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Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following Grand Cru vineyards is located in Vosne Romanee?

a. Chambertin
b. Montrachet
c. La Tache
d. Corton
e. Bonnes Mares

A

c. La Tache

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2
Q

Which of the following appellations is not located within the Medoc?

a. Paulliac
b. St-Julien
c. Pomerol
d. Listrac
e. Margaux

A

c. Pomerol

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3
Q

Which of the following appellations is not in the Cote Chalonnaise?

a. Mercurey
b. Bouzeron
c. Givry
d. Rully
e. Aloxe-Corton

A

e. Aloxe-Corton

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4
Q

Within what larger appellation is Pessac-Leognan located?

A

Graves

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5
Q

Where is Pouilly Fuisse?

a. Cote de Nuits
b. Chablis
c. Maconnais
d. Cote Chalonnaise
e. Beaujolais

A

c. Maconnais

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6
Q

What style of wine is made in Barsac?

a. dry red wine
b. dry white wine
c. sweet white wine
d. sparkling wine
e. fortified wine

A

c. Sweet white wine

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7
Q

Which of the following villages does not have any grand cru vineyards?

a. Mersault
b. Chassagne-Montrachet
c. Morey-St-Denis
d. Flagey-Echezeaux
e. Chambolle-Musigny

A

a. Mersault

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8
Q

Name the 5 first growths of the Medoc 1855 Classification

A 
Chateau Lafite Rothschild
Chateau Latour
Chateau Margaux 
Chateau Haut Brion 
Chateau Mouton Rothschild
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9
Q

Bienvenues-Batard-Montrachet is located within which of the following villages?

a. Chassagne-Montrachet
b. Meursault
c. Puligny-Montrachet
d. Savigny-les-Beaune
e. Aloxe-Corton

A

c. Puligny-Montrachet

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10
Q

Bouzeron AOP produces wines from the ________ grape.

A

Aligote

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11
Q

Which of the following Chateaux is in St. Estephe?

a. Cos d’Estournel
b. Mouton-Rothschild
c. Petrus
d. Leoville-las-Cases
e. Haut Brion

A

a. Cos d’Estournel

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12
Q

T or F: All grand cru wines from the Cote de Nuits are red?

A

False–Musigny is only allowed to make white wines.

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13
Q

Which of the following villages is not a Beaujolais cru?

a. Morgon
b. St. Aubin
c. Brouilly
d. St. Amour
e. Fleurie

A

b. St. Aubin

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14
Q

What soil type is most well suited for Cabernet Sauvignon grapes?

a. Gravel
b. Limestone
c. Clay
d. Tuffeau
e. Crasse de Fer

A

a. Gravel

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15
Q

How many Chateaux are classified as Premiers Grands Cru Classe A in St. Emilion? Name 2.

A

There are 4:

Chateau Angelus
Chateau Ausone
Chateau Cheval-Blanc
Chateau Pavie

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16
Q

What do the initials NM and RM mean on a bottle of Champagne?

A

Negociant-Manipulant–grapes are sourced

Recoltant-Manipulant–grower producer

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17
Q

What are the noble grapes of Alsace?

A

Pinot Gris
Riesling
Gewurztraminer
Muscat

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18
Q

In what region of Burgundy would you find Vire Clesse, St. Veran, and Pouilly Fuisse?

A

Maconnais

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19
Q

What is the most common method of creating rose champagne?

a. blending white and red wine
b. saignee method
c. direct skin maceration
d. blending white and red grapes before fermentation

A

a. blending white and red wine

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20
Q

What soil type defines the right and left banks of Bordeaux?

A

Right: Clay
Left: Gravel

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21
Q

What is the primary grape of the following AOPs?

a. Bourgueil
b. Sancerre Rouge
c. Quincy
d. Chinon Blanc
e. Muscadet Coteaux de la Loire

A

a. Bourgueil–Cabernet Franc
b. Sancerre Rouge–Pinot Noir
c. Quincy–Sauvignon Blanc
d. Chinon Blanc–Chenin Blanc
e. Muscadet Coteaux de la Loire–Melon de Bourgogne

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22
Q

From N to S, list the 5 main wine growing regions of Champagne.

A 
Montagne de Reims
Vallee de la Marne
Cote des Blancs
Cote de Sezanne
Cote de Bars/Aube
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23
Q

Which of the following is not a grand cru of Morey Saint Denis?

a. Clos de la Roche
b. Richebourg
e. Bonne Mares
d. Clos St. Denis
e. Clos des Lambrays

A

b. Richebourg

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24
Q

Which geographic formation defines Alsace?

a. Mosel River
b. Lake Geneva
c. Vosges Mountains
d. Alps

A

c. Vosges Mountains

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25
Q

What is liqueur de tirage?

A

A mixture of wine, sugar, and yeast that is added to wine to induce secondary fermentation.

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26
Q

Which of the following Chateaux is not in Paulliac?

a. Latour
b. Mouton Rothschild
c. Lynch Bages
d. Leoville-Barton
e. D’Armhailac

A

d. Leoville-Barton

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27
Q

What grape are red wines from Alsace made from?

A

Pinot Noir

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28
Q

What style of wine is Vin Jaune? What style of wine is Vin de Paille?

a. both sweet wine
b. both dry white wine
c. vin jaune is dry white wine and vin de paille is sweet white wine
d. vin de paille is dry white wine and vin jaune is sweet white wine

A

c. vin jaune is dry and vin de paille is sweet

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29
Q

What is a gentil?

A

A labeling term in Alsace for a blend with at least 50% comprised of Noble varieties.

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30
Q

Name 3 crus of Beaujolais

A 
Morgon
Fleurie
Moulin-a-vent
Brouilly
Cote de Brouilly
St-Amour
Julienas
Chenas
Chiroubles 
Regnie
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31
Q

Circle the following appellations in which botrytis cinera is common.

a. Barsac
b. Sauternes
c. Macvin du Jura
d. Coteaux du Layon

A

All except C–Macvin du Jura

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32
Q

For what appellation would you find the designations Clisson, Le Pallet, and Gorges?

a. Savennieres
b. Muscadet Savre et Maine
c. Gros Plant du Pays Nantais
d. Vouvrey

A

c. Gros Plant du Pays Nantais

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33
Q

What estuary defines the climate of Bordeaux?

a. Dordogne
b. Cirons
c. Garonne
d. Gironde

A

d. Gironde

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34
Q

What is the Tete de Cuvee of the following producers?

a. Moet & Chandon
b. Roederer
c. Pol Roger

A

a. Dom Perignon
b. Cristal
c. Sir Winston Churchill

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35
Q

Name 4 appellations in the Loire Valley where Chenin Blanc is the primary grape

A 
Savennieres
Rouche aux Moires 
Vouvrey
Chinon Blanc 
Coulee-de-Serrant
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36
Q

What style of wine is made in Quarts de Chaume?

a. Still dry red wine
b. Sparkling wine
c. Sweet white wine
d. Rose

A

c. Sweet white wine

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37
Q

What soil type do Sancerre and Chablis share?

A

Kimmeridgian clay

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38
Q

Name 3 Grand Crus in Burgundy that produce white wine

A

Musigny
Chevalier-Montrachet
Criots-Batard-Montrachet

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39
Q

In what AOP are the following chateaux located?

a. Cheval Blanc
b. Haut-Brion
c. Climens
d. Petrus

A

a. Cheval Blanc: St. Emilion AOP
b. Haut-Brion: Graves AOP
c. Climens: Barsac AOP
d. Petrus: Pomerol AOP

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40
Q

Arrange from N to S: Gevrey Chambertin, Nuits Saint Georges, Vosne Romanee, Chambolle Musigny.

A

Gevrey Chambertin
Chambolle Musigny
Vosne Romanee
Nuits Saint Georges

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41
Q

Which of the following communes produces vin jaune? ‭

a. Crépy
b. Château Chalon
c. Seyssel
d. Heiligenstein
e. Bugey Cerdon

A

b. Chateau Chalon

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42
Q

Which of the following appellations produces vin de paille? ‭

a. Alsace Grand Cru
b. Bugey
c. Vin de Savoie
d. Côtes de Jura
e. Château Chalon

A

d. Cotes de Jura

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43
Q

Which of the following appellations produces only white wines?

a. L’Etoile
b. Côtes du Jura
c. Alsace
d. Vin de Savoie
e. Arbois

A

a. L’Etoile

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44
Q

Sylvaner may be bottled as a single varietal in grand cru _______.

A

Zotzenberg

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45
Q

Which of the following AOPs is located in Lorraine?

  • Bugey
  • Seyssel
  • Chignin-Bergeron
  • Arbois
  • Côtes de Toul
A

Cotes de Toul

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46
Q

Gewurztraminer is genetically linked to the ________ grape of the Jura.

A

Savagnin

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47
Q

Varietal Alsace AOP wines labeled “Pinot Blanc” may be blends of Pinot Blanc and _______.

A

Auxerrois

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48
Q

What is the Vin de Liqueur appellation of the Jura?

  • Crémant du Jura
  • Côtes du Jura
  • Macvin du Jura
  • L’Etoile
  • Floc de Gascogne
A

Macvin du Jura

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49
Q

Gutedel is an Alsatian synonym for the ________ grape.

A

Chasselas

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50
Q

Which of the following may produce Alsace Grand Cru AOP blends?

  • Rosacker
  • Brand
  • Kanzlerberg
  • Schlossberg
  • Altenberg de Bergheim
A

Altenberg de Bergheim

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51
Q

Which of the following appellations does not produce any sparkling wines?

  • Arbois
  • Seyssel
  • Vin de Savoie
  • Crépy
  • Bugey Cerdon
A

Crepy

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52
Q

What is the most planted grape in Alsace?

A

Riesling

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53
Q

What is the general minimum alcohol for Alsace Grand Cru Muscat?

  • 11%
  • 11.5%
  • 12%
  • 12.5%
  • 13%
A

11%

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54
Q

T/F: A minimum 75% of the stated vintage is required for vintage-dated wines in Australia.

A

False (85% is required)

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55
Q

What is the dominant grape of Central Otago?

  • Sauvignon Blanc
  • Chardonnay
  • Riesling
  • Pinot Noir
  • Merlot
A

Pinot Noir

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56
Q

What is the dominant grape of Barossa Valley?

  • Grenache
  • Pinot Noir
  • Shiraz
  • Cabernet Sauvignon
  • Semillon
A

Shiraz

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57
Q

What state is Yarra Valley located within?

  • South Australia
  • Western Australia
  • Victoria
  • New South Wales
A

Victoria

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58
Q

Which of the following GIs is highly regarded for Riesling?

  • Clare Valley
  • Hunter Valley
  • Barossa Valley
  • Coonawarra
  • Rutherglen
A

Clare Valley

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59
Q

What is the dominant grape of Marlborough?

  • Shiraz
  • Riesling
  • Pinot Noir
  • Sauvignon Blanc
  • Chardonnay
A

Sauvignon Blanc

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60
Q

T/F: Hawkes Bay is located on the North Island of New Zealand.

A

True

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61
Q

Who produces “Grange?”

  • Penfolds
  • Yalumba
  • Clarendon Hills
  • Torbreck
  • Leeuwin Estate
A

Penfolds

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62
Q

T/F: Coonawarra is famous for its “terra rossa” soil.

A

True

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63
Q

Lenswood and Piccadilly Valley are located within the region of _________.

A

Adelaide Hills

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64
Q

Awatere Valley is located within the region of _________.

A

Marlborough

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65
Q

What is the average age of Rutherglen Grand Muscat?

a. 2-5 years
b. 5-10 years
c. 10-15 years
d. 20+

A

c. 10-15

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66
Q

Match the GI with the appropriate state.

Morington Peninsula
Eden Valley
Granite Belt
Riverina 
Margaret River 
Queensland
Western Australia
South Australia 
New South Wales
Victoria
A 
Morington Peninsula-->Victoria
Eden Valley-->South Australia
Granite Belt-->Queensland
Riverina-->New South Wales
Margaret River-->Western Australia
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67
Q

What is the standard size for an American oak hogshead?

  • 225 liters
  • 300 liters
  • 500 liters
  • 600 liters
  • 1000 liters
A

300 liters

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68
Q

T/F: Tasmania is the southernmost winegrowing region in the world.

A

False

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69
Q

Where is Gimblett Gravels?

  • Gisborne
  • Hawkes Bay
  • Auckland
  • Central Otago
  • Canterbury
A

Hawkes Bay

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70
Q

Which of the following regions is not located on New Zealand’s North Island?

  • Gisborne
  • Auckland
  • Nelson
  • Hawkes Bay
  • Wairarapa
A

Nelson

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71
Q

Match the producer to the most appropriate region.

Mt. Difficulty
Grosset
Majella
Henschke
Cullen
Cloudy Bay
Marlborough
Margaret River
Eden Valley
Coonawarra
Central Otago
Clare Valley
A 
Mt. Difficulty-->Central Otago
Grosset-->Clare Valley
Majella-->Coonawarra
Henschke-->Eden Valley
Cullen-->Margaret River
Cloudy Bay-->Marlborough
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72
Q

Who produces “Astralis”?

  • Torbreck
  • Cullen
  • Parker Estate
  • Yalumba
  • Clarendon Hills
A

Clarendon Hills

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73
Q

What is fermented in order to distill Demerara rum?

  • Sugarcane juice
  • Molasses
  • Potatoes
  • Rye
  • Beets
A

Molasses

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74
Q

In beer brewing, what is the wort?

  • a flower added after mashing for flavor and bitterness
  • a sugar-rich liquid extracted from the mashing process
  • barley steeped in water to promote germination
  • the roasted malt prior to the mashing process
A

Wort: A sugar-rich liquid extracted from the mashing process

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75
Q

Place the following Cognac subregions in descending order of quality:

a. Borderies
b. Fins Bois
c. Grande Champagne
d. Bons Bois
e. Bois Ordinaires/Bois a Terroirs
f. Petite Champagne

A 
Grande Champagne
Petite Champagne
Borderies
Fins Bois
Bons Bois
Bois Ordinaires/Bois a Terroirs
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76
Q

What is the main flavor of these liqueurs?

Midori
Pernod
Tia Maria
Licor 43
Strega
Chambord
Cynar
Kummel
A 
Midori-->Melon
Pernod-->Anise
Tia Maria-->Coffee
Licor 43-->Vanilla
Strega-->Saffron
Chambord-->Raspberry
Cynar-->Artichoke
Kummel-->Caraway Seed
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77
Q

Which of the following types of alcoholic beverage uniquely undergoes Multiple Parallel Fermentation?

  • Sake
  • Lambic Beer
  • Pomace Spirit
  • Brandy
  • Lager Beer
A

Sake

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78
Q

T/F: Irish Whiskey is usually distilled twice.

A

False

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79
Q

Which of the following is the scientific name for koji-kin?

  • Aspergillus oryzae
  • Saccharomyces carlsbergensis
  • Brettanomyces bruxellensis
  • Agave angustifolia
  • Saccharomyces cerevisae
A

Aspergillus oryzae

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80
Q

What is the general term for pomace spirit in France?

A

Marc

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81
Q

What is the original country of origin for the following liqueurs/spirits?

Genever
Boonekamp
Averna
Ouzo
Midori
Pisco
Benedictine
Demerara Rum
Amarula 
Cachaca
A 
Genever: Holland
Boonekamp: Germany
Averna: Italy
Ouzo: Greece
Midori: Japan
Pisco: Peru
Benedictine: France
Demerara Rum: Guyana
Amarula: South Africa 
Cachaca: Brazil
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82
Q

At the minimum, how much of the rice grain remains after polishing for Junmai Ginjo Sake?

  • 70%
  • 60%
  • 50%
  • 35%
A

60%

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83
Q

Tequila aged for sixty days to one year in cask may be labeled __________.

A

Reposado

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84
Q

Calvados _____ AOP requires a minimum 30% perry and three years in cask prior to release.

A

Domfrontais

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85
Q

On what French island in the Caribbean is AOP rhum agricole produced?

  • Martinique
  • Barbados
  • Jamaica
  • Guadeloupe
A

Martinique

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86
Q

In what regions are these distillers found?

Oban
Highland Park
Glenfiddich
Talisker
Springbank
Ardbeg
Auchentoshan
A 
Oban: Highlands
Highland Park: Isle of Orkney
Glenfiddich: Speyside
Talisker: Isle of Skye
Springbank: Campbellton
Ardbeg: Islay
Auchentoshan: Lowlands
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87
Q

Where is Château Lafite-Rothschild located?

  • Margaux
  • Pauillac
  • St-Julien
  • Graves
  • Sauternes
A

Pauillac

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88
Q

Which of the following appellations is not located within the Médoc?

  • Pauillac
  • St-Julien
  • Pomerol
  • Listrac
  • Margaux
A

Pomerol

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89
Q

Which of the following appellations produces dry white wines?

  • Sauternes
  • Loupiac
  • Pomerol
  • Médoc
  • Entre-Deux-Mers
A

Entre-Deux-Mers

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90
Q

Which of the following appellations is located within Graves?

  • Pessac-Léognan
  • St-Emilion
  • Margaux
  • Cornas
  • St-Estèphe
A

Pessac-Leognan

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91
Q

Which of the following styles of wine is produced as Haut-Médoc AOP?

  • dry whites
  • sweet whites
  • dry reds
  • sparkling whites
  • rosés
A

Dry reds

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92
Q

Which of the following first growths is not located in the Haut-Médoc?

  • Château Margaux
  • Château Haut-Brion
  • Château Latour
  • Château Lafite-Rothschild
  • Château Mouton-Rothschild
A

Chateau Haut-Brion

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93
Q

How many châteaux are currently ranked as “premier cru classé A” in St-Émilion?

  • 1
  • 13
  • 4
  • 57
  • 2
A

4

Cheval Blanc
Angelus
Ausone
Pavie

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94
Q

he Cru Classé properties of Graves are located in which of the following subappellations?

  • Graves de Vayres
  • Pessac-Léognan
  • St-Julien
  • Cérons
  • Graves Supérieur
A

Pessac-Leognan

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95
Q

What is Cérons?

  • a sweet white wine appellation in southern Graves
  • a commune of the Médoc
  • a satellite of St-Émilion
  • a subappellation of Côtes de Bordeaux
  • a dry white wine appellation in Graves
A

A sweet white wine appellation in southern Graves

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96
Q

Which of the following grapes is not included in the Bordeaux AOP encépagement?

  • Cabernet Sauvignon
  • Petit Verdot
  • Malbec
  • Merlot
  • Syrah
A

Syrah

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97
Q

What is Bouchet?

  • a commune in Côtes de Bordeaux
  • a subappellation of the Médoc
  • a synonym for Cabernet Franc in the Right Bank
  • a village in Margaux
  • a blending grape in Sauternes
A

A synonym for Cabernet Franc in the Right Bank

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98
Q

How was Château Cos d’Estournel ranked in the 1855 Médoc Classification?

  • 1er Cru
  • 2ème Cru
  • 3ème Cru
  • 4ème Cru
  • 5ème Cru
A

2eme Cru

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99
Q

Which of the following is not a satellite appellation of St-Émilion?

  • St-Georges
  • Montagne
  • Francs
  • Puisseguin
  • Lussac
A

Francs

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100
Q

Where can boulbenes soil be found?

  • Graves
  • Pomerol
  • Bourg
  • St-Estèphe
  • St-Émilion
A

Graves

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101
Q

What Château was ranked as “Premier Cru Supérieur” in 1855?

  • Château Ausone
  • Château Margaux
  • Château Petrus
  • Château d’Yquem
  • Château Latour
A

Chateau d’Yquem

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102
Q

What is the appellation of Château Lafleur?

  • St-Émilion
  • Sauternes
  • Pauillac
  • Pomerol
  • Graves
A

Pomerol

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103
Q

What does “St-Émilion Grand Cru” indicate on a label?

  • the château is located in the côtes of St-Émilion
  • the estate was classified as grand cru classé in 1955
  • the estate was upgraded to grand cru classé in 2006
  • the wine is from a delimited region within the larger appellation
  • the wine is required to show a higher minimum alcohol than St-Émilion
A

The wine is required to show a higher minimum alcohol than St-Emilion

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104
Q

Which of the following villages is located in the Côte de Nuits?

  • Chablis
  • Meursault
  • Puligny-Montrachet
  • Gevrey-Chambertin
  • Irancy
A

Gevrey-Chambertin

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105
Q

Which of the following Grand Cru vineyards is located in Vosne-Romanée?

  • Chambertin
  • Montrachet
  • La Tâche
  • Corton
  • Bonnes Mares
A

La Tache

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106
Q

Which of the following appellations is not located in the Côte Chalonnaise?

  • Mercurey
  • Bouzeron
  • Givry
  • Rully
  • Aloxe-Corton
A

Aloxe-Corton

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107
Q

Where is Pouilly-Fuisse?

  • Côte de Nuits
  • Chablis
  • Mâconnais
  • Côte Chalonnaise
  • Beaujolais
A

Maconnais

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108
Q

Which of the following is not a Chablis Grand Cru?

  • Les Clos
  • Clos des Tart
  • Vaudésir
  • Valmur
  • Bougros
A

Clos des Tart

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109
Q

Which of the following villages does not have any grand cru vineyards?

  • Meursault
  • Chassagne-Montrachet
  • Morey-St-Denis
  • Flagey-Echézeaux
  • Chambolle-Musigny
A

Meursault

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110
Q

Where is Maranges?

  • Côte de Beaune
  • Côte de Nuits
  • Côte Chalonnaise
  • Mâconnais
  • Beaujolais
A

Cote de Beaune

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111
Q

T/F: All grand cru wines from the Côte de Nuits are red.

A

False–Musigny

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112
Q

Bienvenues-Bâtard-Montrachet is located within which of the following villages?

  • Chassagne-Montrachet
  • Meursault
  • Puligny-Montrachet
  • Savigny-lès-Beaune
  • Aloxe-Corton
A

Puligny-Montrachet

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113
Q

T/F: Mazoyères-Chambertin is a climat of the grand cru Charmes-Chambertin.

A

True

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114
Q

Which of the following vineyards is an important premier cru in Meursault?

  • Clos de la Roche
  • les Serpentières
  • les Perrières
  • Clos Napoléon
  • Les St-Georges
A

Les Perrieres

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115
Q

______ is the largest grand cru in Burgundy.

A

Corton

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116
Q

The Grand Cru Bonnes Mares is shared between Chambolle-Musigny and one other commune. What is it?

  • Gevrey-Chambertin
  • Vosne-Romanée
  • Fixin
  • Nuits-St-Georges
  • Morey-St-Denis
A

Morey-St-Denis

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117
Q

T/F: Clos des Lambrays is a monopole of Mommessin.

A

False

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118
Q

Bouzeron AOP produces wines from the _______ grape.

A

Aligote

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119
Q

T/F: Orvieto DOC is located within the Marches.

A

False

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120
Q

T/F: Brunello di Montalcino DOCG wines are produced from the Prugnolo Gentile clone of Sangiovese.

A

False

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121
Q

In which of the following regions is Cerasuolo di Vittoria DOCG located?

  • Sardinia
  • Calabria
  • Apulia
  • Sicily
  • Tuscany
A

Sicily

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122
Q

What is the main grape of Chianti Classico?

  • Aglianico
  • Cabernet Sauvignon
  • Canaiolo Nero
  • Sangiovese
  • Sagrantino
A

Sangiovese

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123
Q

In which of the following DOC zones does the Super-Tuscan Sassicaia have its own subappellation?

  • Pomino
  • Bolgheri
  • Aglianico del Vulture
  • Montepulciano d’Abruzzo
  • Rosso Piceno
A

Bolgheri

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124
Q

What white grape in the Marches received two DOCG zones for Riserva wines in 2009?

A

Verdicchio

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125
Q

What is the principal red grape of Taurasi DOCG?

  • Nebbiolo
  • Sangiovese
  • Aglianico
  • Piedrosso
  • Negroamaro
A

Aglianico

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126
Q

What is the only white wine DOCG of Tuscany?

  • Vernaccia di Serrapetrona
  • Carmignano
  • Morellino di Scansano
  • Vernaccia di San Gimignano
  • Vino Nobile di Montepulciano
A

Vernaccia di San Gimignano

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127
Q

Which of the following DOCG zones is located within Campania?

  • Fiano di Avellino
  • Chianti Classico
  • Brunello di Montalcino
  • Vermentino di Gallura
  • Vernaccia di San Gimignano
A

Fiano di Avellino

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128
Q

Which of the following regions does not contain any DOCG zones?

  • Marches
  • Umbria
  • Campania
  • Tuscany
  • Calabria
A

Calabria

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129
Q

T/F: Brunello di Montalcino wines must be aged for a minimum of two years in cask and six months in bottle. They may not be released before January 1 of the sixth year following the harvest.

A

False

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130
Q

Which of the following DOCG zones is not located in the Marches?

  • Verdicchio di Matelica Riserva
  • Verdicchio dei Castelli di Jesi Riserva
  • Conero Rosso Riserva
  • Torgiano Rosso Riserva
  • Vernaccia di Serrapetrona
A

Torgiano Rosso Riserva

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131
Q

__________is the sole DOCG zone in Basilicata.

A

Aglianico del Vulture Superiore

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132
Q

Where is Primitivo di Manduria DOC?

  • Calabria
  • Abruzzo
  • Apulia
  • Basilicata
  • Molise
A

Apulia

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133
Q

Match the grape varietal to the most appropriate appellation.

Grechetto
Sangiovese
Negroamaro
Malvasia
Montepulciano
Frascati
Salice Salentino
Conero Rosso Riserva
Morellino di Scansano
Orvieto
A 
Frascati--->Malvasia
Salice Salentino-->Negroamaro
Conero Rosso Riserva-->Montepulciano
Morellino di Scansano-->Sangiovese
Orvieto-->Grechetto
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134
Q

What is the minimum percentage of Sangiovese allowed in Chianti Classico DOCG wines?

  • 70%
  • 75%
  • 80%
  • 85%
  • 90%
A

80%

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135
Q

Which of the following grapes comprises the majority of Cerasuolo di Vittoria DOCG blends?

  • Frappato
  • Sangiovese
  • Gaglioppo
  • Negroamaro
  • Nero d’Avola
A

Nero d’Avola

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136
Q

Match the DOCG zone to the region.

Cesanese del Piglio
Carmignano
Conero Rosso Riserva
Greco di Tufa
Sagrantino di Montefalco
Campania
Marches
Umbria
Latium
Tuscany
A 
Cesanese del Piglio-->Latium
Carmignano-->Tuscany
Conero Rosso Riserva-->Marches
Greco di Tufa-->Campania
Sagrantino di Montefalco-->Umbria
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137
Q

Cannonau is a synonym for what grape varietal?

  • Sangiovese
  • Grenache
  • Vermentino
  • Aglianico
  • Trebbiano
A

Grenache

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138
Q

Red dessert wines are produced in the _______ DOCG of Tuscany.

A

Elba Aleatico Passito

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139
Q

Traditionally, Vin Santo is aged in _________ barrels.

A

Caratelli

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140
Q

Which of the following Super Tuscan wines is produced from 100% Sangiovese?

  • Tignanello
  • Ornellaia
  • Sassicaia
  • Le Pergola Torte
  • Paleo Rosso
A

Le Pergola Torte

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141
Q

Champagne vineyards are best characterized by which of the following soil types?

  • sand
  • basalt
  • gravel
  • clay
  • chalk
A

Chalk

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142
Q

What is the dosage?

  • An addition of sugar and wine that determines the wine’s final sweetness
  • An addition of sugar, yeast, and wine that will ignite the secondary fermentation
  • An addition of sugar to the must to create a higher alcohol content in the base wine
  • An addition of red wine to white wine to create rosé
A

An addition of sugar and wine that determines the wine’s final sweetness

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143
Q

T/F: Pupitres have largely been replaced by the mechanized gyropalettes for use in the process of remuage.

A

True

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144
Q

What is the most southerly region in Champagne?

  • Montagne de Reims
  • The Aube
  • Côte des Blancs
  • Côte de Sézanne
  • Vallée de la Marne
A

The Aube

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145
Q

What does “RM” indicate on a Champagne bottle?

  • The wine was purchased, relabeled, and sold under a buyer’s own brand
  • The wine was produced by a grower-producer
  • The wine was produced from purchased grapes
  • The wine was produced by a grower, but vinified by a co-operative
  • The wine was produced by a co-operative
A

The wine was produced by a grower-producer

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146
Q

Which of the following methods involves a single fermentation that begins in tank but concludes in the bottle?

  • Méthode Traditionnelle
  • Méthode Ancestrale
  • Russian Continuous Method
  • Méthode Champenoise
  • Charmat Process
A

Methode Ancestrale

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147
Q

What grape accounts for the largest acreage in Champagne?

  • Pinot Meunier
  • Pinot Meslier
  • Chardonnay
  • Pinot Noir
  • Pinot Blanc
A

Pinot Noir

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148
Q

By what method are Bugey Cerdon AOP wines produced?

  • Continuous Method
  • Carbonation
  • Méthode Ancestrale
  • Cuve Close
  • Méthode Traditionnelle
A

Methode Ancestrale

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149
Q

Where is the village of Ambonnay?

  • Montagne de Reims
  • The Aube
  • Côte de Sézanne
  • Vallée de la Marne
  • Côte des Blancs
A

Montagne de Reims

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150
Q

For which of the following bottle sizes is the Transvasage Method permitted in Champagne?

  • 375 ml
  • 187 ml
  • Jeroboam
  • Magnum
  • 750 ml
A

187ml

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151
Q

Rosé de Riceys AOP wines are produced in which of the following regions?

  • Vallée de la Marne
  • Montagne de Reims
  • Côte des Bars
  • Côte des Blancs
  • Côte de Sézanne
A

Cote des Bars

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152
Q

________ is the release of older vintages of base wine for use in assemblage.

A

Deblocage

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153
Q

Which of the following regions does not produce an AOP Crémant wine?

  • Bordeaux
  • Loire Valley
  • Alsace
  • Jura
  • Provence
A

Provence

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154
Q

A maximum ________ percent of a year’s total harvest may be sold as vintage Champagne.

A

80%

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155
Q

What is the current legal residual sugar range for Extra Dry Champagne?

  • 17-32 grams per liter
  • 12-17 grams per liter
  • 17-35 grams per liter
  • 0-15 grams per liter
  • 12-20 grams per liter
A

12-17g/l

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156
Q

What is vin de cuvée?

  • A prestige cuvée, the epitome of a house’s production
  • The base wine after assemblage
  • The first 2,050 liters to be extracted from 4,000 kg of grapes
  • The following 500 liters to be extracted from 4,000 kg of grapes
  • A white must quickly extracted from red grapes
A

The first 2,050 liters to be extracted from 4,000 kg of grapes

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157
Q

Which of the following training methods is not permitted in Champagne?

  • Chablis
  • Cordon de Royat
  • Gobelet
  • Vallée de la Marne
  • Guyot
A

Gobelet

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158
Q

What style of fortified wine relies on heat and oxidation to develop its particular character?

  • Port
  • Sherry
  • Madeira
  • Marsala
A

Madeira

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159
Q

What is the traditional barrel used for aging and shipping Port wines?

  • Pipe
  • Demimuid
  • Foudre
  • Barrica
  • Butt
A

Pipe

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160
Q

What is the name of the system of fractional blending used in Sherry production?

  • Solera
  • Sobretablas
  • Añada
  • Cabeceo
  • Canteiro
A

Solera

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161
Q

T/F: Vintage Port is considered a type of Ruby Port.

A

True

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162
Q

List the styles of Madeira in order from driest to sweetest.

A

Sercial
Verdelho
Boal
Malmsey

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163
Q

When are Port wines fortified?

  • Before Fermentation
  • During Fermentation
  • After Fermentation
A

During Fermentation

164
Q

Where is the Marsala DOC?

  • Sardinia
  • Basilicata
  • Campania
  • Sicily
  • Tuscany
A

Sicily

165
Q

What is the preferred soil type for Sherry?

  • Albariza
  • Barros
  • Schist
  • Arenas
  • Basalt
A

Albariza

166
Q

Which of the following is the most widely cultivated grape on Madeira?

  • Verdelho
  • Sercial
  • Tinta Negra
  • Malvasia
  • Terrantez
A

Tinta Negra

167
Q

What vin de liqueur is produced in Champagne?

  • Pineau des Charentes (your response)
  • Macvin du Jura
  • Floc de Gascogne
  • Ratafia
A

Ratafia

168
Q

How long is Frasqueira Madeira aged in cask before bottling?

  • A minimum 5 years
  • A minimum 10 years
  • A minimum 15 years
  • A minimum 20 years
A

A minimum 20 years

169
Q

Which of the following styles of generoso Sherry has the lowest alcohol content?

  • Oloroso
  • Amontillado
  • Fino
  • Manzanilla Fina
  • Manzanilla Pasada
A

Manzanilla Fina

170
Q

What is a Colheita Port?

  • A vintage-dated Ruby with a minimum 2 years in cask
  • A vintage-dated Ruby with 4 to 6 years in cask
  • A vintage-dated Tawny with a minimum 5 years in cask
  • A vintage-dated Tawny with a minimum 7 years in cask
  • A Vintage Port from a single quinta
A

A vintage-dated Tawny with a minimum 7 years in cask

171
Q

T/F: The highest quality Madeira wines are heated by the Estufagem process.

A

False

172
Q

What do the Portuguese call the fortifying spirit used in Port production?

  • Mistela
  • Beneficio
  • Mitad y Mitad
  • Aguardente
  • Vinho da Torno
A

Aguardente

173
Q

Which of the following grapes is not a preferred red varietal for Porto wines?

  • Tinta Francesa
  • Touriga Nacional
  • Bastardo
  • Tinta Barroca
  • Folgasão
A

Folgasao

174
Q

Which of the following styles of Sherry does not undergo any biological aging?

  • Fino
  • Oloroso
  • Amontillado
  • Manzanilla
  • Palo Cortado
A

Oloroso

175
Q

Which of the following Marsala styles permits the addition of mosto cotto to color and sweeten the final wine?

  • Oro
  • Ambra
  • Vergine
  • Rubino
A

Ambra

176
Q

Which of the following is a grape crossing developed in Germany?

  • Riesling
  • Blaufränkisch
  • Müller-Thurgau
  • Petite Arvine
  • Spätburgunder
A

Muller-Thurgau

177
Q

Which of the following vineyards is located in Bernkastel, and is renowned for its legendary curative properties?

  • Jesuitengarten
  • Hasensprung
  • Hölle
  • Doctor
  • Achleiten
A

Doctor

178
Q

T/F: Prädikatswein is classified according to the amount of residual sugar in the wine.

A

False

179
Q

Which of the following is not a region of Austria?

  • Wachau
  • Burgenland
  • Rheingau
  • Steiermark
  • Weinviertel
A

Rheingau

180
Q

Which of the following wine styles indicates a dry VDP Grosse Lage wine?

  • Liebfraumilch
  • Classic
  • Selection
  • Grosses Gewächs
  • Trocken
A

Grosses Gewachs

181
Q

What is a German synonym for Pinot Noir?

  • St. Laurent
  • Grauburgunder
  • Weißburgunder
  • Blaufränkisch
  • Spätburgunder
A

Spatburgunder

182
Q

___________ is the most planted white grape in Austria.

A

Gruner Veltliner

183
Q

In which anbaugebiet is the village of Piesport located?

  • Mosel
  • Pfalz
  • Rheingau
  • Rheinhessen
  • Ahr
A

Mosel

184
Q

Dôle wines are blends of Pinot Noir and ________.

A

Gamey

185
Q

A _______ is a squat, flask-shaped bottle traditionally used in Franken.

A

Bocksbeutel

186
Q

_______is a category of ripeness in the Wachau, for wines harvested at a minimum must weight of 19° KMW–the equivalent of Spätlese.

A

Smaragd

187
Q

What river flows through the Sachsen anbaugebiet?

  • Mosel
  • Rhine
  • Nahe
  • Elbe
  • Main
A

Elbe

188
Q

T/F: Hermannshöhle in Oberhausen is a famous monopole vineyard of Dönnhoff.

A

False

189
Q

T/F: Steinberg is a famous walled vineyard in the Rheingau.

A

True

190
Q

Match the grape with its appropriate synonym.

Chasselas
Silvaner
Blaufrankisch
Chardonnay
Pinot Blanc
Morillon
Weisburgunder
Lemberger
Dorin
Johannisberg
A 
Chasselas: Dorin
Silvaner: Johannisberg
Blaufrankisch: Lemberger
Chardonnay: Morillon
Pinot Blanc: Weisbergunder
191
Q

T/F: Weinviertel, Kamptal, Kremstal, and Wachau are DAC zones within Niederösterreich.

A

False

192
Q

Which of the following bereiche is not located within the Mosel?

  • Moseltor
  • Bernkastel
  • Burg Cochem
  • Ruwertal
  • Meißen
A

Meißen

193
Q

Which of the following criteria is not required for Grosses Gewächs wines?

  • maximum yield of 50 hl/ha
  • minimum alcohol of 12.2%
  • grapes must be hand-harvested from a single vineyard
  • the wines must be legally considered trocken
  • minimum must weight equivalent to spätlese
A

Minimum alcohol of 12.2%

194
Q

T/F: The Wachau is characterized by loess and gföhler, or gneiss, soils, with some alluvial sand in the lower vineyards near the Danube.

A

True

195
Q

T/F: The Greek PDO category includes both OPAP and OPE appellations.

A

True

196
Q

Where is Naoussa?

  • Armenia
  • Romania
  • Turkey
  • Bulgaria
  • Greece
A

Greece

197
Q

Which of the following countries borders Friuli in Italy?

  • Romania
  • Bulgaria
  • Greece
  • Slovenia
  • Slovakia
A

Slovenia

198
Q

T/F: Aszú is a Hungarian term for botrytis-affected grapes.

A

True

199
Q

What is the principal white grape of Santorini PDO wines?

  • Agiorgitiko
  • Assyrtiko
  • Debina
  • Xinomavro
  • Moschofilero
A

Assyrtiko

200
Q

Which of the following wine styles is protected by a Traditional Appellation in Greece?

  • Mavrodaphne of Patras
  • Muscat of Rio Patras
  • Slopes de Meliton
  • Retsina
  • Muscat of Samos
A

Retsina

201
Q

T/F: The wines of Nemea are produced from the Agiorgitiko grape.

A

True

202
Q

What is the minimum residual sugar allowed for Tokaji Aszú 5 Puttonyos?

  • 90 grams per liter
  • 120 grams per liter
  • 150 grams per liter
  • 180 grams per liter
  • 250 grams per liter
A

120 g/l

203
Q

T/F: Wines produced in Saumur may be bottled under the Anjou appellation.

A

True

204
Q

Which of the following appellations is located in the Central Vineyards?

  • Coteaux du Loir
  • Saumur
  • Menetou-Salon
  • Côtes du Forez
  • Montlouis-sur-Loire
A

Menetou-Salon

205
Q

What is the dominant soil type of Vouvray?

  • varennes
  • tuffeau
  • boulbenes
  • granite
  • marl
A

Tuffeau

206
Q

What is the grape of Pouilly-sur-Loire?

  • Sauvignon Blanc
  • Chasselas
  • Chenin Blanc
  • Melon de Bourgogne
  • Arbois
A

Chasselas

207
Q

What grape defines the appellation?

Pouilly-Fume
Bourgueil
Corteaux du Layon
Cour-Cheverny
Muscadet Sevre-et-Maine
A 
Pouilly-Fume: Sauvignon blanc
Bourgueil: Cabernet franc
Corteaux du Layon: Chenin blanc
Cour-Cheverny: Romorantin
Muscadet Sevre-et-Maine: Melon de Bourgogne
208
Q

Which of the following appellations is within the Anjou region?

  • Muscadet Sèvre-et-Maine
  • Savennières
  • Vouvray
  • Chinon
  • Sancerre
A

Savennieres

209
Q

Which of the following appellations is a sweet wine appellation within Coteaux du Layon?

  • La Roche aux Moines
  • Clos de Coulée des Serrant
  • Bourgueil
  • Jasnières
  • Quarts du Chaume
A

Quarts du Chaume

210
Q

Which of the following appellations does not produce white wines?

  • Vouvray
  • Muscadet
  • Chinon
  • St-Nicolas-de-Bourgueil
  • Coteaux de l’Aubance
A

St-Nicolas-de-Bourgueil

211
Q

Match the appellation to the most appropriate region.

Muscadet Cotes de Grandlieu
Bonnezeaux
Coteaux du Loir
Orleans-Clery
St. Pourcain
Central Vineyards
Allier (Central France)
Anjou
Pay Nantais
Touraine
A

Muscadet Cotes de Grandlieu: Pay Nantais

Bonnezeaux: Anjou

Coteaux du Loir: Touraine

Orleans-Clery: Central Vineyards

St. Pourcain: Allier

212
Q

Which of the following conditions is not required for Muscadet to be labeled “sur lie”?

  • the wine must originate from one of Muscadet’s three sub-appellations
  • the wine is bottled directly off its fine lees without filtering
  • the wine is bottled between March 1 and November 30 of the year following the harvest
  • the wine must be sourced from vineyards planted in schist soils
A

The wine must be sourced from vineyards planted in schist soils

213
Q

Which of the following appellations does not produce white wines from Chenin Blanc?

  • Coteaux de l’Aubance
  • Savennières
  • La Roche aux Moines
  • Coteaux du Giennois
  • Jasnières
A

Coteaux du Giennois

214
Q

What is the grape of Quincy AOP?

  • Sauvignon Blanc
  • Chenin Blanc
  • Cabernet Franc
  • Malbec
  • Gamay
A

Sauvignon Blanc

215
Q

Where is Valençay?

  • Anjou
  • Pays Nantais
  • Touraine
  • Central Vineyards
  • Saumur
A

Touraine

216
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a subzone of Muscadet-Sèvre-et-Maine AOP?

  • Clisson
  • Oisly
  • Le Pallet
  • Gorges
A

Oisly

217
Q

T/F: The white wines of Cheverny are mostly comprised of Sauvignon Blanc.

A

True

218
Q

What grape is responsible for the red wines of Menetou-Salon?

A

Pinot Noir

219
Q

Which of the following producers owns the Clos de Coulée des Serrant vineyard?

  • Domaine des Baumard
  • Château de Chamboureau
  • Didier Dagueneau
  • Nicolas Joly
  • Clos Roche Blanche
A

Nicolas Joly

220
Q

T/F: Chenin Blanc is the only grape allowed in the production of Vouvray.

A

False

221
Q

Which of the following appellations is not located in the Central Vineyards?

  • Coteaux du Giennois
  • Orléans
  • Coteaux du Vendômois
  • Pouilly-sur-Loire
  • Reuilly
A

Corteaux du Vendomois

222
Q

At what maximum percentage may Cabernet Sauvignon be added to Bourgueil?

  • 10%
  • 15%
  • 20%
  • 25%
  • 50%
A

10%

223
Q

T/F: Gros Plant is a synonym for Folle Blanche.

A

True

224
Q

What is the predominant grape in Saumur blanc?

A

Chenin Blanc

225
Q

Which of the following is a major soil type in Sancerre?

  • Varennes
  • Tuffeau
  • Galets
  • Gore
  • Terres Blanches
A

Terres Blanches

226
Q

T/F: Only red wines may be produced as Anjou-Villages.

A

True

227
Q

Pineau de la Loire is a synonym for the _______ grape.

A

Chenin Blanc

228
Q

What is the maximum alcohol content for Muscadet?

  • 10%
  • 11.5%
  • 12%
  • 13.5%
  • 14.5%
A

12%

229
Q

T/F: The Nebbiolo grape generally produces wines that are high in acidity and low in tannin.

A

False

230
Q

What is Italy’s most important DOCG for traditional method sparkling wines?

  • Recioto di Gambellara
  • Franciacorta
  • Conegliano Valdobbiadene Prosecco
  • Moscato d’Asti
  • Asti
A

Franciacorta

231
Q

Match the DOCG zone to the appropriate region.

Ramandolo
Recioto della Valpolicella
Albana di Romagna
Valtellina Superiore
Barolo
Veneto
Emilia-Romagna
Piedmont
Friuli
Lombardy
A

Ramandolo: Friuli

Recioto della Valpolicella: Veneto

Albana di Romagna: Emilia-Romagna

Valtellina Superiore: Lombardy

Barolo: Piedmont

232
Q

What is the principal grape of Amarone?

  • Barbera
  • Nebbiolo
  • Corvina
  • Molinara
  • Verduzzo Gialla
A

Corvina

233
Q

Neive and Treiso are two important communes of the _______ DOCG.

A

Barbaresco

234
Q

Which of the following DOCG zones is not located within Piedmont?

  • Barolo
  • Barbaresco
  • Moscato d’Asti
  • Recioto di Soave
  • Gavi
A

Recioto di Soave

235
Q

T/F: The red grape Schiava is cultivated in Trentino-Alto Adige.

A

True

236
Q

T/F: Garganega is the dominant grape of Soave DOC.

A

True

237
Q

For how long must Amarone Riserva be aged prior to release?

  • One year
  • Two years
  • Three years
  • Four years
  • Five years
A

4 years

238
Q

What is the most important white grape in Liguria?

  • Pigato
  • Pignolo
  • Verduzzo Gialla
  • Moscato
  • Cortese
A

Pigato

239
Q

What was the first white wine to receive DOCG status in Italy?

A

Albana di Romagna

240
Q

Which of the following is not a commune of Barolo?

  • La Morra
  • Serralunga d’Alba
  • Sassella
  • Castiglione Falletto
  • Monforte d’Alba
A

Sassella

241
Q

T/F: Vintage-dated Riserva Franciacorta is aged for a minimum thirty months on the lees.

A

False

242
Q

Match the grape to the most appropriate appellation.

Corvina
Garganega
Arneis
Pinot Nero
Verduzzo Gialla 
Oltrepo Pavese Metodo Classico
Bardolino Superiore
Roero
Recioto di Gambellara
Ramandolo
A

Pinot Nero: Oltrepo Pavese Metodo Classico

Corvina: Bardolino Superiore

Arneis: Roero

Garganega: Recioto di Gambellara

Verduzzo Gialla: Ramandolo

243
Q

Which of the following terms does not indicate a wine produced from dried grapes?

  • Recioto
  • Passito
  • Sforzato
  • Chinato
A

Chinato

244
Q

What region contains the DOC zone Collio Goriziano?

  • Veneto
  • Friuli
  • Piedmont
  • Lombardy
  • Liguria
A

Friuli

245
Q

What is the generally considered to be the best cru in the village of Barolo?

A

Cannubi

246
Q

Which of the following is not a synonym for Nebbiolo?

  • Spanna
  • Ormeasco
  • Chiavennasca
  • Picotendro
A

Ormeasco

247
Q

Wines labeled Valpolicella have been refermented with the previously fermented but unpressed skins of Amarone and Recioto grapes.

A

Ripasso

248
Q

Which of the following DOC zones is not located in Piedmont?

  • Carema
  • Sizzano
  • Colli di Luna
  • Lessona
  • Langhe
A

Colli di Luna

249
Q

What DOCG in Piedmont produces generally sweet, sparkling red wines?

A

Brachetto d’Acqui

250
Q

T/F: Touriga Nacional is the most widely grown grape in Portugal.

A

False

251
Q

In which of the following DOP zones are the Alvarinho, Trajadura, and Loureiro grapes commonly encountered?

  • Pico
  • Palmela
  • Bucelas
  • Bairrada
  • Vinho Verde
A

Vinho Verde

252
Q

T/F: Baga is usually the dominant white varietal in the traditional wines of Bairrada.

A

False

253
Q

Which of the following DOP regions produces fortified wines from Moscatel?

  • DoTejo
  • Setúbal
  • Bairrada
  • Alentejo
  • Bucelas
A

Setubal

254
Q

What is a casta?

  • a wine cellar
  • a reserve designation for DOP wines
  • an oak barrel
  • a grape varietal
  • a traditional ship used for transporting port
A

Grape varietal

255
Q

Which region of Portugal is famous for the production of Port?

  • Minho
  • Madeira
  • Tejo
  • Dão
  • The Douro Valley
A

Douro Valley

256
Q

Which of the following is a Portuguese synonym for the Tempranillo grape?

  • Touriga Nacional
  • Alfrocheiro
  • Trincadeira
  • Aragonez
  • Ramisco
A

Aragonez

257
Q

T/F: The Dão DOP is located within the larger Duriense IGP.

A

False

258
Q

Which of the following types of appellation has been eliminated in Portugal?

  • DOP
  • IGP
  • DOC
  • IPR
  • IG
A

IRP

259
Q

What is the preferred soil type for Port?

  • schist
  • granite
  • barros
  • sand
  • albariza
A

Schist

260
Q

Place the following IGP zones in order from north to south.

Tejo
Algarve
Duriense
Terras do Dao
Transmontano
A 
Transmontano
Duriense
Terras do Dao
Tejo
Algarve
261
Q

Where is Alta Estremadura?

  • Lisboa
  • Alentejano
  • Tejo
  • Beira Atlântico
  • Algarve
A

Lisboa

262
Q

What is the minimum combined percentage of Castelão and Preto Martinho required for Carcavelos DOP wines?

  • 50%
  • 66.7%
  • 75%
  • 85%
  • 100%
A

75%

263
Q

Ramisco, planted on its own rootstock, is the dominant red grape in the _________ DOP.

A

Colares

264
Q

T/F: White, red, rosado, and sparkling wines may be released as Douro DOP.

A

True

265
Q

T/F: Moscatel must comprise a minimum 67% of wines labeled “Moscatel de Setúbal”.

A

False

266
Q

What is the most planted red grape in DoTejo?

  • Aragonez
  • Trincadeira
  • Touriga Nacional
  • Fernão Pires
  • Castelão
A

Castelao

267
Q

What is Enforcado?

  • A traditional pergola training system used in Vinho Verde
  • A white grape constituting a minimum 15% of Dão Nobre Branco wines
  • A secondary soil type of Colares
  • A heating process used in the production of Madeira
  • A subregion of Trás-os-Montes
A

A traditional pergola training system used in Vinho Verde

268
Q

Which of the following is not a subregion of Alentejo?

  • Portalegre
  • Encostas de Aire
  • Évora
  • Granja Amareleja
  • Borba
A

Encostas de Aire

269
Q

How long must a red Dão Nobre Garrafeira wine be aged prior to release?

  • 30 months (including a minimum 12 months in bottle)
  • 3 years
  • 42 months
  • 48 months (including a minimum 18 months in bottle)
  • 5 years
A

48 months (including a minimum 18 months in bottle)

270
Q

The “pudding stones” of Châteauneuf-du-Pape are called ______

A

Galetes / Galettes

271
Q

Which of the following appellations produces vin doux naturel?

  • Beaumes du Venise
  • Hermitage
  • Rivesaltes
  • Montravel
  • Pierrevert
A

Rivesaltes

272
Q

What is the grape of Condrieu?

  • Marsanne
  • Roussanne
  • Syrah
  • Aligoté
  • Viognier
A

Viognier

273
Q

Match the appellation to the appropriate grape varietal.

Bandol
Hermitage
Chateau Grillet
Madiran
Banyuls
Viognier
Syrah
Mourvedre
Tannat
Grenache
A 
Bandol: Mourvedre
Hermitage: Syrah
Chateau Grillet: Viognier
Madiran: Tannat
Banyuls: Grenache
274
Q

In what appellation of Southwestern France is Malbec a major grape?

  • Cahors
  • Madiran
  • Vacqueyras
  • St-Péray
  • Rivesaltes
A

Cahors

275
Q

Which of the following appellations produces exclusively red wines from 100% Syrah?

  • Condrieu
  • Côte-Rôtie
  • Cornas
  • Gigondas
  • Malepère
A

Cornas

276
Q

What is the minimum percentage of Grenache mandated for Vacqueyras AOP red wines?

  • 75%
  • 40%
  • 50%
  • 90%
  • 80%
A

50%

277
Q

The _______ wind is a notable climactic force in both the northern and southern Rhône Valley.

A

Mistral

278
Q

Viognier may be co-fermented with Syrah in Côte-Rôtie at what maximum percentage?

  • 5%
  • 10%
  • 15%
  • 20%
  • 25%
A

20%

279
Q

Which of the following appellations does not produce sweet white wines?

  • Haut-Montravel
  • Monbazillac
  • Loupiac
  • Montravel
  • Saussignac
A

Montravel

280
Q

Rasteau wines may be _______, a maderized style in which the wines are left in open barrels, exposed to sun and heat.

A

Rancio

281
Q

Which of the following communes produces sparkling wines by méthode ancestrale?

  • Gaillac
  • Irouléguy
  • Béarn-Bellocq
  • Lirac
  • Coteax Varois
A

Gaillac

282
Q

T/F: Bandol is a red wine-only appellation with a mandatory minimum 50% Mourvèdre.

A

False

283
Q

Match the appellation to the appropriate region.

Patrimonio
St-Joseph
Minervois
Bellet
Vacqueyras
Languedoc
Provence
Corsica
Northern Rhone
Southern Rhone
A 
Patrimonio: Corsica
St-Joseph: Northern Rhone
Minervois: Languedoc
Bellet: Provence
Vacqueyras: Southern Rhone
284
Q

T/F: Rivesaltes “Hors d’Age” wines are aged for a minimum of 5 years.

A

True

285
Q

Which of the following appellations is not in the Languedoc?

  • Muscat de Mireval
  • Muscat de Frontignan
  • Muscat du Cap Corse
  • Muscat de St-Jean-de-Minervois
  • Muscat de Lunel
A

Muscat du Cap Corse

286
Q

Which of the following appellations is located in Corsica?

  • Béarn-Bellocq
  • Ajaccio
  • Ventoux
  • Faugéres
  • Pécharmant
A

Ajaccio

287
Q

Which of the following grapes is not authorized for use in Châteauneuf-du-Pape?

  • Counoise
  • Muscardin
  • Vaccarèse
  • Carignan
  • Clairette
A

Carignan

288
Q

What is Steen?

  • Chenin Blanc
  • Chardonnay
  • Crouchen Blanc
  • Colombard
  • Sauvignon Blanc
A

Chenin Blanc

289
Q

What is the most planted varietal in South Africa?

  • Chenin Blanc
  • Cabernet Sauvignon
  • Pinotage
  • Colombard
  • Cabernet Franc
A

Chenin Blanc

290
Q

T/F: Most of South Africa’s wine regions are located in the Northern Cape.

A

False

291
Q

T/F: The Boberg region produces dry table wines from the Paarl and Tulbagh districts.

A

False

292
Q

T/F: Certified Wines of Origin must contain 85% of the stated cultivar and vintage.

A

True

293
Q

Pinotage is a crossing of Pinot Noir and what other grape?

  • Syrah
  • Counoise
  • Cinsault
  • Cabernet Sauvignon
  • Merlot
A

Cinsault

294
Q

Where is Stellenbosch?

  • Olifants River Region
  • Boberg
  • Klein Karoo
  • Breede River Valley
  • Coastal Region
A

Coastal Region

295
Q

Where is Constantia?

  • Coastal Region
  • Breede River Valley
  • Klein Karoo
  • Overberg
  • Olifants River Region
A

Coastal Region

296
Q

Which of the following is not a geographical area of wine production in South Africa?

  • Kwazulu-Natal
  • Western Cape
  • Southern Cape
  • Eastern Cape
  • Northern Cape
A

Southern Cape

297
Q

What is the southernmost district in South Africa?

  • Cape Agulhas
  • Walker Bay
  • Cape Point
  • Constantia
  • Plettenberg Bay
A

Cape Agulhas

298
Q

Which of the following grapes is traditionally preferred for the production of Vin de Constance?

  • Muscat de Frontignan
  • Sémillon
  • Sauvignon Blanc
  • Chenin Blanc
  • Hanepoot
A

Muscat de Frontignan

299
Q

What is the most planted red grape in Stellenbosch?

  • Pinotage
  • Shiraz
  • Cabernet Sauvignon
  • Merlot
  • Pontac
A

Cabernet Sauvignon

300
Q

What is Cap Classique?

  • Sherry-style Fortified Wine
  • Port-style Fortified Wine
  • Traditional Method Sparkling Wine
  • Another name for WO certification
  • A consortium of Constantia producers
A

Traditional Method Sparkling Wine

301
Q

In 1685, Governor Simon van der Stel founded the ________ estate, which would later become famous throughout Europe.

A

Constantia

302
Q

What is the Cape Doctor?

  • A synonym for Colombard, a grape known for high yields
  • Warwick Estate’s single vineyard Bordeaux-style blend
  • A title for a South African Master of Wine
  • A fierce southeasterly wind that inhibits fungal disease
  • A mixture used to combat the perennial threat of powdery mildew
A

A fierce southeasterly wind that inhibits fungal disease

303
Q

What unique grape provides Salta’s most distinctive white wines?

  • Chardonnay
  • Cereza
  • Sauvignon Blanc
  • Torrontés
  • Sémillon
A

Torrontes

304
Q

Where is Colchagua?

  • Aconcagua, Chile
  • Rapel Valley, Chile
  • Mendoza, Argentina
  • Salta, Argentina
  • Maipo Valley, Chile
A

Rapel Valley, Chile

305
Q

T/F: Casablanca is a coastal subregion within the Aconcagua DO.

A

True

306
Q

What Argentinean province produces a majority of the country’s wine?

  • Mendoza
  • Salta
  • San Juan
  • Río Negro
  • Catamarca
A

Mendoza

307
Q

T/F: San Juan is located in Patagonia.

A

False

308
Q

T/F: The majority of Chilean wine is red.

A

True

309
Q

T/F: Carmenère is the most planted grape in the Maipo Valley.

A

False

310
Q

Which of the following is considered a classic region for Malbec?

  • Mendoza
  • Maipo Valley
  • Salta
  • Aconcagua
  • Atacama
A

Mendoza

311
Q

Where is the Maipo Valley?

  • Central Valley, Chile
  • Rio Grande do Sul, Brazil
  • la Rioja, Argentina
  • Aconcagua, Chile
  • Mendoza, Argentina
A

Central Valley, Chile

312
Q

What is the most planted grape in Chile?

  • Torrontés
  • Malbec
  • Sauvignon Blanc
  • Cabernet Sauvignon
  • Carmenère
A

Cabernet Sauvignon

313
Q

Where is the Uco Valley?

  • San Juan
  • Rapel Valley
  • Casablanca
  • Salta
  • Mendoza
A

Mendoza

314
Q

Where is Cafayate?

  • Salta
  • Catamarca
  • Mendoza
  • la Rioja
  • Río Negro
A

Salta

315
Q

Which of the following regions is not located within Chile’s Central Valley DO?

  • Maipo Valley
  • Rapel Valley
  • Maule Valley
  • Curicó
  • Itata
A

Itata

316
Q

T/F: Vale do Vinhedos was the first appellation in Brazil to receive Origin Indication status.

A

True

317
Q

T/F: In the past, Carmenère was incorrectly identified in Chile as Cabernet Sauvignon.

A

False

318
Q

What is the principal white grape of Rueda?

  • Palomino
  • Verdejo
  • Viura
  • Albariño
  • Xarel-lo
A

Verdejo

319
Q

What is the appellation of Vega Sicilia?

  • Priorat
  • Rioja
  • Ribera del Duero
  • Bierzo
  • La Mancha
A

Ribera del Duero

320
Q

T/F: All Cava DO wines are produced by the traditional method.

A

True

321
Q

Which of the following categories requires the most aging prior to release?

  • Crianza
  • Añejo
  • Viejo
  • Vino Joven
  • Gran Reserva
A

Gran Reserva

322
Q

______ is the principal red grape of Rioja.

A

Tempranillo

323
Q

T/F: Ribera del Duero wines may be red, white, or rosado.

A

False

324
Q

What are the two DOCa regions in Spain?

  • Rioja and Priorat
  • Rioja and Ribera del Duero
  • Rioja and Jerez
  • Ribera del Duero and Bierzo
  • Ribera del Duero and Jerez
A

Rioja and Priorat

325
Q

What is the dominant white grape of Rías Baixas?

  • Verdejo
  • Albariño
  • Macabéo
  • Paralleda
  • Garnacha Blanca
A

Albarino

326
Q

T/F: Traditionally, Rioja wines are aged in American oak casks.

A

True

327
Q

What region produces the majority of Cava DO wines?

  • Navarra
  • Valdeorras
  • Penedès
  • Ribera del Guadiana
  • Rueda
A

Penedes

328
Q

The Islands are located near the north African coast, and contain 10 Spanish DO zones.

A

Canary

329
Q

What region is characterized by llicorella soils?

  • Toro
  • Rioja
  • La Mancha
  • Ribera del Duero
  • Priorat
A

Priorat

330
Q

How long must red Rioja Reserva be aged prior to release?

  • Two years total, with one year in cask
  • Three years total, with one year in cask
  • Three years total, with two years in cask
  • Four years total, with two years in cask
  • Five years total, with two years in cask
A

Three years total, with one year in cask

331
Q

What is the appellation of Clos Mogador?

  • Bierzo
  • Priorat
  • Toro
  • Rioja
  • Ribera del Duero
A

Priorat

332
Q

Match the grape to the most appropriate appellation.

Cencibel
Mencia
Pedro Ximenez
Bobal
Monastrell
Bierzo
Utiel-Requena
Valdepenas
Jumilla
Montilla-Moriles
A

Cencibel: Valdepenas

Mencia: Bierzo

PX: Montilla-Moriles

Bobal: Utiel-Requena

Monastrell: Jumilla

333
Q

Albarizas, Barros, and ______ are the three principal soils of the Jerez DO.

A

Arenas

334
Q

Match the grape to its appropriate synonym.

Palomino
Tempranillo
Viura
Monastrell
Mazuelo
Macabeo
Carignan 
Listan
Cencibel
Mourvedre
A

Palomino: Listan

Tempranillo: Cencibel

Viura: Macabeo

Monastrell: Mourvedre

Mazuelo: Carignan

335
Q

______wines are macerated and fermented with twice the normal amount of skins and pulp.

A

Doble Pasta

336
Q

Where is Anderson Valley AVA located?

  • Mendocino County
  • Monterey County
  • Napa County
  • San Luis Obispo County (your response)
  • Sonoma County
A

Mendocino County

337
Q

What sub-AVA within Napa Valley enjoys the coolest climate?

  • Rutherford
  • Howell Mountain
  • Carneros
  • Calistoga
  • Oakville
A

Carneros

338
Q

T/F: Santa Ynez Valley is located within the North Coast AVA.

A

False

339
Q

T/F: The Sonoma Coast AVA is renowned for its old-vine Zinfandel wines.

A

False

340
Q

Which of the following AVAs is located in Sonoma County?

  • Santa Maria Valley
  • Lodi
  • Russian River Valley
  • Columbia Valley
  • Potter Valley
A

Russian River Valley

341
Q

Where is the Okanagan Valley located?

  • Ontario
  • Washington
  • British Columbia
  • Oregon
  • California
A

British Columbia

342
Q

Fumé Blanc is a synonym coined by Robert Mondavi for what grape?

  • Pinot Gris
  • Pinot Blanc
  • Chardonnay
  • Sauvignon Blanc
  • Riesling
A

Sauvignon Blanc

343
Q

If a wine is labeled by varietal in California, what minimum percentage of the stated varietal is required?

  • 75%
  • 85%
  • 90%
  • 95%
  • 100%
A

75%

344
Q

Where is Ribbon Ridge?

  • Willamette Valley
  • Mendocino County
  • Sonoma County
  • Santa Barbara County
  • Columbia Valley
A

Willamette Valley

345
Q

Match the vineyard with the correct appellation.

Bien Nacido
Monte Bello
Sanford & Benedict
Garys’ Vineyard

Santa Cruz Mts.
Sta. Rita Hills
Santa Lucia Highlands
Santa Maria Valley

A

Bien Nacido: Santa Maria Valley

Monte Bello: Santa Cruz Mts.

Sanford & Benedict: Sta. Rita Hills

Garys’ Vineyard: Santa Lucia Highlands

346
Q

What mountain range separates Napa Valley and Sonoma Valley?

  • Sonoma Mountains
  • Vaca Mountains
  • Mayacamas Mountains
  • San Rafael Mountains
  • Monashee Mountains
A

Mayacamas Mts

347
Q

Which of the following regions in California produces a majority of the state’s wine?

  • Central Valley
  • North Coast
  • South Coast
  • Central Coast
  • Sierra Foothills
A

Central Valley

348
Q

T/F: After phylloxera struck California in the 1980s, AXR-1, a rootstock with proven resistance to the root louse, was widely adopted for grafting vines.

A

False

349
Q

Which of the following grapes is legally authorized for VQA icewine production?

  • Baco Noir
  • Rosette
  • Seyval Blanc
  • Niagara
  • Vidal
A

Vidal

350
Q

What is the largest AVA in the United States?

  • Upper Mississippi River Valley
  • Columbia Valley
  • Texas Hill Country
  • Ohio River Valley
  • Central Coast
A

Upper Mississippi River Valley

351
Q

Which of the following regions is not known for the quality of its Pinot Noir?

  • Sonoma Coast
  • Santa Lucia Highlands
  • Santa Ynez Valley
  • Russian River Valley
  • Walla Walla Valley
A

Walla Walla Valley

352
Q

The majority of the Snake River Valley AVA is located in what state?

  • California
  • Oregon
  • Idaho
  • Colorado
  • Washington
A

Idaho

353
Q

Which of the following is not a sub-AVA of Napa Valley?

  • Chalk Hill
  • Rutherford
  • Spring Mountain District
  • Howell Mountain
  • St. Helena
A

Chalk Hill

354
Q

Dundee Hills AVA is characterized by _______ soils, a well-drained red soil of volcanic origin.

A

Jory

355
Q

What AVA experiences the warmest climate in Sonoma County?

  • Sonoma Valley
  • Alexander Valley
  • Bennett Valley
  • Knights Valley
  • Dry Creek Valley
A

Knights Valley

356
Q

What was the first bonded winery in America?

  • Brights Wines
  • Pleasant Valley Wine Company
  • Inglenook
  • Buena Vista
  • Beaulieu Vineyards
A

Pleasant Valley Wine Company

357
Q

Where is “the Rocks”?

  • Wahluke Slope
  • Yakima Valley
  • Walla Walla Valley
  • Horse Heaven Hills
  • Red Mountain
A

Walla Walla Valley

358
Q

Where is McLaren Vale?

A

Fleurieu

359
Q

Where is Coonawarra?

A

Limestone Coast

360
Q

Where is Margaret River?

A

Southwest Australia

361
Q

Where is Geographe?

A

Southwest Australia

362
Q

Where is Eden Valley?

A

Barossa

363
Q

Where is Clare Valley?

A

Mount Lofty Ranges

364
Q

What is the commune and the growth?

Château Ducru- Beaucaillou 
Château Cos d'Estournel
Château Talbot			
Château Beychevelle
Château Pontet-Canet		
Château Lynch-Bages		
Château Montrose
A

Château Ducru- Beaucaillou
–St. Julien, 4th

Château Cos d’Estournel
–St. Estephe, 2nd

Château Talbot
–St. Julien, 4th

Château Beychevelle
–St. Julien, 4th

Château Pontet-Canet
–Pauillac, 5th

Château Lynch-Bages
–Pauillac, 5th

Château Montrose
–St. Estephe, 2nd

365
Q

Where is Chateau Figeac?

A

St. Emilion

366
Q

Where is Chateau LaFleur?

A

Pomerol

367
Q

Where is Chateau Pichon Longueville Baron?

A

Pauillac (2nd)

368
Q

Where is Chateau Le Pin?

A

Pomerol

369
Q

Where is Chateau Valandraud?

A

St. Emilion

370
Q

Where is Chateau Trotanoy?

A

Pomerol

371
Q

Where is Clos de Lambrays?

A

Morey-St-Denis

372
Q

Where is Clos de Beze?

A

Gevrey-Chambertin

373
Q

Where is Chevalier-Montrachet?

A

Puligny-Montrachet

374
Q

Where is Charlemagne?

A

Corton

375
Q

Where is Criots-Batard-Montrachet?

A

Chassagne-Montrachet

376
Q

Where is Preuses?

A

Chablis

377
Q

Where is Valmur?

A

Chablis

378
Q

Where is Les Clos?

A

Chablis

379
Q

Where is Vaudesir?

A

Chablis

380
Q

What is the most common grape in Vino Nobile di Montepulciano?

A

Sangiovese

381
Q

What is the most common grape in Taurasi?

A

Aglianico

382
Q

What is the most common grape in Gattinara?

A

Nebbiolo

383
Q

What is the most common grape in Dogliani?

A

Dolcetto

384
Q

What is the most common grape in Valtellina Superiore?

A

Chiavennasca

385
Q

What is the most common grape in Bardolino Superiore?

A

Corvina and friends

386
Q

What is the most common grape in Soave Superiore?

A

Garganega

387
Q

What is the most common grape in Recioto di Gambellara?

A

Garganega

388
Q

What is the most common grape in Conegliano Valdobbiandene?

A

Prosecco

389
Q

What is a synonym for Grenache in Sardinia?

A

Cannonau

390
Q

Pigato is another name for what grape?

A

Vermentino

391
Q

What is Vermentino known as in France?

A

Rolle

392
Q

For a RM champagne, what % of grapes must originate from the producer’s own vineyards?

A

95%

393
Q

How many bottles does a Jeroboam hold?

A

3L (4 bottles)

394
Q

What river flows through the Rheingau?

A

Rhine River

395
Q

What is the major soil type in the Mosel?

A

Dark blue Devonian slate

396
Q

What major river flows through Wachau?

A

Danube

397
Q

What is the main grape of Valencay AOP?

A

Sauvignon Blanc

398
Q

What is the major soil type of the Northern Rhone?

A

Granite

399
Q

What WO in South Africa has the coolest climate?

A

Cape Agulhas

400
Q

What major varietal would you find in Maipo?

A

Cabernet Sauvignon

401
Q

What major varietal would you find in Maipu?

A

Malbec

402
Q

Where would you find Vega Sicilia?

A

Ribera del Duero

403
Q

What is the major varietal of Toro DO?

A

Tinta de Toro (Tempranillo)

404
Q

What are the DOCa of Spain?

A

Rioja and Priorat

405
Q

What is the major soil type of Rioja?

A

Clay

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