Practice Quiz Flashcards
(120 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement?
A
3-6 mg/kg
2
Q
Which term refers to an anatomical position on the opposite side of the body?
A
Contralateral
3
Q
When an exercise is high intensity and lasts about 10 seconds, which of the following energy pathways is predominantly in use?
A
ATP-PC
4
Q
Maintenance of which of the following is an integrated process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency using visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive inputs?
A
Postural equilibrium
5
Q
Which of the following best defines muscle imbalance?
A
Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint.
6
Q
Which of the following is a small terminal branch of an artery, which ends in capillaries?
A
Arteriole
7
Q
Which of the following refers to a straightening movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases?
A
Extension
8
Q
What are responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues and are located in muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules?
A
Mechanoreceptors
9
Q
A client has been performing cardiorespiratory exercise for four weeks. Which of the following physiologic adaptations should the personal trainer expect to observe in the client?
A
Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen
10
Q
Which mechanoreceptor helps prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast?
A
Muscle spindle
11
Q
Which of the following is true of eccentric motion?
A
It is known as “a negative” in the health and fitness industry.
12
Q
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes type II muscle fibers from type I muscle fibers?
A
Decreased oxygen delivery
13
Q
Which term refers to the capability of soft tissues to be elongated or stretched?
A
Extensibility
14
Q
For which of the following is building and repairing body tissues and structures a primary function?
A
Protein
15
Q
Decreased levels of thyroid hormones tend to cause a decrease in which of the following?
A
Resting metabolic rate
16
Q
What is the gastrocnemius responsible for eccentrically decelerating?
A
Dorsiflexion
17
Q
Which of the following consists of a series of irregularly shaped bones divided into five different categories depending on where they are located in the backbone?
A
Vertebral column
18
Q
What is the recommended daily intake for carbohydrates?
A
6-10 g/kg body weight
19
Q
Which of the following refers to a position on or toward the front of the body?
A
Anterior
20
Q
What term describes the number of heart beats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat?
A
Cardiac output
21
Q
If a client’s knees move inward during an overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be foam rolled?
A
Adductors
22
Q
Which of the following assessments is the MOST appropriate to evaluate any shoulder complex compensations?
A
Pushing assessment, lateral view
23
Q
Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following?
A
Metabolic syndrome
24
Q
Which of the following is a performance assessment test used to measure upper-extremity agility and stabilization?
A
Davies test
25
The Rockport walk test is used to determine which of the following?
Estimated oxygen consumption
26
Which of the following is considered a subjective assessment?
Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire
27
During the pushing assessment, the client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise is most appropriate?
Ball cobra
28
During a static postural assessment, a client displays an anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscle is likely to be shortened?
Hip flexor complex
29
Which of the following is part of the subjective information gathered in a fitness assessment?
Occupation
30
Which of the following assessments is commonly used in exercise physiology laboratories to measure body fat composition?
Hydrostatic weighing
31
During the overhead squat assessment, the client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are considered to be overactive?
Pectoralis minor
32
While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes a client demonstrating a low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?
Latissimus dorsi
33
Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete’s maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature?
Bench press 1RM test
34
Which of the following muscles is most likely overactive if a client’s head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment?
Levator scapulae
35
Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations?
Pushing assessment, lateral view
36
During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has pronated feet, as well as adducted and internally rotated knees. Which muscles would he or she expect to be shortened?
Adductors
37
When should the three measurements for resting heart rate be taken for greatest accuracy?
At the same time each day upon waking
38
Which scenario demonstrates a personal trainer correctly assessing a first-time client?
Assess the client's cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.
39
Which is the preferred pulse point to record a person’s heart rate?
Radial artery
40
What time of day is it best to teach clients to record their resting heart rate?
Upon waking in the morning
41
Which of the following is part of the objective information collected in a fitness assessment?
Physiological measurements
42
Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?
Bicycles
43
What assessment should be avoided or modified if a client’s knees are falling in during a single-leg squat assessment?
Shark skill test
44
When starting with a brand new client who has never exercised, which resistance training system would be most appropriate?
Single-set
45
A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate?
Active
46
A new client tells the personal trainer she is experiencing soreness following her first exercise session. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome does this represent?
Alarm reaction
47
An advanced client who is interested in gaining high levels of muscle mass would benefit most from which of the following resistance-training systems?
Superset system
48
Which of the following refers to time taken to recuperate between sets or exercises?
Rest interval
49
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
Balance-strength
50
What is the recommended rest period for power adaptations during a training period?
3–5 minutes
51
Which of the following is within the recommended set range for a resistance training exercise when working in the Power Phase?
3
52
Performing all sets of an exercise before moving onto the next exercise is known as which of the following?
Horizontal loading
53
When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per resistance training exercise should be performed?
1-5
54
Which of the following are the most fundamental components of designing a training program, determining the amount of stress placed on the body as well as which adaptations the body will incur?
Acute variables
55
During functional movement patterns, a client demonstrates excessive spinal motion. Which of the following core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual?
Two-leg floor bridge
56
Which of the following exercises is a plyometric-power exercise?
Proprioceptive plyometrics
57
Which of the following is an example of a strength exercise during resistance training workouts?
Bench press
58
During which of the following are optimal landing mechanics first established?
Plyometric-stabilization training
59
What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?
Static stretching
60
A client receives a training plan that spans an entire year. Which of the following is the correct term for this type of plan?
Macrocycle
61
Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?
Standing cable row
62
In which phase of the OPT model is it appropriate to superset a leg press with a single-leg squat?
Phase 2
63
What is the focus in stage II of cardiorespiratory training?
Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise
64
For which of the following are Stage I cardiorespiratory training programs designed?
To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients
65
If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client's warm-up?
Hip flexor complex
66
A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent?
Vertical loading
67
When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression?
Increasing proprioception
68
A squat, curl, to two-arm press is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model?
Strength
69
Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to step forward with toes pointing straight ahead and then pushing off of the front foot through heel onto the back leg and maintain balance on the back leg?
Lunge to balance
70
Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?
Reciprocal inhibition
71
Which of the following is an important quality of a good night's sleep?
Improved mood
72
Which balance-power exercise involves lifting one leg directly beside balance leg, hopping off the box and landing on ground on one leg; keeping toes pointing straight ahead and knees directly over the toes, and holding this position for 3 to 5 seconds?
Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
73
What is involved in the preparatory step for a multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise?
Stand in front of a box with feet shoulder-width apart.
74
Which of the following training types involves little motion through the spine and pelvis?
Core-stabilization
75
When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client's pectoralis major?
Medicine ball rotation chest pass
76
What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise?
Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press
77
In which of the following cases should a static stretch be performed?
When overactive muscles have been identified
78
A client experiences difficulty in performing the prone iso-abs exercise. Which of the following should be suggested as an regression?
Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise
79
Which of the following has the objective of uniformly strengthening the deep and superficial muscles that stabilize, align, and move the trunk of the body?
Core training
80
For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise highly contraindicated?
Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy
81
On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system?
Split-routine system
82
What is the process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds?
Static stretching
83
What can be thrown, caught, and used to provide resistance for a variety of movements, in a variety of planes of motion, and at a variety of velocities?
Medicine balls
84
At what angle should the knees be when performing a ball crunch exercise?
90-degree
85
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?
Single-leg squat
86
When training a client for speed, agility, and quickness, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?
One-ins
87
Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?
Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
88
When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?
Two legs
89
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?
Standing cable chest press
90
What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?
Leg-stabilization exercise
91
Layla is in the third trimester of her pregnancy. What should be avoided when performing SMR with Layla?
Prone or supine positions
92
How should exercises be performed in order to develop higher levels of stability?
In a controlled and unstable environment at slower speeds
93
Which of the following involves the entire muscle action spectrum and contraction-velocity spectrum used during integrated, functional movements?
Plyometric-power training
94
In the context of the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do not exercise but are thinking of becoming more active in the next six months?
Contemplation
95
The fitness professional asks the client, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of which of the following types of questions?
Open-ended
96
Which of the following is about having an attitude of genuine interest in seeking a clients perspective?
Active listening
97
Which of the following is involved in active listening?
Communicating understanding
98
Which of the following is the best example of a closed question?
How old are you?
99
Creating a list of motivating key words (e.g., fast, go, focus) to replace negative thoughts is an example of what?
Positive self-talk
100
What should a fitness professional avoid while communicating with a client?
Using negative communication
101
A client has worked out a few times during the past few months with a personal trainer. She wants to become regularly active but isn’t sure how this is accomplished. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is the client?
Preparation
102
Jennifer is concerned about staying motivated in her fitness program. What will provide her emotional support to remain motivated?
Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout.
103
What is the purpose of asking an open-ended question during a client's initial session?
Build a collaborative relationship with a client.
104
Which of the following is true about clients who exercise in a group exercise setting?
They enjoy the social environment when working out.
105
According to the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people have formed a change in their behavior for at least six months?
Maintenance
106
In the context of the stages of change, which of the following describes stage 1?
People in this stage have no intention of changing.
107
Which of the following is a technique that expresses the purported meaning of what was just heard?
Reflecting
108
Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal?
“I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”
109
What is the product a personal trainer must ultimately deliver to a client?
The result that is trying to be achieved
110
What kind of business relies on members as its base revenue generator?
Commercial facilities
111
For which of the following careers is passing a licensure exam to practice required?
Registered dietician
112
All buying decisions are based on which of the following?
Emotion
113
When engaging in active listening, a personal trainer should do which of the following?
Provide feedback after the client has finished speaking.
114
What is a characteristic of independent fitness professionals?
They may be able to control their own schedule.
115
How long must a certified personal trainer maintain financial, contract, and tax records for?
4 years
116
Which of the following is a disadvantage of fitness professionals as independent contractors?
They are not employed by the club and therefore receive no benefits.
117
For how long should a certified personal trainer maintain accurate contract and appointment records ?
4 years
118
A client is looking for a simple way to make bodyweight exercises more proprioceptively challenging. Which of the following modalities would be most appropriate for this?
Suspension trainer
119
The first goal of a new fitness professional should be what?
Obtain a certification from a recognized and accredited organization
120
Casey is opening up his own personal training facility. What is one of the advantages he has?
He has the opportunity to appeal to a personalized clientele.
