Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CPHIMS > CPHIMS Questions > Flashcards

CPHIMS Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the learning objectives of Clinical Informatics?

A

To understand global aspects, domains, vocabulary, tools, and outcomes in clinical informatics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the global aspects covered in Clinical Informatics?

A

Global aspects include basic clinical vocabulary, information technology vocabulary, and common data analytics tools.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does Clinical Informatics cover in terms of basic clinical vocabulary and terms?

A

Basic clinical vocabulary and terms are explained, along with basic information technology vocabulary and terms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which tools are discussed in relation to clinical content and decision support?

A

Tools include clinical data analytics tools, clinical outcomes, and operational outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What aspects are highlighted under Healthcare Information and Systems Management?

A

Operational, managerial, and strategic aspects of IT implementation in healthcare systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the applications mentioned for clinical functions in healthcare systems management?

A

Applications for clinical functions include administrative services and financial services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the importance of workflow and process mapping in healthcare facilities?

A

Workflow and process mapping help analyze current clinical processes and assess functional needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What methodology is discussed for process improvement in healthcare practices?

A

DMAIC and PDCA/PDSA methodologies are explored for process improvement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How are deficiencies in current IT healthcare practices addressed?

A

Deficiencies are addressed by considering patient support, reduction in revenue generation, and industry standardization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the key activities during the implementation process of healthcare information systems?

A

Activities include change management, system integration, user training, and activation planning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does CHC stand for in the context of healthcare services?

A

Community Health Centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of areas are Community Health Centers (CHCs) associated with in the United States?

A

Medically underserved areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the designation that allows small community hospitals in rural areas to receive higher reimbursement rates?

A

Critical Access Hospitals (CAHs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are services like laboratory and diagnostic imaging commonly referred to as?

A

Ancillary services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which healthcare delivery organization serves citizens 65 years and older in the United States?

A

Medicare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the U.S. healthcare system, what program supports care for low-income families?

A

Medicaid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In Germany, who mandates shared health insurance contributions from employers and employees?

A

Germany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of health insurance is funded by employers or citizens directly in the United States?

A

Private health insurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do healthcare organizations receive payment when treating patients insured through a private entity?

A

They bill the private health insurance entity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of healthcare payment involves individuals using their personal funds for services?

A

Personally funded healthcare services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What may private health insurance allow the purchaser to receive that is not covered under a national benefit structure?

A

Services not covered under a national benefit structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the term for documents that support analysis, decision-making, acquisition, and implementation processes?

A

System documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What common model is often used for change management?

A

ADKAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In risk management, what is assessing the likelihood and impact of a risk-related event called?

A

Quantification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the ‘four pillars’ of the healthcare environment?

A

Cost, access, value, and quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How may hospitals be classified according to the notes?

A

Hospitals may be classified in more than one way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How would an ambulatory surgery center be best classified?

A

An outpatient care setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where do payments generally come from, from the perspective of a healthcare delivery organization?

A

Government-financed programs, insurance programs, patients’ personal funds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the purpose for interrelationships among healthcare organizations according to the notes?

A

Ensure effective transfers of care facilitated by providing health information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is general portability of healthcare facilitated according to the notes?

A

By health information exchanges (HIEs) like NHIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is an example of the secondary use of a patient’s health information?

A

Sharing with public health officials for statistical reporting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In financial reimbursement, what interrelationships between healthcare organizations may assure government payers?

A

Quality healthcare services have been delivered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Who are the key information technology professionals in healthcare organizations?

A

CIO, CSO, CMIO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a unique role nongovernment professional associations may not typically perform?

A

Making laws and regulations regarding reimbursements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What type of facility has there been a shift in care settings to according to the notes?

A

Outpatient centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the expectation patients have regarding their health information security?

A

Private and secure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What do data warehouses include according to the notes?

A

Data from many different EHRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do interface engines support in the healthcare environment?

A

Interoperability and data integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

For what purpose can telehealth be used according to the notes?

A

To provide specialist care to patients in rural areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What can mHealth applications address according to the notes?

A

A way to utilize mobile technology to achieve improved health goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What makes healthcare data integration unique according to the notes?

A

Myriad un-adopted or poorly implemented standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the main goals of an Enterprise Analytics department within a hospital?

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What do clinical informaticists use their knowledge to do according to the notes?

A

Various tasks related to clinical informatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What process results in documentation of what the system actually does?

A

Requirement analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does DMAIC stand for?

A

Define, measure, analyze, improve, control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Why is it important to have a work plan when managing projects and resources?

A

To plan the intended workflow processes by managing personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of information is collected as part of the RFP process?

A

Functional specifications, operational requirements, technical requirements, licensing and contractual information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What protects organizations from having their confidential information shared without consent?

A

Non-disclosure agreement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Identify two key aspects of system design.

A

Compatibility and interoperability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What roles are typically represented in a system design team?

A

Solution architect, information security officer, project manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which factors must be considered during system design?

A

System monitoring, disaster recovery, usability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does detailed technical specifications address?

A

Availability, programming language, security and data encryption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which phases are included in the Usability Maturity Model (UMM)?

A

Unrecognized, Implemented, Strategic, Optimized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What can unclear technical requirements lead to?

A

Positive vendor relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is not included in the Data Management International (DAMA®) framework?

A

Data value analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is included in the Technology Adoption Curve?

A

Innovators, technology enthusiasts, early adopters, visionaries, late majority conservatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What could be part of functional requirements?

A

Printers, workflow redesign, backup and recovery plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a characteristic of a request for proposal?

A

A collection of documents with detailed requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does implementation execution involve?

A

Definition of the team’s roles and responsibilities, decision on implementation strategy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the goal of finding a structure for IT integration in the healthcare sector?

A

To include cost-effectiveness, patient safety and care, ease of processes, and industry standardization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What key objectives must be identified initially for the IT integration work in healthcare facilities?

A

Evaluation of current operational situation, identification of major problems, and proposing alternative solutions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does the stage of identifying major problems in processes involve?

A

Comparing current processes’ efficiency with IT implementation efficiency in a similar setting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is involved in the stage of carrying out a comparative analysis of alternative processes and original routines?

A

Using flow charts, tables, process flows, and other analytic tools to guide policy implementation decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Why is evaluating the ethical, legal, social, and economic implications of alternatives important in the IT integration process?

A

To conduct a comprehensive cost–benefit analysis and foresee any potential implications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What resources are usually assigned in the IT integration plan for healthcare facilities?

A

Personnel, partners, equipment, and legal/regulatory infrastructure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What role does the project management or steering committee play in the implementation of a proposal?

A

Regulating budget allocations, monitoring expenditures, and overseeing accounts reconciliation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What should the proposed solution model for healthcare facilities aim to meet?

A

Patient satisfaction, revenue generation, efficient processes, and conformity to industry standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does project cost management involve?

A

Estimating project cost and ensuring completion within approved budget.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Explain project human resource management.

A

It involves obtaining, developing, and managing the project team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does project procurement management encompass?

A

Managing acquisition of products and services from external sources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Define project risk management.

A

Focuses on identifying project risks and appropriate responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Describe project quality management.

A

Involves ensuring the project meets its objectives and requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is project integration management?

A

Integration of various project activities including planning, execution, monitoring, and closing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the role of a project manager (PM)?

A

Responsible for meeting project goals within budget and on schedule, controlling resources, managing scope, schedule, and cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Why are vendor relationships important in healthcare?

A

Vendors provide expertise and support for meeting technology requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the benefits of a well-managed vendor relationship?

A

Increased customer satisfaction, reduced costs, better quality and service.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What should be considered when selecting a vendor?

A

Analyzing business requirements, performing a vendor search, selecting based on needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Why is vendor performance monitoring important?

A

To ensure critical requirements are met and to avoid problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are common pitfalls to avoid in vendor management?

A

Not confusing vendor selection with management and not selecting based on price alone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the role of a credentialed medical assistant in entering orders into the medical record?

A

To enter orders as per state, local, and professional guidelines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How does Patient Electronic Access to Health empower patients?

A

By providing timely electronic access to health information and education.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Explain the importance of Coordination of Care Through Patient Engagement.

A

To engage patients or their representatives about the patient’s care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How does Health Information Exchange support seamless care transition?

A

By providing a summary of care record when transitioning patients to another setting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the significance of Public Health and Clinical Data Registry?

A

To submit electronic public health data in a meaningful way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

How can eligible hospitals protect patient health information?

A

By protecting ePHI through appropriate safeguards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the purpose of Electronic Prescribing?

A

To generate and transmit permissible prescriptions electronically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Why is Clinical Decision Support (CDS) important?

A

To implement interventions focused on improving health conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Who can use Computerized Practitioner Order Entry (CPOE)?

A

Any licensed healthcare professional or credentialed medical assistant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How does Patient Electronic Access to Health benefit patients?

A

By providing timely electronic access to health information and education.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are technical safeguards in healthcare data security?

A

Electronic means to ensure data is not accessible or encrypted for third parties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Give examples of technical safeguards in healthcare data security.

A

Network firewalls, secure protocols on public networks, and encryption on storage media.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What do physical safeguards in healthcare data security consist of?

A

Physical measures, policies, and procedures to protect electronic information systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Provide examples of physical safeguards in healthcare data security.

A

Data centers outside floodplains, redundant power sources, and limited access to server rooms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What major cybersecurity threat do security professionals face today?

A

Cybersecurity - unauthorized access and malicious attacks on healthcare information systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is ransomware in healthcare data security context?

A

Ransomware holds patient health information hostage for payment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the purpose of a data classification policy in healthcare?

A

To protect information from unauthorized disclosure, use, modification, and deletion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the importance of data management in healthcare providers?

A

To ensure the most useful data is quickly available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Why is it advised for healthcare providers to develop a data retention and destruction policy?

A

To systematically destroy non-useful or end-of-life data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What should be included in an organization’s disaster recovery and business continuity plans?

A

Analysis of critical applications and data, data backup plan, disaster recovery plan, emergency-mode operation plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the primary priorities for individual healthcare facilities according to the needs hierarchy model?

A

Patient safety, profitability, ease of processes, industry standardization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the significance of workflow and process mapping in healthcare?

A

To understand current processes, identify broken processes, aid in change management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

How do workflow and process mapping support functional data and technical strategies?

A

By guiding system configuration, creating test cases, and aiding new user training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What does process mapping help identify in healthcare organizations?

A

Broken processes, need for process improvement through automation, and standard data structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What do process diagrams and flowcharts visually represent?

A

The boundaries of the process, steps involved, and sequence of steps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What forms can workflow and process mapping diagrams take?

A

Activity diagrams, swim lane charts, data flow diagrams, system flowcharts, entity relationship diagrams, class diagrams, use cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How does proper IT implementation impact the process of patient briefing in healthcare?

A

Allows convenient patient briefing and follow-up through trusted e-mail services, enables patient choice of communication channel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

In what areas can IT be effectively used in healthcare processes based on process flow diagrams?

A

Administrative and financial, operational, process flow and standardization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

List the seven protection and accountability principles of data protection under GDPR.

A
  1. Lawfulness, fairness and transparency 2. Purpose limitation 3. Data minimization 4. Accuracy 5. Storage limitation 6. Integrity and confidentiality 7. Accountability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the eight privacy rights of EU individuals under GDPR?

A
  1. Right to be informed 2. Right of access 3. Right to rectification 4. Right to erasure 5. Right to restrict processing 6. Right to data portability 7. Right to object 8. Rights in relation to automated decision making and profiling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Define ‘Personal data’ as per GDPR.

A

Any information about an individual who can be directly or indirectly identified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Who is a ‘Data controller’ according to GDPR?

A

The person who decides why and how personal data will be processed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are some examples of tools used to assess GDPR readiness for organizations?

A

Tools may include review of current policies, procedures, contracts, and relevant documents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the consequences for not being GDPR compliant?

A

Maximum penalty of €20 million or 4% of global revenue, along with other sanctions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Explain ‘Data processor’ as per GDPR.

A

A third party that processes personal data on behalf of the data controller.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What criteria must a data processor meet to legally process personal data under GDPR?

A

Consent of the data subject, necessity for a contract, legal obligation, saving a life, public interest, or legitimate interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What measures should organizations implement for GDPR compliance?

A

Technical measures like two-factor authentication, end-to-end encryption, and organizational measures like staff training, data privacy policy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What should a well-developed plan map in an organization?

A

Organizational strategies and supporting applications/processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What does the map of a well-developed plan provide?

A

Visual representation of current systems status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What does the gap analysis in a plan focus on?

A

Focuses on the gaps between current state and desired future state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What approach can be considered to evaluate the current organization?

A

SWOT analysis - strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What should the plan outline in cases where a single change cannot bridge the gap?

A

Outline steps needed to achieve the desired outcome.

122
Q

Why should a plan focus only on the first step or two of a long process?

A

Technologies and priorities may change during the interval.

123
Q

What examples of IT initiatives might be included in a plan?

A

Virtual ICUs, cloud transitions, RFID, AI, device integration.

124
Q

Why is planning for resourcing and succession crucial in a strategic plan?

A

To ensure consistent leadership despite turnover.

125
Q

How should the IT strategic plan be maintained once developed?

A

Regularly updated as part of the organizational plan.

126
Q

What must be visible to the entire department for commitment to objectives?

A

Key IT objectives.

127
Q

How should annual performance objectives be tied back to the IT strategic plan?

A

They can be linked back to the plan.

128
Q

What should be used to track a project effectively?

A

Project plan and Gantt chart.

129
Q

What does a Gantt chart include in project tracking?

A

Details each step, start/end dates, completion percentage.

130
Q

What is the purpose of Project ECHO?

A

To train and support primary care clinicians in providing specialized care.

131
Q

What areas has Project ECHO expanded into?

A

Mental health, substance abuse, HIV, besides its initial focus on hepatitis C.

132
Q

How has the Re-Engineered Discharge (RED) protocol helped hospitals?

A

It helps rework discharge processes, reducing readmissions by 30%.

133
Q

What is the goal of Clinical Decision Support (CDS) tools?

A

To provide patient-specific clinical information for better outcomes.

134
Q

What role do clinical informaticists play in CDS design?

A

They translate workflow and understand challenges for clinicians.

135
Q

Why is acceptance and adoption of CDS crucial?

A

It’s critical for the successful implementation of new systems.

136
Q

Where is CDS typically implemented within healthcare systems?

A

It’s usually seen within EHRs in the form of order sets and alerts.

137
Q

What is essential for successful use of CDS in healthcare settings?

A

Maintaining current, evidence-based clinical content is crucial.

138
Q

What are the ‘four pillars’ of the healthcare environment?

A

C. Cost, access, value and quality

139
Q

Which statement is true regarding hospital classification?

A

D. Hospitals may be classified in more than one way; for example, an urban hospital might also be classified as a government-owned hospital or as a general hospital

140
Q

How would an ambulatory surgery center best be classified?

A

B. An outpatient care setting

141
Q

From the perspective of the healthcare delivery organization, where do payments generally come from?

A

B. Government-financed and managed programs, insurance programs managed by private entities and patients’ personal funds

142
Q

What is the correct purpose for interrelationships among healthcare organizations?

A

B. Ensure effective transfers of care facilitated by the provision of essential health information

143
Q

What facilitates the general portability of healthcare?

A

A. Health information exchanges (HIEs) such as Canada’s Health Infoway and the U.S. HIE programs

144
Q

What does the business continuity plan define?

A

How an organization prepares for and maintains business functions related to a defined system.

145
Q

What does the disaster recovery plan focus on?

A

Technical aspects such as data backup and recovery after system failure.

146
Q

How often are data backups typically done for critical systems?

A

Nightly

147
Q

Where are data backups often stored for critical systems?

A

Off-site on redundant servers or through a cloud-computing provider.

148
Q

What is an example of a hardware configuration that provides continuity?

A

Automatic failover between clustered servers.

149
Q

Why should business continuity and disaster recovery plans be tested regularly?

A

To ensure processes work as intended and to make necessary updates.

150
Q

What is key to end user satisfaction and effective system utilization?

A

Successful implementation.

151
Q

What is important for keeping up with updates and new workflows?

A

Continued support and maintenance of the system.

152
Q

What types of requirements should evaluation and selection criteria be aligned with?

A

Organization’s strategic, privacy, security, and regulatory requirements.

153
Q

What might be a better option than a single vendor solution?

A

Best of breed solution.

154
Q

What are the types of hospitals based on the service provided?

A

General hospitals, psychiatric hospitals, rehabilitation hospitals, and children’s hospitals.

155
Q

What is the role of teaching hospitals besides providing clinical services?

A

Training future physicians and healthcare providers, contributing to medical research.

156
Q

How are hospitals classified based on geographic location?

A

As urban hospitals in large cities or as rural hospitals distant from major urban areas.

157
Q

Where is most primary care provided?

A

In the ambulatory or outpatient care setting, often in a doctor’s office.

158
Q

What shift has been observed in recent years regarding surgical procedures?

A

A shift from acute care settings to outpatient settings for less complicated surgeries.

159
Q

Why are urgent care clinics opening up at a tremendous rate?

A

Due to patient demand for more flexible hours and convenient care options.

160
Q

What are some examples of nontraditional care settings mentioned in the text?

A

Minute clinics at drugstores, walk-in options, and virtual visits using video calling apps.

161
Q

What are the multiple models of outpatient care mentioned?

A

Single independent provider offices, multi-provider group practices, hospital emergency departments.

162
Q

What does the term ‘community’ generally refer to in healthcare?

A

The specific geographic location where healthcare is delivered.

163
Q

What do community health organizations provide to local populations?

A

Most of the care available in their respective local areas.

164
Q

Define ‘Records’ in the context of a database.

A

Horizontal rows in a database containing different pieces of data belonging to a given entity.

165
Q

What is the purpose of a ‘Graphs and Charts’ data analytics tool?

A

To examine and present data visually using tools like scatter plots, pie charts, and bar charts.

166
Q

Explain what a ‘Control Chart’ is used for.

A

To analyze process variation over time, identifying common and special-cause variations within upper and lower control limits.

167
Q

What is the purpose of ‘Predictive Modeling’ in data analytics?

A

To use data analytics to predict future outcomes based on past data, trends, and patterns.

168
Q

Why is inspecting data prior to presentation valuable?

A

To ensure accuracy and relevance, enhancing the ability to recognize clinical and operational outcomes.

169
Q

Which data analytics tools are considered necessary for clinical informatics specialists?

A

Reports, tables, graphs, charts, and predictive models.

170
Q

What is emphasized as vital for clinical informatics specialists to master from the given notes?

A

Recognizing outcomes through data analytics tools and terminology.

171
Q

According to the notes, what will keep the field of clinical informatics chaotic and busy?

A

Big data, along with project management, evidence-based CDS, and mobile technology.

172
Q

What key documents make up the project management plan?

A

Risk management plan, change management plan, training plan, testing plan, issue management plan, work breakdown structure, communication plan.

173
Q

What is the purpose of the kickoff meeting in project management?

A

To communicate the project to stakeholders and present project details.

174
Q

What are the typical agenda items for a kickoff meeting?

A

Project scope, project management methodology, change management process, identified risks and mitigation, project team introduction, milestones and schedule, communication plan.

175
Q

Why is change management important when implementing a new system?

A

To handle the impact on the organization, improve processes, and manage changes effectively.

176
Q

What should a change management team include?

A

Members from all affected areas, clinical champions, IT champions, top-level support, and senior leadership.

177
Q

Why is stakeholder involvement crucial in workflow redesign?

A

To ensure end user readiness for change and successful adoption.

178
Q

How does a clear communication plan benefit change management?

A

Ensures proper dissemination of information throughout the organization.

179
Q

What do clinical informaticists do according to AMIA?

A

Characterize, evaluate, and refine clinical processes; lead or participate in various activities related to clinical information systems.

180
Q

What is one aspect of the Domains of Clinical Informatics?

A

Information and communication technology.

181
Q

What are the current measurement goals of eCQMs for both Medicare and Medicaid?

A

Patient safety, population/public health, clinical process/effectiveness.

182
Q

Which areas does the medical specialty of otolaryngology cover?

A

Sinus issues and swallowing difficulty.

183
Q

What is a branch of AI that helps computers understand human language?

A

Natural Language Processing.

184
Q

What is a noted disadvantage of clinical decision support (CDS)?

A

Clinical burnout and documentation burden.

185
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the Five Rights of CDS?

A

Right facility.

186
Q

What is the purpose of performing a cost–benefit analysis?

A

To determine how long it will take to achieve the payback period of the investment.

187
Q

What may key elements include when presenting analysis to executive leadership?

A

Possible changes in project implementation driven by changes in technology standards.

188
Q

Which of the following tools is not commonly used for conducting a needs analysis?

A

Gap analysis.

189
Q

What are the typical priorities taken into consideration when assessing a project?

A

Patient safety and security, profitability, ease of processes, standardization.

190
Q

What is the purpose of the CPHIMS Review Guide Fourth Edition?

A

Preparing for Success in Healthcare Information and Management Systems.

191
Q

Where can requests for permission to reproduce parts of the work be sent?

A

HIMSS 350 N. Orleans St. Suite S10000 Chicago, IL 60654, Attn: Certification (certification@himss.org).

192
Q

When was the Fourth Edition of the CPHIMS Review Guide published?

A

2021

193
Q

What can the inclusion of an organization in the publication NOT be construed as?

A

An endorsement of such organization, product, or service.

194
Q

Where is Routledge located?

A

600 Broken Sound Parkway #300, Boca Raton FL, 33487 and 2 Park Square, Milton Park, Abingdon, Oxon, OX14 4RN.

195
Q

What is Routledge’s association?

A

An imprint of the Taylor & Francis Group, an informa business.

196
Q

Who asserts the right to be identified as the author of the editorial material?

A

Healthcare Information & Management Systems Society (HIMSS).

197
Q

What should be done to reproduce any part of the book?

A

Obtain permission in writing from the publishers.

198
Q

What are the five phases of the Usability Maturity Model (UMM)?

A

Unrecognized, Preliminary, Implemented, Integrated, Strategic

199
Q

What are the recommended tactics to expand usability within an organization according to the UMM?

A

Include usability in contracts, Create feedback loops, Talk about tasks and workflows, Educate about ROI, Engage organizational leaders

200
Q

What is BYOD in the context of information infrastructure?

A

Bring Your Own Device

201
Q

Why is it important for healthcare organizations to anticipate emerging business requirements?

A

To ensure the information infrastructure can support future needs.

202
Q

What is the significance of the 11th Revision of the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-11)?

A

It is an example of a future business requirement that healthcare organizations should prepare for.

203
Q

What is the technology adoption curve?

A

A curve showing the adoption of new technologies over time.

204
Q

Why is business continuity planning crucial for healthcare organizations?

A

To ensure systems can recover from disasters and ensure data availability.

205
Q

What is cloud computing in healthcare?

A

The provision of applications over the Internet to access resources.

206
Q

Why is data security important in cloud computing for healthcare organizations?

A

To protect application data and customer information stored on servers.

207
Q

How can projects be visualized in both summarized and detailed ways?

A

Projects can be visualized using highly summarized and detailed methods.

208
Q

What is a common tool used by organizations to manage projects effectively?

A

Many organizations use a simple spreadsheet to manage projects effectively.

209
Q

What does a service-level agreement (SLA) include for departments with service components?

A

SLA includes indicators tracked at regular intervals.

210
Q

How can service-level parameters best be measured?

A

Service-level parameters can best be measured using a dashboard visualization tool.

211
Q

What does a stretch goal typically exceed?

A

A stretch goal typically exceeds any quality-of-service parameters.

212
Q

What are control charts in a typical dashboard?

A

Control charts are statistical representations on a dashboard with UCL and LCL.

213
Q

Why is it necessary to review the process if a series of points moves in one direction?

A

Reviewing is needed for special-cause variation due to natural variation around a mean.

214
Q

Why might variation in healthcare signal immediate attention?

A

Variation in healthcare may signal changes in patient care quality.

215
Q

What is a method to prevent isolation and enhance communication with stakeholders?

A

Regular departmental and system assessments prevent isolation and enhance communication.

216
Q

How can measuring system effectiveness start according to the notes?

A

Measuring system effectiveness should start with a baseline analysis.

217
Q

Why is it important to have both objective and subjective assessments of quality metrics?

A

Objective and subjective assessments help understand quality metrics comprehensively.

218
Q

How can a baseline assessment be accomplished?

A

Baseline assessment can be done through face-to-face interviews or unit rounding.

219
Q

What is the role of an Electronic Health Record (EHR) system?

A

To store patient data, execute algorithms, and integrate with other healthcare systems.

220
Q

What types of data can drive prediction models in EHR systems?

A

Vital signs, lab results, and outpatient visit attendance numbers.

221
Q

What is the importance of interoperability in clinical systems?

A

To avoid entering data multiple times and ensure seamless data exchange.

222
Q

How do picture archiving and communication systems (PACS) benefit healthcare facilities?

A

They store and display images, reducing the need for physical films and saving costs.

223
Q

What are some examples of specialized documentation areas in healthcare?

A

Perinatal, perioperative, critical care units, primary care, and renal dialysis.

224
Q

What are some capabilities of Enterprise EHR systems?

A

Population health management, specialized clinical modules, and integration with external systems.

225
Q

How do financial applications in healthcare IT differ from other organizations?

A

They handle more variables than most businesses’ financial needs.

226
Q

What are some functionalities provided by administrative applications in healthcare?

A

Support for clinicians, payroll, staff scheduling, educational applications, and staff competency record keeping.

227
Q

Why is it important to provide vendors with a list of scenarios before a demonstration?

A

To ensure they show how their product meets your needs and not just highlight features.

228
Q

What is the benefit of having each vendor demonstrate how their product fits within the same scenarios?

A

Easier comparison and scoring of options prior to final selection.

229
Q

How can scheduling demonstrations closely together benefit the decision-making process?

A

Ensures the information is fresh when vendors’ products are scored.

230
Q

What advantages does a trial period or trial version of software offer during the selection process?

A

Allows end user scenario testing to assess fit for requirements.

231
Q

What does visiting a site that has implemented a vendor’s solution help demonstrate?

A

How the system can be customized to fit defined workflows and processes.

232
Q

Why is it important to ask specific questions during site visits to organizations using the vendor’s solution?

A

To understand vendor support, customization, and integration with other systems.

233
Q

If a site visit is not feasible, what alternative option can provide insights into vendor solutions?

A

A call with the reference site or a remote web meeting to see the system in action.

234
Q

How can client references help the selection team assess potential vendors?

A

By providing insights into the implementation process and lessons learned.

235
Q

What are some advantages of Computerized Provider Order Entry (CPOE)?

A

Averting handwriting issues, drug alerts, formulary recommendations, economic savings, faster order transmission.

236
Q

List some disadvantages of Computerized Provider Order Entry (CPOE).

A

Perceived as more work, coding requirements, design and maintenance issues, duplicate alert problems, overdependence on CDS.

237
Q

According to Dr. W. Edwards Deming, what impact does a bad system have?

A

A bad system will beat a good person every time.

238
Q

What are some advantages of Clinical Decision Support (CDS)?

A

Increased quality of care, error avoidance, improved efficiency, CPOE.

239
Q

State some disadvantages of Clinical Decision Support (CDS).

A

Alarm/alert fatigue, burnout, delegation issues, data integrity, system design problems.

240
Q

What are the Five Rights of Clinical Decision Support (CDS)?

A

Right information, right person, right format, right channel, right time.

241
Q

What framework is recommended for CDS by Osheroff et al.?

A

Five-rights framework adopted by AHRQ.

242
Q

How can CDS tools help healthcare providers according to Bresnick?

A

By suggesting next steps, alerting to available information, catching potential problems.

243
Q

What is the purpose of clinical data analytics tools?

A

To manage clinical data, analyze it retrospectively or use predictive analytics.

244
Q

How are CDS tools evolving in terms of technology?

A

Leveraging machine learning and artificial intelligence for powerful analytics.

245
Q

What does DNFB stand for?

A

Discharged not final billed

246
Q

Explain the significance of DNFB in billing processes.

A

It indicates the expected amount of money to be billed to the guarantor, pending documentation.

247
Q

Define ‘days cash on hand’.

A

Cash available to the organization and represents the number of days it could operate without new funds.

248
Q

Why are internal benchmarks important for organizational operations?

A

They are reflections of financial indicators and usually set by operations or the board of directors.

249
Q

What are quality indicators in healthcare?

A

Standards set by government agencies or payers to establish benchmarks for quality of care.

250
Q

What is the National Academy of Medicine known for?

A

Producing publications on patient quality, safety issues, and Health IT.

251
Q

Why is quality assurance essential for IT departments?

A

To ensure safe and high-quality software performance, such as patient safety systems.

252
Q

What role does the Leapfrog Group play in healthcare?

A

They provide testing to ensure appropriate decision support and alerts for certain programs.

253
Q

What do department policies and procedures (P&Ps) help to guide?

A

Processes and actions employees should use to perform their work.

254
Q

What does a procedure document describe?

A

How an outcome is to be accomplished.

255
Q

What are the two purposes of policies and procedures?

A
  1. Set performance requirements. 2. Serve as ongoing references and orientation documents.
256
Q

What are the steps useful in developing P&Ps?

A
  1. Identify a need. 2. Draft a policy/procedure. 3. Get management approval. 4. Distribute approved document. 5. Revise as needed. 6. Coordinate with relevant areas.
257
Q

What elements do department P&Ps address related to security?

A

Access control, entity authentication, audit trails, data encryption, firewall protection, virus checking.

258
Q

What is essential for healthcare organizations to achieve various accreditations?

A

Department policies and procedures (P&Ps).

259
Q

What is important for IT leaders in today’s healthcare arena?

A

Handling multiple projects, strategic planning, and dealing with customer relationships.

260
Q

What blend of awareness do today’s leaders in healthcare IT require?

A

Clinical and business awareness.

261
Q

What are critical for the success of IT leaders in healthcare?

A

Stakeholder engagement and monitoring customer satisfaction.

262
Q

What do healthcare organizations strive to achieve in terms of new technology?

A

Leading with new technology and delivering high-quality care to patients.

263
Q

Why is it important to rank requirements during the selection process?

A

Clarity on which requirements are necessary helps evaluate vendor responses.

264
Q

What is the purpose of feeding requirements and rankings into RFI or RFP documentation?

A

To define vendor evaluation criteria and process for selecting solutions.

265
Q

What factors influence the decision to build or buy a new solution?

A

Factors like organization’s skill set, budget, timeline, IT strategy, and vendor capabilities.

266
Q

Why is it crucial to involve the right people in the selection process?

A

To ensure successful system selection and implementation.

267
Q

Who provides contracting and negotiation expertise in the selection team?

A

The Contracting Representative.

268
Q

Why should team membership in the selection process balance including the right people with keeping the size manageable?

A

To ensure efficiency and effectiveness during the selection process.

269
Q

What role does the Governance Committee play in the selection process?

A

Provides oversight but is not directly involved in the team.

270
Q

Why should a facilitator be identified early on in the selection process?

A

To ensure the process progresses as expected and involves the right people.

271
Q

Why are representatives from clinical, IT, and business departments included in the selection team?

A

To ensure all affected areas of the organization are involved.

272
Q

What are examples of technical safeguards?

A

Locked doors, property control tags, employee ID badges.

273
Q

What is the underlying principle for safeguarding patient health information?

A

To do no harm to the patient.

274
Q

What does HIPAA require covered entities to maintain?

A

Privacy, security, and standards compliance for PHI.

275
Q

When is the inappropriate use of PHI presumed to be a breach?

A

Unless proven there is a low probability the PHI was compromised.

276
Q

What does GDPR apply to?

A

The personally identifiable information of a European Union citizen.

277
Q

What is the best approach to reduce risk to an acceptable level?

A

Mitigate by implementing safeguards to reduce risk.

278
Q

What can audits of a covered entity’s security plan include?

A

External penetration testing and internal vulnerability testing.

279
Q

What is a project manager responsible for?

A

Delivering project objectives within budget and on schedule.

280
Q

What is the best order of approach when undertaking a new project assignment?

A

Initiate, plan, execute, control and close.

281
Q

What is an advisory committee providing guidance on key issues called?

A

An IT steering committee.

282
Q

What is an important step to avoid when managing budgets?

A

Negotiate a good budget at the close of the budget cycle.

283
Q

What is the widely accepted practice in healthcare for managing organization interactions?

A

Customer relationship management.

284
Q

What does documentation focus on?

A

Capturing and storing information for future reference.

285
Q

What is the importance of understanding healthcare trends in building healthcare IT?

A

It is the basis of designing and supporting healthcare providers in caring for patients.

286
Q

Where can you find the HIMSS Dictionary of Health Information and Technology Terms?

A

Boca Raton: Taylor & Francis Group, LLC, 2019.

287
Q

What benefits are highlighted in the Office of the National Coordinator’s Issue Brief on EHRs?

A

Benefits of Electronic Health Records.

288
Q

Which organization released the ACR-AAPM-SIM Technical Standard for Electronic Practice of Medical Imaging?

A

American College of Radiology.

289
Q

What type of information can be found on EMR by visiting the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention?

A

Certifications, Licenses, and Accreditations.

290
Q

What tool for managing health is discussed in the Mayo Clinic Staff guide?

A

Personal Health Record.

291
Q

Where can information on Connected Health be found as per the HIMSS guide?

A

Chicago: HIMSS, 2019.

292
Q

What can be accessed on the National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics’ website?

A

Information on Personal Health Records and Systems.

293
Q

In what city is Aetna’s Personal Health Record discussed?

A

Hartford, CT.

294
Q

According to the California HealthCare Foundation, what motivates consumers in using Personal Health Records?

A

Improving their health.

295
Q

What is the purpose of a mapping document in interface messages?

A

To describe where each piece of data is expected and if any manipulation is needed.

296
Q

Why is it important to set up a training environment early in a project?

A

To allow the training team to develop materials and hypothetical patient data.

297
Q

What factors influence the decision on the type of training to provide?

A

Organizational culture, extent of change, number of users, users’ work hours, and staff’s comfort level with computers.

298
Q

Why is training scheduled right before activation?

A

So users retain what they were taught.

299
Q

How can issues during the training phase be supported?

A

Through manuals, quick reference guides, and support staff presence.

300
Q

What activities are involved in activation planning?

A

Deciding on implementation strategy, defining pre-activation activities, and go-live day tasks.

CPHIMS (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions