d. Independent
A

b. Anaplastic

78
Q 
Which of the following genes in their normal state negatively regulate proliferation?
Select one:
a. Oncogenes
b. Tumor suppressor genes 
c. Proto-oncogenes
d. Telomeres
A

b. Tumor suppressor genes

79
Q 
What is the term for cancers originating in connecting tissue?
Select one:
a. Sarcoma
b. Leukemia
c. Lymphoma
A

a. Sarcoma

80
Q

Which statement is true regarding basal cell carcinoma (BCC)?
Select one:
a. Individuals with these tumors usually have a history of tanning, not burning
b. BCC is most commonly found on the trunk of the body
c. BCC is most commonly found on sun-exposed areas of the body
d. BCC is commonly found on those with a dark complexion

A

c. BCC is most commonly found on sun-exposed areas of the body

81
Q 
All of the following factors are believed to increase the risk for cervical cancer except:
Select one:
a. Human papilloma virus (HPV) 
b. Cigarette smoking
c. Breast cancer
d. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
A

c. Breast cancer

82
Q

Regarding breast cancer, which statement(s) is/are true?
Select one:
a. The older the woman at her first child birth, the higher her risk.
b. Breast cancer is the most common cause of cancer in North American women.
c. More than 2/3 of those with breast cancer are older than age 55 years.
d. All of the above are true.

A

d. All of the above are true.

83
Q 
Which cells are the predominant cells in early inflammation?
Select one:
a. Neutrophils 
b. Monocytes
c. Basophils
d. Eosinophils
A

a. Neutrophils

84
Q

Which statement is true regarding post-hemorrhagic anemia?
Select one:
a. A common sign of post-hemorrhage anemia is hypertension
b. A healthy person can tolerate a loss of 2000 mL of blood without symptoms.
c. Post-hemorrhagic anemia is a normocytic, normochromic anemia caused by acute blood loss.
d. Post-hemorrhagic anemia causes an increase in venous return.

A

c. Post-hemorrhagic anemia is a normocytic, normochromic anemia caused by acute blood loss.

85
Q 
An individual having difficulty concentrating is restless and irritability and briefly confused.  These changes have developed over 2 days.  Which of the following describes this condition?
Select one:
a. Alzheimer disease
b. Dementia
c. Delirium 
d. Stupor
A

c. Delirium

86
Q 
A person experiences a unilateral, focal seizure, and maintains consciousness.  Which term is appropriate to describe this type of seizure. 
Select one:
a. Generalized
b. Secondary
c. Partial 
d. Status epilepticus
A

c. Partial

87
Q

Which statement correctly defines preload?
Select one:
a. Resistance to the ejection of blood from the left ventricle
b. Wall tension that is related to internal blood vessel radius
c. Pressure generated in the left ventricle at the end of diastole
d. None of the above

A

c. Pressure generated in the left ventricle at the end of diastole

88
Q 
Which process is responsible for slowing the heart rate?
Select one:
a. Sympathetic excitation
b. Parasympathetic excitation 
c. Baroreceptor reflex
d. Bainbridge reflex
A

b. parasympathetic excitation

89
Q 
Which factors determine cardiac output?
Select one:
a. Parasympathetic and sympathetic activity
b. Preload and afterload
c. Heart rate and stroke volume 
d. Right and left atrial pressure
A

c. Heart rate and stroke volume

90
Q

Which statement best describes a type 1 reaction?
Select one:
a. Most type 1 reactions are mediated by IgA.
b. Most type 1 reactions are allergic.
c. Most occur against medications.
d. Seldom do type 1 reactions contribute to autoimmune disease.

A

b. Most type 1 reactions are allergic.

91
Q 
A stress response results in the stimulation of which sympathetic nervous system receptors?
Select one:
a. α – adrenergic receptors 
b. β – receptors
c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
d. Growth hormone (GH)
A

a. α – adrenergic receptors

92
Q 
William is a 64-year-old male who suffered a stroke which affected Broca’s area.  What is a possible clinical consequence of damage to Broca’s area?
Select one:
a. Difficulty understanding speech
b. Difficulty forming words 
c. Inability to hear
d. Right sided hemiplegia
A

b. Difficulty forming words

93
Q 
Which of the following is involved in pain transmission?
Select one:
a. Dorsal horn of the spinal cord 
b. Hypothalamus
c. Anterior horn
d. Cerebellum
A

a. Dorsal horn of the spinal cord

94
Q

All of the following are risk factors for hypertension except:
Select one:
a. Female gender
b. Positive family history for hypertension
c. Glucose intolerance
d. High dietary sodium intake

A

a. Female gender

95
Q 
What is the most common complication of acute myocardial infarction?
Select one:
a. Dysrhythmia 
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Pericarditis
d. Dressler post-infarction syndrome
A

a. Dysrhythmia

96
Q 
Results of hemogram (CBC) in a person with iron deficiency anemia include:
Select one:
a. microcytosis 
b. elevated ferritin
c. reticulcytopenia
d. macrocytosis
A

a. microcytosis

97
Q 
Manifestations of primary hyperparathyroidism include:
Select one:
a. chronic hypercalcemia
b. increased bone resorption
c. hypercalciuria
d. all of the above
A

d. all the above

Pathology (14 decks)

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