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CPHIMS > CPHMISS QUESTION 3 > Flashcards

CPHMISS QUESTION 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of a rehearsal during activation planning?

A

To test the process, fix mistakes, refine the checklist, and boost confidence.

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2
Q

What considerations should go beyond the actual activation tasks?

A

Seating arrangements, command center setup, food/drink availability, rest area, communication forms, and status updates.

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3
Q

What are some examples of communication protocols mentioned?

A

Examples include broadband access, Ethernet, Wi-Fi, and HL7 Fast Healthcare Interoperability Resources (FHIR).

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4
Q

What is the purpose of using standards in healthcare IT applications?

A

Standards ensure interoperability, smooth functioning, and consistent data exchange in healthcare IT.

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5
Q

What international standard interface language is used in healthcare IT?

A

Health Level Seven (HL7) is an international standard interface language used in healthcare IT.

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6
Q

What is DICOM used for in healthcare?

A

DICOM is used as a standard for images in healthcare.

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7
Q

What is SNOMED CT used for?

A

SNOMED CT is the most comprehensive multilingual clinical healthcare terminology in the world.

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8
Q

What role do ICD codes play in healthcare?

A

ICD codes provide diagnosis codes for most disease conditions in healthcare.

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9
Q

What do CPT codes classify in healthcare?

A

CPT codes classify patients’ diagnoses and the procedures they had in healthcare.

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10
Q

Why is interoperability crucial in healthcare IT?

A

Interoperability ensures smooth data exchange, avoids duplicative efforts, and enhances patient safety in healthcare.

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11
Q

What is the importance of standard words in documentation?

A

Standard words improve data, research, natural language processing, and quality reporting in healthcare.

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12
Q

What is an example of the secondary use of healthcare information?

A

Sharing information with public health officials for statistical reporting or clinical research.

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13
Q

Who are key information technology professionals in healthcare organizations?

A

Chief information officer (CIO), chief medical information officer (CMIO), and more.

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14
Q

What may nongovernment professional associations not typically do?

A

Make laws and regulations regarding reimbursements for their profession.

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15
Q

What type of facility has seen a shift in care settings?

A

Outpatient centers.

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16
Q

What do patients expect regarding their health information?

A

Privacy, security, and digital availability.

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17
Q

What does data warehouses include?

A

Data from many different HIT applications, not just one hospital.

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18
Q

What do interface engines support in healthcare?

A

Interoperability and data integration.

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19
Q

What can telehealth be used for?

A

Providing a wide variety of care to patients at home.

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20
Q

What can mHealth applications address?

A

Contactless access to healthcare services from the patient’s home.

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21
Q

What makes healthcare data integration unique compared to other industries?

A

Myriad un-adopted standards across health systems.

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22
Q

What are the main goals of an Enterprise Analytics department within a hospital?

A

Providing retrospective and prospective insights into operational and clinical activities.

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23
Q

What is the fundamental purpose of system testing?

A

To provide knowledge to manage risks in system development, production, and operation.

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24
Q

Why is system testing important in healthcare organizations?

A

To identify and mitigate major patient safety risks in information systems.

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25
Q

What does software testing aim to achieve?

A

To investigate software functionality, find defects, and ensure quality.

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26
Q

According to a study by NIST, how much did software bugs cost the U.S. economy annually in 2002?

A

$59.5 billion

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27
Q

What was the estimated cumulative cost of software bugs and failures worldwide in 2017?

A

$1.7 trillion

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28
Q

What are the different types of testing techniques used for software?

A

Executing programs to find defects, validating functionality, and providing an objective view.

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29
Q

What standard is encouraged in the United States for electronically transmitting continuity of care information?

A

Health Level Seven International’s (HL7) Consolidated-Clinical Document Architecture (C-CDA)

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30
Q

Define medication reconciliation in the context of healthcare in the United States.

A

Identifying the most accurate list of all medications a patient is taking by comparing records to external lists.

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31
Q

What does the process of medication reconciliation aim to prevent in patient care?

A

Potential life-threatening situations due to lack of awareness about a patient’s medication.

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32
Q

Why are national health information exchanges (HIEs) being implemented in some countries?

A

To provide virtual, real-time access to patients’ health information for improved continuity of care.

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33
Q

Describe Canada’s Health Infoway and its vision.

A

A nonprofit organization aiming for ‘healthier Canadians through innovative digital health solutions.’

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34
Q

What is the purpose of the Nationwide Health Information Network (NHIN) in the United States?

A

To define standards to facilitate sharing health information at the state and national levels.

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35
Q

How does the United Kingdom’s NHS Digital support healthcare organizations?

A

By connecting England’s healthcare organizations for shared clinical information, enhancing patient safety.

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36
Q

What is meant by the secondary use of health information in the healthcare context?

A

The use of health information outside direct healthcare delivery, supporting public health, research, and management.

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37
Q

Why is it important to consult with a contracting or legal representative when looking for vendors?

A

To understand organizational rules and regulations about contacting vendors before a signed contract and to avoid giving any one vendor an advantage.

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38
Q

What is the purpose of the request for information (RFI) in the solution selection process?

A

To gather information about which vendors are able to meet high-level requirements before issuing the request for proposal (RFP).

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39
Q

How are responses to the request for proposal (RFP) typically evaluated?

A

Responses are reviewed and scored based on ability to meet required, preferred, and optional requirements by the entire team independently.

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40
Q

Why is it important to compare vendor responses to the organization’s IT strategic plan?

A

To ensure vendor solutions align with the organization’s IT roadmap and goals for technology integration and optimization.

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41
Q

In the context of vendor evaluation, what is interoperability and why is it important?

A

Interoperability refers to systems integrating seamlessly for efficient workflows and data sharing, crucial for minimizing end user burden and maximizing insights.

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42
Q

How should vendors be evaluated in terms of compliance with regulatory requirements?

A

All vendors should be assessed against pertinent government, regulatory, and security requirements listed as essential in the selection process.

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43
Q

What factors should be considered when conducting background checks on potential vendors?

A

Consider their financial stability, market share, customer satisfaction, product reliability, risk tolerance, and willingness for collaboration or refinement.

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44
Q

What is the purpose of conducting regression testing after making changes?

A

To ensure new modifications did not break something else.

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45
Q

Why is it important to evaluate each new update before moving it through the configuration management process?

A

To ensure the update meets the system requirements and goals.

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46
Q

How can customer support be provided effectively?

A

Through a help desk or a single phone number for issue resolution.

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47
Q

What should be done if a service desk cannot resolve an issue?

A

Have a process for providing second-tier support.

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48
Q

What should be analyzed throughout the life cycle of an application?

A

Data for problems, trends, usage, and system performance.

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49
Q

Why is it important to look for trends in error reports and help desk logs?

A

To plan for improvements in system performance.

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50
Q

How should requests for change, feedback, and enhancements be managed by the technical staff?

A

Evaluate, prioritize, assign, and migrate through configuration management.

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51
Q

Define mission statement in an organization.

A

A statement explaining the purpose of the organization’s existence.

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52
Q

Who typically sets the mission of a company?

A

Typically the CEO and board of directors.

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53
Q

Explain the purpose of a vision statement.

A

Defines where the company wants to go or what it wants to be.

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54
Q

What is the role of values in corporate ideologies?

A

Help individuals understand what the company supports and appreciates most.

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55
Q

What does SMART stand for in organizational goals?

A

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time-bound.

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56
Q

How do goals support the accomplishment of a company’s vision?

A

Goals serve as guides to measure organizational accomplishments.

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57
Q

Explain the importance of aligning work with strategic goals.

A

Ensures that work aligns with the strategic objectives of the organization.

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58
Q

What is corporate culture in an organization?

A

An all-encompassing set of attitudes, goals, and beliefs about working for the organization.

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59
Q

How should a presentation be structured for attendees?

A

Include key points, restate purpose and outcome, address questions to prevent disruption.

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60
Q

Why are project plans and status reports important tools?

A

They provide valuable updates for everyone from executive leadership to project managers.

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61
Q

What visual clues can color-coded summaries in status reports provide?

A

They can quickly indicate task status as compliant, at risk, or on track.

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62
Q

What communications tools are commonly used for project updates?

A

Project status reports are commonly used for communication and updates.

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63
Q

How should a project status report be designed?

A

Use red, yellow, and green to indicate compliance status, keep it concise on a single page.

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64
Q

Why is record management and leadership crucial during discussions?

A

It helps ensure discussions are controlled, thorough records are kept, and decisions are documented.

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65
Q

What is the leader’s role in facilitating group discussions and committee meetings?

A

To guide conversations, manage conflicts, and ensure smooth resolution of issues.

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66
Q

How can leaders manage meetings effectively?

A

By understanding meeting participants’ positions, constructing agendas, and using negotiation strategies.

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67
Q

What is the importance of recording motions and seconds in committee meetings?

A

Keeps a formal record of decisions made and who supported or opposed motions.

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68
Q

What is the aim of automated testing?

A

To compare actual outcomes to predicted outcomes and control test execution.

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69
Q

What is a benefit of test automation?

A

Ability to duplicate the testing process and quickly run repeated tests.

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70
Q

What is white-box testing primarily concerned with?

A

Testing the internal structures or workings of a system.

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71
Q

What is black-box testing focused on?

A

Testing the functionality of an application rather than its internal structures.

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72
Q

What is gray-box testing?

A

A combination of white-box and black-box testing where the tester has some knowledge of internal structures and system functionalities.

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73
Q

What is unit testing?

A

Checking individual units of source code to determine if they are fit for use.

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74
Q

What is integration testing?

A

Combining individual software modules, applications, or units to identify issues in how they interact.

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75
Q

What are the levels of testing during system development?

A

Unit-level testing, integration testing, and system testing.

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76
Q

What are some objectives of test methods?

A

Stress testing, user acceptance testing, and regression testing.

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77
Q

What is the purpose of meeting with a group of users together?

A

It is most efficient to gather feedback and insights.

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78
Q

What are some ways to organize meetings with users?

A

Through departmental meetings, town hall meetings, or focus groups.

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79
Q

What type of data does the baseline assessment aim to gather?

A

Data on systems stakeholders are using and how they are being used.

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80
Q

How should stakeholders’ expectations of system availability be addressed?

A

By listening to their expectations and understanding system performance.

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81
Q

What should be done if stakeholders note adverse changes in system performance?

A

Pay special attention and accept feedback for system improvements.

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82
Q

Why is it important to commit to a regular process of follow-up analyses?

A

To ensure ongoing system performance improvements and address feedback.

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83
Q

When is an annual follow-up assessment typically sufficient?

A

When the initial assessment confirms satisfactory IT systems performance.

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84
Q

What approach can be used for the follow-up assessment process?

A

Telephone or web-based surveys along with accessible feedback tools.

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85
Q

How is departmental effectiveness different from system effectiveness?

A

It focuses on how personnel respond and relate within the organization.

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86
Q

What is a popular service management framework to consider in the assessment process?

A

The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL).

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87
Q

What are some factors to consider when evaluating customer satisfaction?

A

Empathy, communication during problem resolution, and feedback on issues.

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88
Q

What is the purpose of Customer Relationship Management (CRM) in healthcare organizations?

A

To manage interactions with customers, retain them, and leverage technology for processes.

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89
Q

What is a critical element to the success of the testing and evaluation phase?

A

Including the right people in the strategy at the right time.

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90
Q

What role does evaluation play post-implementation in a system’s life cycle?

A

Critical for measuring user satisfaction, system usability, impacts, benefits, and potential for expansion.

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91
Q

According to the text, how can risk be mitigated in deploying new systems?

A

Through the development of a thorough testing and evaluation strategy.

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92
Q

What is the importance of testing in healthcare systems deployment?

A

Essential to ensure consistent performance supporting safe and efficient patient care.

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93
Q

Why is assessing and implementing user access controls important?

A

To protect the confidentiality, privacy, security, availability, and integrity of data.

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94
Q

What are patients’ expectations regarding the privacy of their health information?

A

Access should be limited, and contents should remain confidential.

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95
Q

What is the significance of safeguarding patients’ health information?

A

To protect patients’ privacy rights and maintain the integrity of the information.

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96
Q

Why does the text mention concerns about privacy and security of health records?

A

To highlight the importance of protecting patients’ health data regardless of its form.

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97
Q

Which organizations are among the most recognized AOs for certifying hospitals in the US and globally?

A

Joint Commission and Joint Commission International (JCI)

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98
Q

What do CMS AOs determine compliance with in healthcare organizations?

A

Medicare Conditions of Participation (CoP)

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99
Q

What happens when a healthcare organization is certified by a CMS AO for compliance with CMS requirements?

A

The organization can bill CMS for covered services.

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100
Q

How do advances in automation benefit healthcare information and management systems professionals?

A

Automated tools simplify information processing requirements.

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101
Q

How many countries does JCI currently operate in?

A

More than 100

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102
Q

What role do AOs play in the certification of hospitals for participation in Medicare programs?

A

They determine compliance and allow billing for covered services.

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103
Q

What are some examples of professional associations related to healthcare and healthcare IT?

A

American Academy of Pediatrics, American Health Information Management Association, World Dental Federation, etc.

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104
Q

Why is creating a test methodology important in systems testing?

A

To ensure that the delivered system meets the needs of the healthcare organization.

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105
Q

What is the purpose of a test strategy in testing processes?

A

To address all facets of the testing process and ensure testing objectives are achieved.

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106
Q

What are some key steps involved in a sound testing methodology?

A

Define test strategy, develop testing tools, execute testing, employ test controls, report on testing results, perform final evaluation.

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107
Q

How is manual testing defined in the context of systems testing?

A

Direct human interaction with a system to identify defects or unexpected outcomes.

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108
Q

What tools are required for manual testing in systems testing?

A

A written test plan, test script or scenarios to follow, method of recording and reporting results.

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109
Q

Why might manual testing be considered a laborious and time-consuming process?

A

It involves direct human interaction and may not be effective for finding certain classes of defects.

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110
Q

Define integrity in healthcare data security.

A

Accuracy and completeness of data, protected from unauthorized modification, deletion, destruction.

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111
Q

What does availability mean in healthcare data security?

A

Data protected from unplanned destruction, ensuring availability to patients as needed.

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112
Q

What organizational role is crucial for interpreting privacy laws in healthcare organizations?

A

Chief information security officer knowledgeable about rules, policy development, compliance monitoring.

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113
Q

What are the responsibilities of the privacy officer or security officer in healthcare organizations?

A

Developing, maintaining, and adhering to all policies and procedures for HIPAA compliance.

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114
Q

What important process can the privacy officer and security officer oversee?

A

Security incident management process handling all incidents affecting data confidentiality, integrity, availability.

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115
Q

Name three categories of safeguards for protected healthcare data.

A

Administrative, technical, and physical safeguards.

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116
Q

What does administrative safeguards include in protecting healthcare data security?

A

Actions, policies, procedures supporting security aims like employee education.

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117
Q

Why is data validation important after each migration?

A

To ensure data accuracy and resolve duplicate records.

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118
Q

What industry standards should be implemented for vocabulary mapping?

A

RxNorm, SNOMED, LOINC.

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119
Q

Why is having a defined process for evaluating project changes crucial?

A

To prevent scope creep and determine project impact.

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120
Q

Who typically makes the final decision on project change requests?

A

Project sponsors with the project manager facilitating.

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121
Q

What should a test plan describe in a project?

A

All the different testing activities to be completed.

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122
Q

What is the purpose of real-time data integration?

A

To share data nearly simultaneously for immediate use.

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123
Q

How does an interface engine help with data integration?

A

It receives data, modifies it if needed, and passes it to the destination system.

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124
Q

What does the prefix ‘brachi/o’ refer to?

A

Arm

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125
Q

Which medical specialty focuses on heart and blood vessel issues?

A

Cardiology

126
Q

What does the abbreviation ‘PRN’ stand for?

A

As needed

127
Q

What is the abbreviation for ‘morning’?

A

AM

128
Q

What does ‘dermatology’ specialize in?

A

Skin issues

129
Q

What is ‘anesthesiology’ specialized in?

A

Anesthesia and sedation management

130
Q

Which medical specialty involves working with the brain and nerves?

A

Neurology

131
Q

Define the abbreviation ‘BP’

A

Blood pressure

132
Q

What is the abbreviation ‘NPO’ commonly used for?

A

Nothing by mouth

133
Q

What does ‘otolaryngology’ primarily focus on?

A

Ears, nose, and throat issues

134
Q

What details have to be included with a bill in the healthcare system?

A

Diagnosis codes, providers’ licenses, and billing numbers.

135
Q

What are commonly referred to as practice management systems in healthcare?

A

Billing systems.

136
Q

What must a general ledger accurately track in the financial system?

A

Charges, bills, and payments.

137
Q

What can patients do through most EHR patient portals in the healthcare system?

A

View test results, clinical notes, ask for refills, and send secure emails.

138
Q

What does the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services encourage the use of in the United States?

A

Personal Health Records (PHRs).

139
Q

Where did the Blue Button® PHR initiative originate from in healthcare?

A

Through the Veteran’s Administration.

140
Q

Where are Personal Health Records (PHRs) becoming very popular according to Gherardi et al.?

A

Europe, the United Kingdom, and Scandinavia.

141
Q

What do some healthcare insurers provide the ability to create from their websites in the United States?

A

Personal Health Records (PHRs).

142
Q

What are some media formats through which education is often available?

A

Webcasting, webinars, telecasting

143
Q

How can staff members attend conferences when funds are available?

A

By taking turns attending vendors’ user conferences or professional society conferences.

144
Q

What is an important part of the overall IT planning process as mentioned in the notes?

A

Succession planning

145
Q

What benefits result from investment in education and new skills for the IT staff?

A

Expanding capabilities of the IT staff and ensuring a well-balanced department

146
Q

What is emphasized regarding the overall education of IT team members?

A

Staying connected to a variety of disciplines related to their specific expertise

147
Q

What is an important aspect of the work that overlaps with that of others?

A

Knowledge expansion

148
Q

What is recommended for organizational leaders to do to stay up on current events?

A

Review headlines and articles in media and printed press

149
Q

What types of documentation are crucial for managing healthcare applications?

A

System, operational, and department documentation

150
Q

What does system documentation include as part of the documents?

A

Support for analysis, decision making, system features and requirements

151
Q

What do operational documents relate to?

A

Ongoing systems operations and maintenance

152
Q

What does SDLC stand for?

A

Systems Development Life Cycle

153
Q

What is the abbreviation for Personal Health Records?

A

PHRs

154
Q

What does PDCA/PDSA stand for in management?

A

Plan, Do, Check/Study, Act

155
Q

What does SBARC stand for in communication?

A

Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation, Communication

156
Q

What is the purpose of SMART goals?

A

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time-bound

157
Q

What is PMBOK® in project management?

A

Project Management Body of Knowledge

158
Q

What does SWOT analysis assess?

A

Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats

159
Q

What is the role of a RHIA?

A

Registered Health Information Administrator

160
Q

What does QoS stand for in service delivery?

A

Quality of Service

161
Q

What does RFID technology enable in healthcare?

A

Radio Frequency Identification

162
Q

What organization does WHO represent?

A

World Health Organization

163
Q

What does VPNS stand for in networking?

A

Virtual Private Networks

164
Q

What does VoIP stand for in communication technology?

A

Voice over Internet Protocol

165
Q

What role do vendors play in the healthcare sector?

A

Provide necessary products and services

166
Q

What does CRM stand for?

A

Customer relationship management

167
Q

What is the abbreviation for General Data Protection Regulation?

A

GDPR

168
Q

What does GHIWG represent in healthcare?

A

Global health informatics working group

169
Q

What technology term does the abbreviation HIT represent?

A

Health information technology (HIT)

170
Q

Define the acronym EHR in healthcare.

A

Electronic health records

171
Q

Explain the abbreviation EMR in healthcare.

A

Electronic medical record

172
Q

What is the full form of HIPAA?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

173
Q

What does HIEs stand for in healthcare?

A

National health information exchanges

174
Q

How can IT implementation help reduce errors in treatment and prescriptions?

A

By applying proper IT processes.

175
Q

What is a key benefit of improving productivity in healthcare?

A

Increased patient volumes.

176
Q

How can increased visitor capacity per unit affect revenues?

A

Boost revenues due to more admissions and discharges per month.

177
Q

What tools can be used for conducting a needs analysis in healthcare?

A

Observation, interviews, review of documentation, surveys, and data analysis.

178
Q

What aspects does patient quality of care involve?

A

Delay time, treatment appropriateness, professionalism levels, and more.

179
Q

How can IT practices contribute to cost optimization in healthcare?

A

Through bulk purchases, efficient stock control, and reduced cost per day for each patient.

180
Q

What is the role of a chief information officer (CIO) in healthcare organizations?

A

The CIO is generally accountable for a broad range of IT activities.

181
Q

What responsibilities does a chief security officer (CSO) have in a healthcare organization?

A

The CSO secures the organization’s computing and communications assets from security breaches.

182
Q

What is the responsibility of a privacy officer in healthcare organizations?

A

The privacy officer ensures that data is accessed only by authorized personnel.

183
Q

What is the key responsibility of a chief technology officer (CTO) in healthcare organizations?

A

The CTO is responsible for the technical architecture of IT systems.

184
Q

What role do health information managers play in healthcare organizations?

A

Health information managers oversee HIM activities, EHRs, and IT integration.

185
Q

Who is responsible for defining business goals in the system design team?

A

Project sponsor

186
Q

What role does a project manager play in the system design team?

A

Overseeing project execution

187
Q

What are some potential members of the system design team?

A

Biomedical engineers, application developers, quality assurance analysts

188
Q

What technical specifications should be covered by the system design team?

A

System architecture, security, disaster recovery, data conversion

189
Q

Why has there been a significant interest in usability in the past decade?

A

Due to increased EHR adoption

190
Q

What are some areas of focus when discussing usability in health IT systems?

A

Accessibility, use of mobile devices, workflow definitions

191
Q

Why is it important to stay close to budget in healthcare IT?

A

To avoid significant over or under budget affecting the following year’s budget allocations.

192
Q

What are some key responsibilities in healthcare IT budget planning?

A

Staying close to budget, accounting for cost allocations, and understanding key budget numbers.

193
Q

What is included in the realm of healthcare IT?

A

Design, development, creation, use, and maintenance of information systems for healthcare.

194
Q

Where can IT-related careers in healthcare be found?

A

Hospitals, clinics, payer organizations, health information exchanges, and more.

195
Q

What are some of the senior management roles in healthcare IT?

A

CIO, CMIO, CNIO, CTO, CISO, CHIO, and CPIO.

196
Q

What are some common roles in healthcare IT departments?

A

Director, manager, architect, analyst, engineer, technician, programmer, developer, etc.

197
Q

What does the infrastructure team in healthcare IT departments typically handle?

A

Data center, IT helpdesk, communications, database administration, backups, network support, and IT security.

198
Q

What is the 360-degree method of performance appraisal?

A

A method where individuals from various aspects of the employee’s work rate them on specific criteria.

199
Q

Why is it important to provide confidentiality to raters during the evaluation process?

A

To ensure honest and open feedback without fear of repercussions or bias.

200
Q

How can employees be informed about their performance throughout the year?

A

Through regular feedback at intervals and avoiding surprises during formal appraisals.

201
Q

What should be done when an employee’s performance is subpar?

A

Address it promptly, provide feedback, and offer opportunities for improvement.

202
Q

What is the suggested approach for disciplinary action in a progressive manner?

A

Starting with verbal discussions, moving to written warnings, and possibly termination.

203
Q

How should communication be maintained during the disciplinary process?

A

Consistently seek advice from HR, provide oral communication initially, and document facts.

204
Q

How can management encourage staff to expand their knowledge?

A

Provide educational opportunities, support further education, and encourage skill development.

205
Q

What are some ways education can be provided to staff at relatively low cost?

A

Encourage cross-training, join vendor user groups, and utilize professional societies.

206
Q

Why is it essential to value education for staff members?

A

To ensure continuous improvement, skill development, and employee retention.

207
Q

Why is it important to routinely test and revise contingency plans?

A

To fill gaps, address changing needs, and ensure preparedness.

208
Q

What is the purpose of auditing access to protected data?

A

To identify breaches, policy violations, and unauthorized access.

209
Q

What does a structured security audit program validate?

A

Consistent compliance with HIPAA security standards.

210
Q

Why is it recommended to conduct annual external network penetration testing?

A

To identify vulnerabilities in the network perimeter.

211
Q

What should be maintained for ongoing system evaluation?

A

Network diagrams, hardware/software documentation, and vendor contact info.

212
Q

What is crucial for maintaining compliance in security?

A

Continuous evaluation of security features.

213
Q

Why is it necessary to assess new applications and interfaces?

A

To determine if they introduce new security vulnerabilities.

214
Q

What should be the focus regarding health information privacy and security?

A

Consistent attention, compliance, regular audits, and risk assessments.

215
Q

Name the three primary methods of user authentication.

A
  1. Something a user knows (e.g., PIN or password) 2. Something a user has (e.g., smart card or token) 3. Something a user is (e.g., fingerprint, palm print, or retina scan)
216
Q

What is role-based access in user authorization?

A

Access privileges based on a user’s role to allow minimum necessary access.

217
Q

What is the purpose of a unique user-id in accessing information systems?

A

It allows tracking of user activities like data access, modification, or deletion.

218
Q

Explain the importance of having strong password characteristics.

A

To prevent unauthorized access, passwords should be hard to guess with various characters, length, periodic changes, and no reuse.

219
Q

What is two-factor or multi-factor authentication?

A

It involves providing additional evidence beyond passwords to validate user identity.

220
Q

Why are audit reports important in user access management?

A

To ensure compliance, monitor user activities, and prevent unauthorized access.

221
Q

What is the primary focus of healthcare IT security?

A

Confidentiality of patient information to comply with policies and regulations.

222
Q

What is scope creep?

A

The undisciplined addition of new goals, objectives, and milestones affecting project cost or timeline.

223
Q

How can scope creep be avoided?

A

By anticipating it, reviewing scope changes regularly with the leadership team, and enforcing discipline.

224
Q

What is agile methodology in project planning?

A

A flexible approach where initial objectives are set, followed by iterative sprints for development.

225
Q

Why are policies and procedures important in organizations?

A

They standardize actions and operations, ensuring consistency and efficiency within the organization.

226
Q

What is the significance of maintaining accreditation in healthcare organizations?

A

It requires defined policies on information management, security, and privacy.

227
Q

How can organizations develop effective policies?

A

By considering the necessity of the policy, gathering peer advice, and ensuring auditability.

228
Q

Why is it important to measure and review policies?

A

To ensure effectiveness, identify areas for improvement, and maintain compliance.

229
Q

What does the California Health Care Foundation survey indicate about the support of PHRs?

A

PHRs support patients in improving their health, especially for those with multiple chronic conditions.

230
Q

What is identified as the major stumbling block to PHR adoption?

A

Security concerns, with patients seeking evidence of complete data security.

231
Q

How do most websites ensure security and privacy of patients’ records in PHRs?

A

By allowing patients to decide who can view their information through secure URLs or separate logins.

232
Q

Why have patients found it challenging to transfer information between different PHRs?

A

Information entered through insurance companies or third-party vendors cannot be easily transferred.

233
Q

In what ways has the use of PHRs increased with medical home and accountable care platforms?

A

They provide incentives for keeping patients healthy.

234
Q

What is the NHS Summary Care Record (SCR) and how is it created?

A

It is an electronic summary of key clinical information created automatically from the general practitioner’s record.

235
Q

What are the components of the Spine used by the NHS Care Record Service?

A

The Personal Demographics Service (PDS) and the secondary uses service (SUS) for research and public health delivery.

236
Q

Why are doctors urged to use electronic communications like patient portals or secure messaging apps?

A

To address patient concerns and provide secure communication for convenience.

237
Q

What is required in the US under Stage 1 of the CMS Meaningful Use related to medical records?

A

A copy of the medical record in electronic format to be human-readable.

238
Q

Why is detailed planning beyond 18 months less valuable in the IT industry?

A

Due to rapid changes in the IT industry.

239
Q

How can a project crosswalk be used within the department and at administrative review sessions?

A

To demonstrate the linkage between vision, goals, and projects.

240
Q

How are project rankings weighted based on organizational goals and priorities?

A

Projects are scored and ranked against the organization’s goals and priorities.

241
Q

What is the importance of operational goals directing IT in an organization?

A

To ensure projects are aligned and not at risk.

242
Q

What should information management and systems leaders be aware of in an organization?

A

Organizational goals and recommending systems and technologies.

243
Q

What can help the IT leader and the organization avoid creating a service gap?

A

Remaining focused on goals.

244
Q

What responsibilities do leaders have regarding IT requests and service overextension?

A

To serve as the organization’s conscience and prioritize activities.

245
Q

What should leaders know about assessing tactical steps to support organizational goals?

A

Focused goals bring clarity to the needed strategies.

246
Q

Why is it important for an organization to understand what is achievable in a defined time period?

A

To avoid overextending and maintain discipline.

247
Q

What is the role of an IT leader in understanding redirection and scope expansion?

A

Knowing when to redirect and expand scope.

248
Q

What percentage of bankruptcies in the United States from 2013 to 2016 were tied to medical issues?

A

0.665

249
Q

What was the primary intention of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act signed in 2010?

A

To help reduce financial risks for patients and make healthcare more affordable and accessible.

250
Q

What are the three basic types of payers in the healthcare delivery organization perspective?

A

Government-financed and managed programs, insurance programs by private entities, and patients paying with personal funds.

251
Q

What is one of the key requirements for interrelationships among healthcare organizations?

A

Enabling comprehensive care.

252
Q

Why is effective communication of health information important during the transfer of care?

A

To advance the patient’s treatment more efficiently and effectively.

253
Q

How can technology impact the care process in healthcare organizations?

A

By facilitating the seamless interchange of patient clinical data and improving patient outcomes.

254
Q

What is version control in software development?

A

Version control tracks and controls changes to source code.

255
Q

How can different software versions help in bug fixing?

A

Different software versions help in locating and fixing bugs by identifying when a problem occurs.

256
Q

What are security audits in a system?

A

Security audits are technical assessments of a system’s security measures, done manually or automatically.

257
Q

Why is change control important in system development?

A

Change control ensures changes are introduced in a controlled manner to prevent faults or undoing others’ changes.

258
Q

What is the purpose of test results reporting in software testing?

A

Test results reporting provides stakeholders with updates on testing status, activities, and schedules.

259
Q

What are the key elements of a test report?

A

A test report should cover the test’s mission, system/application details, risks, techniques, environment, status, and obstacles.

260
Q

Why is the final evaluation report important?

A

The final evaluation report summarizes findings, conclusions, and recommendations to stakeholders after system testing.

261
Q

What questions should the final evaluation report address?

A

The report should address if the system meets expectations, readiness for users, and outcomes with multiple users.

262
Q

What certifications are recommended for clinicians in informatics?

A

HIMSS, CAHIMSSM, CPHIMSSM, and board certifications.

263
Q

When did nurses start establishing roles as clinical informaticists?

A

Certifications started in 1992 for nurses.

264
Q

What are some listed informatics certifications for clinicians?

A

HIMSS, CAHIMSSM, CPHIMSSM, and board certifications.

265
Q

What impact do clinical informatics professionals have on patient health data management?

A

They have a significant impact from privacy and security to global population health.

266
Q

Why is communication important for obtaining reimbursement in publicly funded healthcare systems?

A

Communication is essential to ensure reimbursement for care provided by private entities.

267
Q

What role does the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) play in reimbursement in the United States?

A

CMS is involved in reimbursement for Medicare claims in the United States healthcare system.

268
Q

What incentive program does the CMS offer to eligible professionals for improved health outcomes?

A

CMS offers the Merit-Based Incentive Payment System (MIPS) for eligible professionals.

269
Q

How does the Leapfrog Group support healthcare purchasers and insurers?

A

The Leapfrog Group recognizes and rewards big leaps in healthcare safety, quality, and customer value.

270
Q

What is the definition of an Integrated Delivery System (IDS) according to Stephen Shortell?

A

An IDS is an administrative entity providing coordinated services accountable for outcomes.

271
Q

Explain the purpose of an Accountable Care Organization (ACO) in healthcare.

A

ACOs aim to provide a full spectrum of healthcare services while saving costs.

272
Q

Why is information sharing important in the healthcare system according to the course notes?

A

Information sharing is crucial for achieving quality care outcomes and reducing costs.

273
Q

What are business associates in the healthcare industry?

A

Entities who must maintain confidentiality, integrity, and availability of patient data.

274
Q

What agreement defines the expectations for business associates?

A

Business associate agreement with the provider.

275
Q

What Act in 2009 raised the accountability of business associates?

A

The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act.

276
Q

What are the three categories of HIPAA security standards?

A

Administrative, physical, and technical safeguards.

277
Q

What evaluation process confirms a breach in healthcare data?

A

Breach notification evaluation.

278
Q

What is the European Union law related to medical data?

A

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR).

279
Q

What is the purpose of the breach notification process in healthcare?

A

To notify affected individuals timely after a confirmed breach.

280
Q

What action is required for breaches affecting 500 or more individuals?

A

Immediate notification to the local media and Secretary of HHS.

281
Q

How are breaches affecting less than 500 individuals reported?

A

They are entered in an online database with CMS.

282
Q

What should be presumed for all inappropriate uses of PHI?

A

To be a breach unless proven otherwise.

283
Q

How does HIMSS define customer centric?

A

Placing the customer as the center or focus of design or service.

284
Q

Who are considered internal customers in healthcare IT?

A

Physicians, nurses, human resources representatives, and others within the organization.

285
Q

What is the frame of reference when categorizing customers?

A

It defines the boundary within which customers are considered.

286
Q

What is the SBARC acronym used for when initiating a project?

A

Situation, background, assessment, recommendation, and communication.

287
Q

What is the purpose of a disciplinary approach to framing and initiating projects?

A

To ensure stakeholders and project team members operate from an identical framework.

288
Q

How should suggestions for system changes be handled post-activation?

A

Suggestions for system changes should be documented unless critical to patient care.

289
Q

What is the importance of having a clear process for submitting requests for change?

A

Having a clear process for change requests helps show user input is valuable.

290
Q

What processes should be established for operations and maintenance post-system activation?

A

Processes like configuration management, release management, and customer support.

291
Q

What should be included in the service desk knowledge base for an IT department?

A

Question guidelines, decision trees, and vendor escalation process details.

292
Q

Why is it essential to have downtime procedures defined for end users and technical staff?

A

Downtime procedures ensure a systematic approach to identify and resolve issues.

293
Q

What is integration testing?

A

Testing integrated components to detect inconsistencies and functionality.

294
Q

What is stress testing?

A

Testing beyond normal capacity to observe system stability.

295
Q

What is the purpose of integration testing?

A

To detect inconsistencies between software units and hardware.

296
Q

Define acceptance testing.

A

Testing to determine if requirements are met and validate system implementation.

297
Q

What is regression testing?

A

Testing to uncover new bugs post implementation of changes.

298
Q

What is the goal of regression testing?

A

To ensure changes did not introduce new faults.

299
Q

What controls are implemented for system testing?

A

Version controls to protect data and manage the system.

300
Q

What is the best order of approach when undertaking a new project assignment?

A

Initiate, plan, execute, control and close

301
Q

What is an IT steering committee responsible for?

A

Providing guidance on key issues like company policy, objectives, budget, marketing strategy, and resource allocation.

302
Q

What is an important practice in healthcare for managing organization interactions?

A

Customer relationship management

303
Q

What is the term for documentation supporting analysis, decision making, acquisition, and implementation processes?

A

System documentation

304
Q

What model is commonly used for change management?

A

ADKAR

305
Q

What does risk management involve in terms of assessing risk-related events?

A

Assessing the likelihood or probability of occurrence and the impact magnitude.

306
Q

What are some components of operational requirements in an RFP?

A

Data architecture, analytical processes, reliability, security features, system capacity.

307
Q

What do technical requirements in an RFP typically include?

A

Appropriate technical architecture, hardware, networking, software requirements.

308
Q

What does application support encompass in a proposal?

A

Data conversion, acceptance testing, training, documentation, ongoing support.

309
Q

Why is it important to include licensing and contractual details in an RFP?

A

To specify costs, financing arrangements, warranties, and protection clauses.

310
Q

What is the purpose of an NDA in vendor interactions?

A

To protect confidential information by legally binding parties to confidentiality.

311
Q

How can a cost–benefit analysis (CBA) be informed in procurement processes?

A

By using information from RFP or RFQ for evaluating benefits versus costs.

CPHIMS (14 decks)

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