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NASM CPT > Practice Quiz > Flashcards

Practice Quiz Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement?

A

3-6 mg/kg

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2
Q

Which term refers to an anatomical position on the opposite side of the body?

A

Contralateral

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3
Q

When an exercise is high intensity and lasts about 10 seconds, which of the following energy pathways is predominantly in use?

A

ATP-PC

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4
Q

Maintenance of which of the following is an integrated process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency using visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive inputs?

A

Postural equilibrium

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5
Q

Which of the following best defines muscle imbalance?

A

Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint.

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6
Q

Which of the following is a small terminal branch of an artery, which ends in capillaries?

A

Arteriole

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7
Q

Which of the following refers to a straightening movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases?

A

Extension

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8
Q

What are responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues and are located in muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules?

A

Mechanoreceptors

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9
Q

A client has been performing cardiorespiratory exercise for four weeks. Which of the following physiologic adaptations should the personal trainer expect to observe in the client?

A

Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen

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10
Q

Which mechanoreceptor helps prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast?

A

Muscle spindle

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11
Q

Which of the following is true of eccentric motion?

A

It is known as “a negative” in the health and fitness industry.

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12
Q

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes type II muscle fibers from type I muscle fibers?

A

Decreased oxygen delivery

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13
Q

Which term refers to the capability of soft tissues to be elongated or stretched?

A

Extensibility

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14
Q

For which of the following is building and repairing body tissues and structures a primary function?

A

Protein

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15
Q

Decreased levels of thyroid hormones tend to cause a decrease in which of the following?

A

Resting metabolic rate

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16
Q

What is the gastrocnemius responsible for eccentrically decelerating?

A

Dorsiflexion

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17
Q

Which of the following consists of a series of irregularly shaped bones divided into five different categories depending on where they are located in the backbone?

A

Vertebral column

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18
Q

What is the recommended daily intake for carbohydrates?

A

6-10 g/kg body weight

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19
Q

Which of the following refers to a position on or toward the front of the body?

A

Anterior

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20
Q

What term describes the number of heart beats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat?

A

Cardiac output

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21
Q

If a client’s knees move inward during an overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be foam rolled?

A

Adductors

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22
Q

Which of the following assessments is the MOST appropriate to evaluate any shoulder complex compensations?

A

Pushing assessment, lateral view

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23
Q

Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following?

A

Metabolic syndrome

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24
Q

Which of the following is a performance assessment test used to measure upper-extremity agility and stabilization?

A

Davies test

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25
Q

The Rockport walk test is used to determine which of the following?

A

Estimated oxygen consumption

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26
Q

Which of the following is considered a subjective assessment?

A

Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire

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27
Q

During the pushing assessment, the client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise is most appropriate?

A

Ball cobra

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28
Q

During a static postural assessment, a client displays an anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscle is likely to be shortened?

A

Hip flexor complex

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29
Q

Which of the following is part of the subjective information gathered in a fitness assessment?

A

Occupation

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30
Q

Which of the following assessments is commonly used in exercise physiology laboratories to measure body fat composition?

A

Hydrostatic weighing

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31
Q

During the overhead squat assessment, the client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are considered to be overactive?

A

Pectoralis minor

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32
Q

While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes a client demonstrating a low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?

A

Latissimus dorsi

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33
Q

Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete’s maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature?

A

Bench press 1RM test

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34
Q

Which of the following muscles is most likely overactive if a client’s head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment?

A

Levator scapulae

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35
Q

Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations?

A

Pushing assessment, lateral view

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36
Q

During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has pronated feet, as well as adducted and internally rotated knees. Which muscles would he or she expect to be shortened?

A

Adductors

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37
Q

When should the three measurements for resting heart rate be taken for greatest accuracy?

A

At the same time each day upon waking

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38
Q

Which scenario demonstrates a personal trainer correctly assessing a first-time client?

A

Assess the client’s cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.

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39
Q

Which is the preferred pulse point to record a person’s heart rate?

A

Radial artery

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40
Q

What time of day is it best to teach clients to record their resting heart rate?

A

Upon waking in the morning

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41
Q

Which of the following is part of the objective information collected in a fitness assessment?

A

Physiological measurements

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42
Q

Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?

A

Bicycles

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43
Q

What assessment should be avoided or modified if a client’s knees are falling in during a single-leg squat assessment?

A

Shark skill test

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44
Q

When starting with a brand new client who has never exercised, which resistance training system would be most appropriate?

A

Single-set

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45
Q

A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate?

A

Active

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46
Q

A new client tells the personal trainer she is experiencing soreness following her first exercise session. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome does this represent?

A

Alarm reaction

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47
Q

An advanced client who is interested in gaining high levels of muscle mass would benefit most from which of the following resistance-training systems?

A

Superset system

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48
Q

Which of the following refers to time taken to recuperate between sets or exercises?

A

Rest interval

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49
Q

When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?

A

Balance-strength

50
Q

What is the recommended rest period for power adaptations during a training period?

A

3–5 minutes

51
Q

Which of the following is within the recommended set range for a resistance training exercise when working in the Power Phase?

A

3

52
Q

Performing all sets of an exercise before moving onto the next exercise is known as which of the following?

A

Horizontal loading

53
Q

When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per resistance training exercise should be performed?

A

1-5

54
Q

Which of the following are the most fundamental components of designing a training program, determining the amount of stress placed on the body as well as which adaptations the body will incur?

A

Acute variables

55
Q

During functional movement patterns, a client demonstrates excessive spinal motion. Which of the following core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual?

A

Two-leg floor bridge

56
Q

Which of the following exercises is a plyometric-power exercise?

A

Proprioceptive plyometrics

57
Q

Which of the following is an example of a strength exercise during resistance training workouts?

A

Bench press

58
Q

During which of the following are optimal landing mechanics first established?

A

Plyometric-stabilization training

59
Q

What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?

A

Static stretching

60
Q

A client receives a training plan that spans an entire year. Which of the following is the correct term for this type of plan?

A

Macrocycle

61
Q

Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?

A

Standing cable row

62
Q

In which phase of the OPT model is it appropriate to superset a leg press with a single-leg squat?

A

Phase 2

63
Q

What is the focus in stage II of cardiorespiratory training?

A

Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise

64
Q

For which of the following are Stage I cardiorespiratory training programs designed?

A

To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients

65
Q

If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client’s warm-up?

A

Hip flexor complex

66
Q

A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent?

A

Vertical loading

67
Q

When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression?

A

Increasing proprioception

68
Q

A squat, curl, to two-arm press is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model?

A

Strength

69
Q

Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to step forward with toes pointing straight ahead and then pushing off of the front foot through heel onto the back leg and maintain balance on the back leg?

A

Lunge to balance

70
Q

Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

71
Q

Which of the following is an important quality of a good night’s sleep?

A

Improved mood

72
Q

Which balance-power exercise involves lifting one leg directly beside balance leg, hopping off the box and landing on ground on one leg; keeping toes pointing straight ahead and knees directly over the toes, and holding this position for 3 to 5 seconds?

A

Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

73
Q

What is involved in the preparatory step for a multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise?

A

Stand in front of a box with feet shoulder-width apart.

74
Q

Which of the following training types involves little motion through the spine and pelvis?

A

Core-stabilization

75
Q

When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client’s pectoralis major?

A

Medicine ball rotation chest pass

76
Q

What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise?

A

Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press

77
Q

In which of the following cases should a static stretch be performed?

A

When overactive muscles have been identified

78
Q

A client experiences difficulty in performing the prone iso-abs exercise. Which of the following should be suggested as an regression?

A

Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise

79
Q

Which of the following has the objective of uniformly strengthening the deep and superficial muscles that stabilize, align, and move the trunk of the body?

A

Core training

80
Q

For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise highly contraindicated?

A

Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy

81
Q

On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system?

A

Split-routine system

82
Q

What is the process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds?

A

Static stretching

83
Q

What can be thrown, caught, and used to provide resistance for a variety of movements, in a variety of planes of motion, and at a variety of velocities?

A

Medicine balls

84
Q

At what angle should the knees be when performing a ball crunch exercise?

A

90-degree

85
Q

When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?

A

Single-leg squat

86
Q

When training a client for speed, agility, and quickness, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?

A

One-ins

87
Q

Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?

A

Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.

88
Q

When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?

A

Two legs

89
Q

Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?

A

Standing cable chest press

90
Q

What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?

A

Leg-stabilization exercise

91
Q

Layla is in the third trimester of her pregnancy. What should be avoided when performing SMR with Layla?

A

Prone or supine positions

92
Q

How should exercises be performed in order to develop higher levels of stability?

A

In a controlled and unstable environment at slower speeds

93
Q

Which of the following involves the entire muscle action spectrum and contraction-velocity spectrum used during integrated, functional movements?

A

Plyometric-power training

94
Q

In the context of the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do not exercise but are thinking of becoming more active in the next six months?

A

Contemplation

95
Q

The fitness professional asks the client, “Why do you want to lose weight?” This is an example of which of the following types of questions?

A

Open-ended

96
Q

Which of the following is about having an attitude of genuine interest in seeking a clients perspective?

A

Active listening

97
Q

Which of the following is involved in active listening?

A

Communicating understanding

98
Q

Which of the following is the best example of a closed question?

A

How old are you?

99
Q

Creating a list of motivating key words (e.g., fast, go, focus) to replace negative thoughts is an example of what?

A

Positive self-talk

100
Q

What should a fitness professional avoid while communicating with a client?

A

Using negative communication

101
Q

A client has worked out a few times during the past few months with a personal trainer. She wants to become regularly active but isn’t sure how this is accomplished. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is the client?

A

Preparation

102
Q

Jennifer is concerned about staying motivated in her fitness program. What will provide her emotional support to remain motivated?

A

Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout.

103
Q

What is the purpose of asking an open-ended question during a client’s initial session?

A

Build a collaborative relationship with a client.

104
Q

Which of the following is true about clients who exercise in a group exercise setting?

A

They enjoy the social environment when working out.

105
Q

According to the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people have formed a change in their behavior for at least six months?

A

Maintenance

106
Q

In the context of the stages of change, which of the following describes stage 1?

A

People in this stage have no intention of changing.

107
Q

Which of the following is a technique that expresses the purported meaning of what was just heard?

A

Reflecting

108
Q

Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal?

A

“I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”

109
Q

What is the product a personal trainer must ultimately deliver to a client?

A

The result that is trying to be achieved

110
Q

What kind of business relies on members as its base revenue generator?

A

Commercial facilities

111
Q

For which of the following careers is passing a licensure exam to practice required?

A

Registered dietician

112
Q

All buying decisions are based on which of the following?

A

Emotion

113
Q

When engaging in active listening, a personal trainer should do which of the following?

A

Provide feedback after the client has finished speaking.

114
Q

What is a characteristic of independent fitness professionals?

A

They may be able to control their own schedule.

115
Q

How long must a certified personal trainer maintain financial, contract, and tax records for?

A

4 years

116
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of fitness professionals as independent contractors?

A

They are not employed by the club and therefore receive no benefits.

117
Q

For how long should a certified personal trainer maintain accurate contract and appointment records ?

A

4 years

118
Q

A client is looking for a simple way to make bodyweight exercises more proprioceptively challenging. Which of the following modalities would be most appropriate for this?

A

Suspension trainer

119
Q

The first goal of a new fitness professional should be what?

A

Obtain a certification from a recognized and accredited organization

120
Q

Casey is opening up his own personal training facility. What is one of the advantages he has?

A

He has the opportunity to appeal to a personalized clientele.

NASM CPT (7 decks)

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