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CPHIMS > Practice Questions > Flashcards

Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the “four pillars” of the healthcare environment?
A. Ownership, classification, cost and tax status
B. Quality, care setting, physicians, and access
C. Cost, access, value and quality
D. Quality, cost, ownership and location

A

Cost, access, value and quality

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2
Q

Question 2
Hospitals may be classified many different ways. Which of the following statements is true regarding hospital classification?
A. Private hospitals are always for-profit organizations
B. Urban, rural and children’s hospitals are classified by their geographic locations
C. Rural hospitals are most frequently classified as teaching hospitals
D. Hospitals may be classified in more than one way; for example, an urban hospital might also be classified as a government-owned hospital or as a general hospital

A

Hospitals may be classified in more than one way; for example, an urban hospital might also be classified as a government-owned hospital or as a general hospital

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3
Q

An ambulatory surgery center would be best classified as
A. A teaching hospital
B. An outpatient care setting
C. A general hospital
D. A rehabilitation hospital

A

An outpatient care setting

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4
Q

From the perspective of the healthcare delivery organization, payments generally come from three types of entities:
A. Employers, employees and government entities
B. Government-financed and managed programs, insurance programs managed by private entities and patients’ personal funds
C. National health systems, national insurance systems and multipayer systems
D. Uninsured, underinsured and insured

A

Government-financed and managed programs, insurance programs managed by private entities and patients’ personal funds

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5
Q

In considering the purpose for interrelationships among healthcare organizations, identify the purpose below that is correct:
A. Enable access to comprehensive care services from only one healthcare organization
B. Ensure effective transfers of care facilitated by the provision of essential health information
C. Facilitate obtaining appropriate rewards for care referrals
D. Facilitate marketing of healthcare services regardless of patients’ consent

A

Ensure effective transfers of care facilitated by the provision of essential health information

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6
Q

Ensuring the general portability of healthcare is facilitated by
A. Health information exchanges (HIEs) such as Canada’s Health Infoway and the U.S. HIE programs, including the Nationwide Health Information Network (NHIN)
B. The Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
C. Insurance programs administered by private entities
D. The secondary use of healthcare information

A

Health information exchanges (HIEs) such as Canada’s Health Infoway and the U.S. HIE programs, including the Nationwide Health Information Network (NHIN)

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7
Q

An example of the secondary use of a patient’s health information would be when the information is shared
A. To support transfer of the patient’s care between two providers
B. Through an authorized health information exchange to support the portability of care
C. In support of a diagnostic test required to further the treatment of a patient
D. With public health officials for statistical reporting or in support of clinical research

A

With public health officials for statistical reporting or in support of clinical research

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8
Q

In the financial reimbursement area, the interrelationships between healthcare organizations
A. Are unrelated to the efficiency of healthcare claims processing
B. May assure government payers that quality healthcare services have been delivered
C. Do not support private insurance organizations in their assessment of the quality of delivered healthcare services
D. Are designed to maximize reimbursement for covered healthcare services

A

May assure government payers that quality healthcare services have been delivered

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9
Q

Key information technology and information management professionals in healthcare organizations include the

A

Chief information officer (CIO), chief security officer (CSO) and chief medical information officer (CMIO)

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10
Q

Nongovernment professional associations may perform regulatory roles for their profession. Which of the following is not a typical role for a professional association?
A. Determining qualifications for a profession by defining professional examination criteria
B. Making laws and regulations regarding reimbursements for their profession
C. Issuing a code of conduct to guide professional behavior
D. Implementing disciplinary procedures for those in their profession

A

Making laws and regulations regarding reimbursements for their profession

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11
Q

There has been a shift in care settings to what type of facility?
A. Academic centers
B. Outpatient centers
C. Urban centers
D. Private facilities

A

Outpatient centers

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12
Q

Patients have an expectation that healthcare providers will keep health information entrusted to them
A. Private, secure and freely digitally available
B. Available Monday through Friday
C. On paper
D. Available for research

A

Private, secure and freely digitally available

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13
Q

Data warehouses include
A. Data from one hospital only
B. Information from the patient
C. Data from many different HIT applications
D. Financial data only

A

Data from many different HIT applications

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14
Q

Interface engines support
A. Interoperability and data integration
B. Manual connections to financial systems
C. Cloud storage of patient information
D. Encryption of patient-identifiable data

A

Interoperability and data integration

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15
Q

Telehealth can be used to
A. Constrain patients to specific providers
B. Provide a wide variety of care to patients who are at home
C. Prohibit transfers of patients
D. Mandate admissions to academic medical centers

A

Provide a wide variety of care to patients who are at home

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16
Q

mHealth applications can address
A. Contactless access to healthcare services from the patient’s home
B. Global health initiatives
C. Issues concerning supply chain inventory
D. Trends in consumer consumption of healthcare products and services

A

Global health initiatives

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17
Q

What makes healthcare data integration unique to other industries?
A. Myriad of un-adopted standards across health systems
B. IoT and home devices that are not healthcare grade
C. Healthcare data is a lot easier to share as it follows clearly defined interoperable standards
D. Securing patient information like SSNs

A

Myriad of un-adopted standards across health systems

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18
Q

What are the main goals of an Enterprise Analytics department within a hospital?
A. Provide retrospective and prospective insights of both operational and clinical activities within a given healthcare system
B. Generate data-driven predictive models based on outcomes (clinical/ operational/financial)
C. Provide leadership insights into areas where efficiencies can be made
D. All of the above

A

A. Provide retrospective and prospective insights of both operational and clinical activities within a given healthcare system
B. Generate data-driven predictive models based on outcomes (clinical/ operational/financial)
C. Provide leadership insights into areas where efficiencies can be made
D. All of the above

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19
Q

According to the American Medical Informatics Association (AMIA), clinical informaticists use their knowledge to do which of the following:
A. Characterize, evaluate and refine clinical processes
B. Lead or participate in the procurement, customization, development, implementation, management, evaluation and continuous improvement of clinical information systems
C. Develop, implement and refine clinical decision support systems
D. All of the above

A

A. Characterize, evaluate and refine clinical processes
B. Lead or participate in the procurement, customization, development, implementation, management, evaluation and continuous improvement of clinical information systems
C. Develop, implement and refine clinical decision support systems
D. All of the above

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20
Q

One aspect of the Domains of Clinical Informatics is:
A. Securing executive support for smaller projects
B. Housing services
C. Information and communication technology
D. Transportation services

A

Information and communication technology

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21
Q

Which of the following is current measurement goals of eCQMs for both Medicare and Medicaid?
A. Patient safety
B. Population/public health
C. Clinical process/effectiveness
D. All of the above

A

Patient safety
B. Population/public health
C. Clinical process/effectiveness

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22
Q

The medical specialty of otolaryngology covers the areas of
A. Sinus issues
B. Swallowing difficulty
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

A

Sinus issues
Swallowing difficulty

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23
Q

Of the following, which is NOT an eligible hospital (EH) or critical access hospital (CAH) objective/measure?
A. Electronic prescribing
B. Health information exchange
C. Providing up-to-date hardware for clinicians
D. Protecting health information

A

Providing up-to-date hardware for clinicians

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24
Q

A branch of artificial intelligence (AI) that helps computers understand, interpret and manipulate human language is called
A. Logical Observation Identifiers Names and Codes
B. Natural Language Processing
C. Unified Medical Language Systems
D. Health Level 7

A

Natural Language Processing

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25
Q

What is a noted disadvantage of clinical decision support (CDS)?
A. Data integrity
B. Lack of maintenance and governance
C. Clinical burnout and documentation burden

A

A. Data integrity
B. Lack of maintenance and governance
C. Clinical burnout and documentation burden

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26
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the Five Rights of CDS?
A. Right person
B. Right facility
C. Right time
D. Right format

A

Right facility

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27
Q

Which of the following is not an objective of the systems analysis phase?
A. Gather, analyze and validate technical, functional and nonfunctional requirements
B. Determining feasibility, objectives and scope
C. Evaluate the alternatives and prioritize the requirements
D. Create software, hardware and network requirements documentation

A

Determining feasibility, objectives and scope

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28
Q

When defining problems and opportunities, major areas of change can occur in the following areas:
A. Analytical, supervisory, financial and administrative
B. Clinical, administrative, financial and infrastructure
C. Supervisory, administrative, financial and clinical
D. Infrastructure, analytical, administrative and financial

A

Clinical, administrative, financial and infrastructure

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29
Q

The value of performing a cost–benefit analysis is to determine
A. How long a project will take to be implemented
B. The overall total expenses of the project
C. How long it will take to achieve the payback period of the investment
D. The number of personnel resources that will be needed throughout the lifecycle of the project

A

How long it will take to achieve the payback period of the investment

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30
Q

When presenting your analysis to your executive leadership, key elements may include
A. Possible changes in the project implementation that can be driven by changes in technology standards
B. Requirements that may change, affecting the strategic capability of the proposal
C. Sensitivity to challenges or changes in the internal environment that may rely on the establishment of a support team within the organization
D. Expectations that the implementation of analysis and subsequent proposals will rely on the presence of standard operational processes in the internal environment

A

Possible changes in the project implementation that can be driven by changes in technology standards

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31
Q

Of the following tools, which is not a common tool used for conducting a needs analysis
A. Observation
B. Documentation review
C. Interviews
D. Gap analysis

A

Gap analysis

32
Q

What are the typical priorities taken into consideration when assessing a project?
A. Patient safety and security, profitability, ease of processes, standardization
B. Patient safety and security, timeliness, ease of processes, standardization
C. Patient safety and security, profitability, ease of processes, timeliness
D. Timeliness, profitability, ease of processes, standardization

A

Patient safety and security, profitability, ease of processes, standardization

33
Q

What process results in documentation of what the system actually does?
A. Functional needs assessment
B. Gap analysis
C. Requirement analysis
D. Business process improvement

A

Requirement analysis

34
Q

DMAIC stands for
A. Define, measure, assess, improve, control
B. Document, measure, analyze, improve, control
C. Define, measure, analyze, improve, control
D. Define, measure, analyze, improve, contract

A

Define, measure, analyze, improve, control

35
Q

When managing projects and resources, it is important to have a work plan that
A. Is aimed at establishing a generic implementation setup for a project
B. Includes equipment costs
C. Plans the intended workflow processes by managing personnel
D. Analyzes processes and evaluates outcomes

A

Analyzes processes and evaluates outcomes

36
Q

Once an organization has made a decision to buy vs. build, the RFI, RFP and RFQ processes help secure the information necessary to move an organization to a decision. As part of the RFP, the following information is collected:
A. Functional specifications, operational requirements, technical requirements, licensing and contractual information
B. Market information, functional specifications, operational requirements, technical requirements
C. Company background, market information, technical requirements, licensing and contractual information
D. Company background, functional specifications, operational requirements, technical requirements

A

Functional specifications, operational requirements, technical requirements, licensing and contractual information

37
Q

The following document protects organizations from having their confidential information being shared without their express written consent:
A. Patient consent
B. Master client agreement
C. Non-disclosure agreement
D. Licensing agreement

A

Non-disclosure agreement

38
Q

Identify two key aspects of system design.
A. Innovation and standardization
B. Efficiency and cost
C. Compatibility and interoperability
D. Agility and availability

A

Compatibility and interoperability

39
Q

The following roles are typically represented in a system design team except:
A. Solution architect
B. Board member
C. Information security officer
D. Project manager

A

Board member

40
Q

Which of the following must be considered during system design?
A. System monitoring
B. Disaster recovery
C. Usability
D. All of the above

A

System monitoring
B. Disaster recovery
C. Usability

41
Q

Detailed technical specifications address all of the following except:
A. Availability
B. Programming language
C. Security and data encryption
D. Government regulations

A

Programming language

42
Q

Which of the following is not a phase of the Usability Maturity Model (UMM)?
A. Unrecognized – lack of awareness of usability
B. Implemented – recognized value of usability and small teams using
C. Strategic – business benefit well understood, mandated, budgeted and results used strategically in the organization
D. Optimized – continuous improvement applied

A

Optimized – continuous improvement applied

43
Q

Unclear or poorly written technical requirements can lead to any of the following except:
A. Positive vendor relationships
B. Vendors submitting high bids
C. Inability of the vendor to deliver
D. Litigation

A

Positive vendor relationships

44
Q

Which of the following is not included in the Data Management International (DAMA®) framework?
A. Data value analysis
B. Data governance
C. Data security management
D. Data quality management

A

Data value analysis

45
Q

Which of the following are included in the Technology Adoption Curve?
A. Innovators, technology enthusiasts
B. Early adopters, visionaries
C. Late majority conservatives
D. All of the above

A

Innovators, technology enthusiasts
Early adopters, visionaries
Late majority conservatives

46
Q

Functional requirements could include the following:
A. Printers
B. Workflow redesign
C. Backup and recovery plans
D. System documentation

A

Workflow redesign

47
Q

Which is a characteristic of a request for proposal?
A. A collection of documents with high-level requirements
B. A collection of documents with detailed requirements
C. May or may not include costing information
D. An informal request for informa

A

A collection of documents with detailed requirements

48
Q

Implementation execution includes the following:
A. Definition of the team’s roles and responsibilities
B. Decision on implementation strategy
C. Planning for how to manage organizational changes
D. System configuration or build

A

System configuration or build

49
Q

The implementation strategy in which all functionality is implemented in one location followed by everywhere else is called
A. Phased by location
B. Big bang
C. Pilot
D. Phased by functionality

A

Pilot

50
Q

End-user training should be completed at what point in the implementation?
A. During the activation
B. Right before the activation
C. As early as possible
D. Right after planning

A

Right before the activation

51
Q

Planning for activation should include which of the following?
A. Completing a root cause analysis
B. Scheduling post-live support staff
C. Defining the testing plan
D. Configuration management

A

Scheduling post-live support staff

52
Q

After the system is live, which of these should be measured and evaluated?
A. System usability
B. Duration of the implementation
C. Quantity of printers
D. Number of vendors responding to the request for proposal (RFP)

A

System usability

53
Q

The business continuity plan includes
A. The release management plan
B. The disaster recovery plan
C. The risk management plan
D. The configuration management plan

A

The disaster recovery plan

54
Q

The fundamental purpose of information systems testing is
A. To give leadership the information necessary to perform a build versus buy analysis
B. To give end users an opportunity to provide inputs regarding system development and functionality
C. To manage risks of developing, producing, operating and sustaining systems
D. To justify the expense of the proposed system to the board of directors

A

To manage risks of developing, producing, operating and sustaining systems

55
Q

Testing methodologies are
A. The formal, high-level description of how a system will be tested
B. The formal or informal set of conditions or variables under which a tester can identify issues and determine if the application or software system is working correctly
C. Hypothetical situations to help the tester consider a complex problem or system
D. The strategies and approaches used to test a particular product to ensure it is fit for purpose

A

The strategies and approaches used to test a particular product to ensure it is fit for purpose

56
Q

Test tools include manual and automated tools. Which of the following is a manual test tool?
A. Automation software
B. Black-box test
C. Antivirus program
D. Test script

A

Test script

57
Q

Testing performed to validate successful system implementation is called
A. Acceptance testing
B. Integration testing
C. System testing
D. Stress testing

A

Acceptance testing

58
Q

The goal of testing is to ensure the software does not crash in conditions of insufficient computational resources (such as memory or disk space), unusually high concurrency or denial-of-service attacks
A. Integration testing
B. System testing
C. Stress testing
D. Regression testing

A

Stress testing

59
Q

System controls are implemented to protect the confidentiality, integrity and ______________ of data during testing.
A. Usability
B. Availability
C. Format
D. Security

A

Availability

60
Q

Version control
A. Is a measurable technical assessment of a system or application
B. Is a formal process used to ensure that changes to a product or system are introduced in a controlled and coordinated manner
C. Tracks and provides control over changes to source code
D. Involves combining individual software modules, applications or units, and testing them as a group to identify any issues in how the integrated components interface and interact with each other

A

Tracks and provides control over changes to source code

61
Q

Test reporting occurs throughout the testing process and, at a minimum, should address
A. The test team members and their experience levels
B. The estimated cost of the test
C. The expected outcomes of the test
D. The mission of the test

A

The mission of the test

62
Q

Access privileges for each role should be set
A. To provide the maximum access necessary
B. To provide the minimum access necessary
C. Based on the user’s request
D. Based on the user’s physical location

A

To provide the minimum access necessary

63
Q

Locked doors, property control tags on devices and employee identification badges are all examples of what?
A. Technical safeguards
B. Physical safeguards
C. Audit controls
D. Access management

A

Physical safeguards

64
Q

The underlying principle for safeguarding a patient’s health information is
A. Timely access to the information by a clinician
B. Make informed decisions on a plan of care
C. To do no harm to the patient
D. Empower the patient to be an active member of the care team

A

To do no harm to the patient

65
Q

HIPAA requires a covered entity to maintain a program to ensure the
A. Privacy, security and standards compliance for PHI
B. Confidentiality, integrity and availability of PHI
C. Expertise, awareness and compliance of HIPAA
D. Restrictions, uses and disclosures of PHI

A

Confidentiality, integrity and availability of PHI

66
Q

The inappropriate use of PHI is presumed to be a breach unless
A. It can be proven there is a low probability the PHI was compromised
B. It can be proven that there was no harm to the patient
C. It can be proven that the data was secured
D. It can be proven that an exception to the breach rules applies

A

It can be proven there is a low probability the PHI was compromised

67
Q

GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) applies to
A. The protected health information of a European Union citizen
B. The protected health information of an American living in a European Union country
C. The personally identifiable information of a European Union citizen
D. The personally identifiable information of an American living in a European Union country

A

The personally identifiable information of a European Union citizen

68
Q

The best approach to reduce risk to an acceptable level is to
A. Mitigate by implementing safeguards to reduce risk to an acceptable level
B. Transfer risk to a third party
C. Take no action and accept the risk
D. Ignore the risk

A

Mitigate by implementing safeguards to reduce risk to an acceptable level

69
Q

Audits of a covered entity’s security plan can include
A. External penetration testing and internal vulnerability testing
B. Firewall rules and data schematics
C. Secret patient and social engineering
D. Rogue access points and medical device assessments

A

External penetration testing and internal vulnerability testing

70
Q

A project manager has been assigned to manage the implementation of a new clinical system. The project manager is responsible for
A. Appointing the project steering committee from hospital management
B. Delivering project objectives within budget and on schedule
C. Delegating project scope decisions to the appropriate team members
D. Reporting change requests to the CIO for approval or rejection

A

Delivering project objectives within budget and on schedule

71
Q

When undertaking a new project assignment, the best order of approach is
A. Initiate, plan, control, execute and close
B. Plan, initiate, execute, control and close
C. Control, plan, initiate, execute and close
D. Initiate, plan, execute, control and close

A

Initiate, plan, execute, control and close

72
Q

An advisory committee made up of high-level stakeholders or experts who provide guidance on key issues such as company policy and objectives, budgetary control, marketing strategy, resource allocation and decisions involving large expenditures is called
A. An IT steering committee
B. A system development life cycle committee
C. A vendor selection committee
D. A policies and standards committee

A

An IT steering committee

73
Q

An important step to avoid when managing budgets is to
A. Negotiate a good budget at the close of the budget cycle
B. Stay close to budget
C. Beware of cost allocations
D. Use proven budget tools and techniques

A

Negotiate a good budget at the close of the budget cycle

74
Q

The widely accepted practice in healthcare for managing an organization’s interactions with customers, patients, vendors and other business associates is
A. Enterprise risk management
B. Project portfolio management
C. Customer relationship management
D. Project quality management

A

Customer relationship management

75
Q

Documentation which includes the documents that support analysis, decision- making, acquisition and implementation processes is called
A. Operational documentation
B. System documentation
C. Department documentation
D. Development documentation

A

System documentation

76
Q

A common model for change management is
A. ITIL
B. CPHIMS
C. ADKAR
D. SBARC

A

ADKAR

77
Q

In risk management, assessing the likelihood or probability a risk-related event will occur and the magnitude of its impact is called
A. Identification
B. Risk response
C. Quantification
D. Monitoring

A

Quantification

CPHIMS (8 decks)

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