Practice Questions Flashcards by Linden Webb

A dentist is experiencing chronic lower back pain despite maintaining a neutral spine. What additional ergonomic adjustment should be made? Should they (A) increase stool height, (B) adjust loupes to a steeper declination angle, (C) ensure feet are flat on the floor and knees at 90-110°, or (D) decrease stool height to prevent leaning?

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Which ergonomic principle is most important when adjusting a dental chair for a patient? Should the patient be (A) reclined to ensure a 90° viewing angle, (B) positioned to minimize excessive wrist and neck flexion, (C) at a height where their head is at the operator’s chest level, or (D) positioned so the operator is at a 45° angle to them?

(B) Positioned to minimize excessive wrist and neck flexion.

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A dentist is using loupes with a 30° declination angle but still experiences neck strain. What should be the next step? Should they (A) switch to a steeper declination angle, (B) reduce the working distance, (C) tilt their head further forward, or (D) increase magnification?

(A) Switch to a steeper declination angle.

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How does the assistant’s seating height affect ergonomic balance? Should they be (A) at the same level as the dentist, (B) 4-6 inches higher for better visibility, (C) 2 inches lower than the dentist to avoid leaning, or (D) positioned slightly forward of the dentist?

(B) 4-6 inches higher for better visibility.

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Which factor contributes most to reducing musculoskeletal disorders in dental professionals? Is it (A) frequent stretching, (B) using a saddle stool, (C) wearing ergonomic gloves, or (D) adjusting the patient chair height?

(A) Frequent stretching.

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What is the main advantage of the modified pen grasp over the standard pen grasp? Does it (A) provide a stronger grip, (B) reduce muscle fatigue and increase control, (C) improve wrist flexibility, or (D) allow for faster movements?

(B) Reduces muscle fatigue and increases control.

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A right-handed dentist is performing a Class II preparation on tooth #30. Which fulcrum position provides the most stability? Should they use (A) an extraoral fulcrum on the chin, (B) an intraoral fulcrum on an adjacent tooth, (C) a palm rest on the opposite hand, or (D) no fulcrum for free movement?

(B) Intraoral fulcrum on an adjacent tooth.

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Why is a front surface mirror preferred for indirect vision? Is it because (A) it magnifies the image, (B) it reduces double images and improves accuracy, (C) it prevents fogging, or (D) it is more durable than concave mirrors?

(B) It reduces double images and improves accuracy.

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A student is sharpening a spoon excavator but notices the instrument is removing too much tooth structure. What is the most likely cause? Is it (A) incorrect angulation during sharpening, (B) using a dull sharpening stone, (C) sharpening after sterilization, or (D) not applying enough pressure?

(A) Incorrect angulation during sharpening.

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Which bur is best for creating undercuts in dentin? Is it (A) round bur, (B) straight fissure bur, (C) inverted cone bur, or (D) pear-shaped bur?

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A patient has multiple white spot lesions that remain unchanged for six months. What is the best management approach? Should you (A) restore immediately, (B) apply fluoride and monitor, (C) perform a Class V restoration, or (D) remove the affected enamel?

(B) Apply fluoride and monitor.

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How does silver diamine fluoride (SDF) arrest caries progression? Does it (A) form a physical barrier, (B) create an acid-resistant layer, (C) kill cariogenic bacteria and promote remineralization, or (D) dissolve biofilm?

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Which patient is at the highest risk for caries? Is it (A) a patient with a low-sugar diet but poor oral hygiene, (B) a patient with frequent snacking and low fluoride exposure, (C) a patient with adequate saliva flow but no flossing, or (D) a patient with a history of orthodontic treatment?

(B) A patient with frequent snacking and low fluoride exposure.

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What is the main benefit of fluoride varnish over fluoride rinses? Is it (A) longer enamel contact time, (B) better taste, (C) does not require patient compliance, or (D) strengthens dentin more effectively?

(A) Longer enamel contact time.

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Why should deep occlusal caries be treated conservatively before complete removal? Is it to (A) avoid unnecessary pulp exposure, (B) allow complete decay removal later, (C) test the patient’s response to treatment, or (D) promote rapid healing of dentin?

(A) Avoid unnecessary pulp exposure.

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Which primary factor determines the outline form of a cavity preparation? Is it (A) extent of caries, (B) patient’s occlusal habits, (C) operator’s preference, or (D) depth of the lesion?

(A) Extent of caries.

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How does enamel rod orientation influence cavosurface margin design? Should (A) enamel rods be supported by dentin, (B) enamel rods always be beveled, (C) enamel rods be cut perpendicular to the DEJ, or (D) enamel rods not affect cavity prep?

(A) Enamel rods must be supported by dentin.

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Why should sharp internal line angles be avoided in cavity prep? Is it because (A) they concentrate stress and cause fractures, (B) they make restoration placement difficult, (C) they trap bacteria, or (D) they prevent proper bonding?

(A) They concentrate stress and cause fractures.

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A Class II amalgam prep is only 1 mm deep in dentin. What should be done? Should you (A) increase depth to 1.5-2 mm, (B) proceed with restoration, (C) apply a base before placement, or (D) reduce the occlusal cavosurface angle?

(A) Increase depth to 1.5-2 mm.

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What is the function of secondary resistance form in cavity prep? Is it to (A) provide macro-mechanical retention, (B) improve accessibility, (C) determine the final shape, or (D) increase composite bonding strength?

(A) Provide macro-mechanical retention.

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A dentist experiences persistent shoulder pain despite proper stool height and lumbar support. What ergonomic modification should be prioritized?

(B) Adjust elbow position to remain close to the body.

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A dentist using a flip-up loupe experiences frequent head tilting and neck strain. What is the likely cause?

(D) A declination angle that is too shallow.

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Which ergonomic issue is most likely to contribute to chronic musculoskeletal disorders?

(A) Bending the wrist at an acute angle while scaling.

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A dental assistant frequently elevates their arms above shoulder level when assisting. What long-term condition is this most likely to cause?

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Which positioning change is most effective for reducing wrist strain during a maxillary molar restoration?

(D) Move the patient’s head to a more reclined position.

A student is having difficulty maintaining instrument control while performing a Class III composite preparation. What is the most likely cause?

A dentist is performing a Class II amalgam preparation and notices that their gingival margin is not well-defined. Which instrument would provide the best refinement?

Which bur modification would most effectively increase cutting efficiency while reducing handpiece vibration?

(B) A cross-cut fissure bur.

A student preparing a deep cavity notices excessive heat production and charring of dentin. What is the most appropriate corrective action?

(B) Reduce handpiece speed and increase water spray.

A clinician is using an IPC (interproximal carver) but is leaving over-contoured margins in an amalgam restoration. What is the most likely cause?

(A) Using the IPC at too steep of an angle.

A 7-year-old patient has initial non-cavitated white spot lesions on their maxillary central incisors. What is the best treatment?

(B) Apply fluoride varnish and educate on diet.

Which factor would most strongly indicate the need for restorative intervention in a non-cavitated lesion?

(D) Evidence of lesion progression over time.

Which non-surgical intervention would be most appropriate for arresting a deep proximal caries lesion in a high-risk patient?

(B) Silver diamine fluoride.

What is the primary advantage of resin infiltration over fluoride treatment for non-cavitated lesions?

Which caries risk factor has the greatest predictive value for future decay?

A clinician preparing a deep Class II cavity on a molar is concerned about pulp exposure. What should be the next step?

(B) Leave affected dentin and seal with resin-modified glass ionomer.

Which modification to the outline form of a Class I preparation on a mandibular molar would most likely increase long-term restoration retention?

A student is creating an amalgam preparation but has unsupported enamel at the cavosurface margin. What is the best corrective step?

What is the most common error that leads to marginal leakage in composite restorations?

In a Class II amalgam preparation, what is the function of the axiopulpal line angle?

A 14-year-old patient presents with a brown, non-cavitated lesion on the buccal surface of a molar. The lesion remains unchanged for 6 months and does not exhibit tactile roughness. What is the most appropriate management? A) Initiate fluoride therapy and monitor, B) Restore with composite resin, C) Perform air abrasion and sealant placement, D) Prescribe chlorhexidine rinse for bacterial control

A) Initiate fluoride therapy and monitor

A patient with high caries risk has a deep pit and fissure system on the occlusal surface of tooth #19. There is no radiographic evidence of dentin involvement, but the explorer shows slight tug-back. What is the best next step? A) Apply a glass ionomer sealant, B) Use DIAGNOdent or another adjunct to assess demineralization, C) Restore with composite resin, D) Perform a Class I amalgam preparation

B) Use DIAGNOdent or another adjunct to assess demineralization

A 7-year-old patient has proximal caries extending into dentin on a primary molar. There is no pulp involvement, and the lesion is asymptomatic. Which approach would best preserve tooth structure? A) Place a stainless steel crown, B) Restore with a conservative composite preparation, C) Apply silver diamine fluoride and re-evaluate, D) Extract the tooth to prevent future complications

C) Apply silver diamine fluoride and re-evaluate

A patient presents with a deep occlusal caries lesion that appears radiographically to be within 0.5 mm of the pulp. The tooth is asymptomatic. What should be the first step in excavation? A) Remove all caries at once to avoid bacterial penetration, B) Remove peripheral caries first while leaving the deepest affected dentin, C) Apply calcium hydroxide before removing any decay, D) Proceed with immediate pulpotomy to prevent pulp exposure

B) Remove peripheral caries first while leaving the deepest affected dentin

A 55-year-old patient presents with cervical lesions on multiple teeth. The lesions are hard and glossy, with no clinical signs of decay progression over the past year. What is the best treatment approach? A) Apply fluoride varnish and monitor, B) Perform a Class V composite restoration, C) Prescribe a high-fluoride toothpaste and re-evaluate in 6 months, D) Perform air abrasion followed by glass ionomer restoration

A) Apply fluoride varnish and monitor

A dentist is preparing a deep Class II cavity and notices the axial wall is close to the pulp but remains intact. What is the best approach to protect the pulp while maintaining strength? A) Apply calcium hydroxide followed by a resin-modified glass ionomer liner, B) Extend the preparation to ensure complete caries removal, C) Place a thick layer of flowable composite as a base, D) Use an amalgam restoration with no liner for maximum durability

A) Apply calcium hydroxide followed by a resin-modified glass ionomer liner

A patient with bruxism requires a Class I restoration. What material and preparation modification would best ensure long-term success? A) Use composite with beveled margins, B) Use an amalgam restoration with additional depth for resistance, C) Use glass ionomer for fluoride release, D) Use composite with occlusal reduction to decrease stress

B) Use an amalgam restoration with additional depth for resistance

A student prepares a Class II amalgam cavity with an ideal depth but fails to break the contact with the adjacent tooth. What is the consequence of proceeding without correction? A) Lead to recurrent decay, B) Result in increased fracture risk, C) Prevent proper condensation of amalgam, D) Compromise resistance form

C) Prevent proper condensation of amalgam

In a patient with high occlusal forces, what cavity preparation feature is most important for amalgam restorations? A) Increased isthmus width, B) Retention grooves, C) Rounded axiopulpal line angles, D) Increased occlusal convergence

C) Rounded axiopulpal line angles

A deep Class V lesion is being prepared on a mandibular premolar. What is the most appropriate approach to ensure retention and marginal seal? A) Use bevels on all margins, B) Prepare an undercut retention form, C) Create a flat cavosurface margin, D) Increase axial wall depth beyond 1.5 mm

B) Prepare an undercut retention form

A 40-year-old patient presents with proximal caries on tooth #12 extending into dentin but without cavitation. What is the best course of action? A) Apply fluoride varnish and monitor, B) Perform resin infiltration to halt progression, C) Prepare a conservative Class II composite restoration, D) Prescribe high-dose fluoride toothpaste.

B) Perform resin infiltration to halt progression

A patient presents with a deep carious lesion on tooth #19. The lesion is asymptomatic, but radiographs show involvement within 1 mm of the pulp. What is the best next step? A) Perform complete caries excavation, B) Use a stepwise excavation technique, C) Place a direct pulp cap and restore, D) Proceed with immediate pulpotomy.

B) Use a stepwise excavation technique

During a routine examination, you identify a white spot lesion on the buccal surface of tooth #8 in a patient with a history of frequent acidic beverage consumption. What is the most appropriate intervention? A) Advise dietary modification and fluoride therapy, B) Recommend air abrasion and composite restoration, C) Prescribe chlorhexidine rinse to reduce bacterial load, D) Perform microabrasion with enamel bonding.

A) Advise dietary modification and fluoride therapy

A 6-year-old patient has multiple interproximal lesions in primary molars. The parent is concerned about pain and esthetics. What is the best approach? A) Restore only cavitated lesions and monitor others, B) Apply silver diamine fluoride to all lesions, C) Extract the affected molars to prevent crowding, D) Perform stainless steel crown placement on all affected teeth.

B) Apply silver diamine fluoride to all lesions

A patient presents with non-cavitated occlusal lesions on multiple molars. Radiographic analysis shows no dentin involvement. What is the most effective long-term strategy? A) Place sealants on all pits and fissures, B) Restore with preventive resin restorations, C) Perform air abrasion followed by fluoride application, D) Monitor closely with biannual radiographs.

A) Place sealants on all pits and fissures

A dentist is preparing a large Class II amalgam restoration on tooth #30. To enhance retention, which additional feature is most beneficial? A) Converging occlusal walls, B) A flat pulpal floor, C) Rounded axiopulpal line angles, D) A wider isthmus.

A) Converging occlusal walls

A deep Class III composite restoration on tooth #8 requires pulpal protection. What is the most appropriate liner material? A) Zinc oxide eugenol, B) Calcium hydroxide, C) Resin-modified glass ionomer, D) None, as composite bonds directly to dentin.

C) Resin-modified glass ionomer

A student preparing a Class V restoration on tooth #22 notices unsupported enamel at the margins. What should be done? A) Bevel the margins for better retention, B) Extend the preparation to remove unsupported enamel, C) Leave it as is to preserve tooth structure, D) Apply a bonding agent to reinforce the margin.

B) Extend the preparation to remove unsupported enamel

A clinician is restoring a Class II lesion and needs to improve marginal seal. What technique would be most beneficial? A) Applying a thicker layer of bonding agent, B) Using an incremental layering technique for composite, C) Packing amalgam more densely, D) Using a non-rigid matrix system.

B) Using an incremental layering technique for composite

A patient with severe occlusal wear requires an onlay preparation. How should the preparation differ from a conventional crown? A) It should preserve more cuspal structure, B) It should be deeper than a full crown prep, C) It should eliminate all occlusal anatomy, D) It should have a 90-degree cavosurface margin.

A) It should preserve more cuspal structure