Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

cvpm exam by book > Practice Made Perfect > Flashcards

Practice Made Perfect Flashcards

1
Q

What are the steps of the management process?

A

Planning, organization, directing, evaluating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three types of planning that occur in a business?

A

Strategic, tactical, operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define: strategic planning

A

Long term planning (3-5 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define: tactical planning

A

Planning for the near future (1-3 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define: operational planning

A

Immediate future planning (weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the four attributes that mark the progress of a business’s success strategy?

A

Financial success
Ability of staff to work as a team
Motivation and contentment among employees
Client satisfaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the four major areas of vet practice management?

A

Personnel and Human Resources, operations and maintenance, finance and economics, marketing and client relations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the six behavioral abilities a manager must have?

A

Command respect
Delegate
Follow through
Self Motivated
Control emotions
Communication skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pertaining to external pressures, what the forces identified in Porter’s five-force analysis?

A

New players to the industry
Threat of substitutes
Client buying power
Rivalry among established practices
Supplier power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does PEST stand for in a PEST analysis?

A

Political, economic, sociocultural, and technological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two areas of the value chain analysis?

A

Primary operating activities - those that ate directly client/patient facing

Support activities - behind the scenes activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the four perspectives relevant to the Veterinary Practice Scorecard?

A

Patient care
Client
Learning and growth
Financial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the four basic leadership styles? Define each of them.

A

Directive - task oriented
Supportive - individual needs
Participative - consulting group in decision making
Achievement oriented - goal setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define theory X and theory Y in regards to people management?

A

X assumes people prefer direction and are motivated by money

Y assumes people can self-direct and are motivated by pride in work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the five levels of competence in regards to EQ?

A

Self awareness
Self control
Self motivation
Empathy
Effective management of relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define: behavior typing instruments

A

Methodologies of characterizing a persons behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the DISC categories and how do you differentiate them?

A

D - dominate - have control over environments, results oriented, tend to think environment is hostile

I - influential - have control over environment, people oriented, tend to think environment is friendly

S - steadiness - submissive to environment, people oriented, tend to think the environment is friendly

C - conscientious - submissive to environment, results oriented, tend to think the environment is hostile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define: the platinum rule

A

Communicating with others the way they were prefer to be communicated with rather than as you would prefer

More affective than “the golden rule”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the communication behavior dynamics of the DISC styles?

A

D - assertive, low feelings
I - assertive, high feelings
S - reserved, high feelings
C - reserved, low feelings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the difference between passive, assertive, and aggressive?

A

Passive - put rights of others above your own

Assertive - stand up for your own rights while maintaining respect for the rights of others

Aggressive - stand up for your own rights while violating the rights of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two key ingredients in a complete plan for staff acquisition?

A

Budget
Job description

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what documents must you collect from a new hire when they start?

A

W4, I9, state income tax witholding forms, medical and retirement forms, copies of credentials, contact info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the three types of employee performance evaluations?

A

formal performance reviews, coaching conversations, corrective-action discussions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a good rule of thumb when evaluating if an employee’s poor behavior is a possible pattern?

A

Rule of three
Offense #1: take note
Offense #2: take note as possible pattern and plan for discussion
Offense #3: discuss with employee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the ABCDEF formula for corrective action discussions?

A

Awareness
Behavioral expectations
Consequences
Decision confirmed
Employee involvement
Follow up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What law prohibits termination based on race, sex, color, creed, or origin?

A

Civil rights act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What law prohibits termination based on age if over 40 years old?

A

Age discrimination in employment act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What law prohibits termination based on pregnancy?

A

Pregnancy discrimination act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What law prohibits termination based on employee refusing to work in a place they consider unsafe?

A

Occupational safety and health act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What law prohibits termination based on employee filing for bankruptcy?

A

Bankruptcy reform act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What law requires employers to keep detailed payroll and benefits data?

A

Internal revenue code and fair labor standards act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What law requires all employers to verify that new hires are a US citizen or are authorized to work in the US?

A

Immigration reform and control act of 1986

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which law sets basic minimum wage and overtime pay standards and record keeping requirements and regulated the employment of minors?

A

Fair labor standards act (1938)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What two ways can the FLSA apply to employees?

A

Enterprise coverage
Individual coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In regards to the FLSA, when does enterprise coverage apply?

A

Business is engaged in interstate commerce, has at least two employees, and has annual sales of at least $500k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define: hours “suffered” or permitted

A

Hours employee works outside what the employer has requested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define: waiting time

A

Hours worked when employee cannot use the time for their own purposes and the time is controlled by the employer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define: on call time

A

Time when employee must stay available and cannot use the time for their own purposes

Does not count as hours worked if employee is required to be reachable if needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When does an employer have to pay for sleep time vs not?

A

Pay if employee is scheduled for less than 24 hours and is allowed to sleep/do personal activities during that time

Don’t pay if scheduled for more than 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When can uniform costs not be imposed on the employee?

A

If their purchasing of a uniform would decrease their hourly wage to less than minimum wage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What qualifies an employee as being exempt?

A

Salary of $455 or more a week

Paychecks released weekly or less frequently

Job duties include executive, administrative, or professional duties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Aside from salaried exempt employees, what other exemptions exist for the FLSA?

A

Full time students, student learners, and disabled workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Who is the FLSA enforced by?

A

The wage and hour division of the US department of labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Employee or 1099: the practice controls the person’s work performance

A

Employee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Employee or 1099: investments in supplies and equipment are done by the individual

A

1099

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Employee or 1099: opportunity for loss or profit falls on the practice

A

Employee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Employee or 1099: long term relationship

A

Employee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The most important factor under the common law test is…

A

The employer’s control of the individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the three categories determined by the IRS that establish if individual is employee or 1099?

A

Behavioral control
Financial control
Relationship of the parties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What statutory safe harbor can allow an employer relief from federal employment tax obligations for an individual?

A

Section 530

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If an employee is incorrectly categorized as a 1099, who is responsible for the backtaxes and other fees if an IRS audit were to occur?

A

The employer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Under Title VII of which law is it illegal to discriminate against someone for their race, color, religion, sex, or national origin?

A

Civil rights act of 1964

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What organization enforces the civil rights act of 1964?

A

Equal employment opportunity commission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What size business does the equal employment opportunity commission regulate?

A

15+ employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

T/F: businesses with less than 15 employees are not subject to the civil rights act of 1964

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

T/F: former employees can sue their former employers under the civil rights act

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the three types of sex discrimination per the civil rights act?

A

Typical gender based
Pregnancy
Sexual harassment

58
Q

What are the two types of sexual harassment and what do they mean?

A

Quid pro quo - when unwelcome sexual conduct is used as basis of employment decisions

Hostile environment - unwelcome sexual conduct that affects job performance or affects hostile work environment

59
Q

What requirements must be met in order for an allegation to be considered sexual harassment?

A

The conduct must create a hostile or abusive work environment

The victim must perceive the environment to be abusive

60
Q

What law makes it clear that discrimination on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions is unlawful sex discrimination under the civil rights act?

A

Pregnancy discrimination act if 1978

61
Q

Can an employer take fetal welfare into account when deciding whether to permit a pregnancy employee to remain on the job?

A

No but they should advice the employee of any hazards that could affect their pregnancy

62
Q

What law prohibits employment discrimination against persons with disabilities?

A

Americans with disabilities act (1990)

63
Q

What size business does the ADA apply to? Which employees count?

A

15+ employees
Employees count if they are on payroll for 20+ weeks a year

64
Q

What law prohibits discrimination because of age?

A

Age discrimination in employment act (1967)

65
Q

The ADEA prohibits employers with ___ or more employees from discrimination against people ___ or older on the basis of their age

A

20
40

66
Q

How many employees must a business have for the FMLA to apply?

A

50+

67
Q

What qualifies an employee for FMLA?

A

Must have worked 1250+ hours in previous 12 months
Reason for leave:
• childbirth
• adoption
• care for immediate family member
• serious health condition
OR
• care for service member

68
Q

What organization requires all employers to furnish a place of employment free from recognized hazards that are likely to cause death or serious injury?

A

Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA)

69
Q

What act provides funds that the states can use to administer unemployment benefits?

A

Federal unemployment tax act

70
Q

What law provides safeguards for employee interests in any employee sponsored benefit plans?

A

Employee retirement income security act (1974)

71
Q

What are the three major sections of the ERISA?

A

Title I - various participation rules

Title II - amendments to Internal Revenue Code enforced by IRS

Title IV - pension plan benefit insurance program

72
Q

Title IV benefits of the ERISA is administered through what?

A

Pension benefit guaranty corporation

73
Q

What law allows temporary coverage extensions of health insurance benefits?

A

Consolidated omnibus budget reconciliation act of 1986 (COBRA)

74
Q

What is the maximum amount of time an employee could get COBRA benefits?

A

18 months

75
Q

What protects employees health insurance coverage when they change jobs?

A

Health insurance portability and accountability act

76
Q

What law requires employers with more than 15 employees to provide group health insurance benefits or pay a penalty?

A

Patient protection and affordable care act (2010)

77
Q

What is the penalty under the patient protection and affordable care act?

A

$2000 per employee per year

78
Q

What law states the same benefits must be applied within an insurance plan for mental health as with medical/surgical health?

A

Mental health parity act

79
Q

What law prohibits private sector employers from having an employee or prospective employee submit to a lie detector test?

A

Employee polygraph protection act (1988)

80
Q

Per the EPPA, what kinds of companies can perform lie detector tests?

A

Security and drug manufacturers

81
Q

what is the primary use for medical records?

A

patient care

82
Q

What is the secondary purpose for medical records?

A

Evaluation of the medical care provided by the hospital

83
Q

What are the six areas of AAHA’s path to high quality care?

A

Heartworm testing and prevention
Dentals
Diets
Senior screenings
Core vaccines
Preanesthetic testing

84
Q

Term for: when symptoms indicate many possible causes but a diagnosis hasn’t been established

A

Differential diagnoses

85
Q

Term for: when an exact diagnosis is made

A

Definitive diagnosis

86
Q

Define: source oriented medical records

A

Record is sorted by source of info and then chronologically

87
Q

What type of medical record is organized by a chronological list of problems?

A

Problem oriented medical record

88
Q

What two governing bodies regulate adverse reactions?

A

FDA and EPA

89
Q

What are the four objectives of an inventory system?

A

Control inventory
Forecast inventory
Purchasing
Selling

90
Q

Term for: profit based management system that prioritizes inventory based on value and importance

A

Selective inventory control

91
Q

Formula for average inventory on hand =

A

Beginning inventory + ending inventory / 2

92
Q

Formula for inventory turnover ratio =

A

Total purchases during the year / average inventory on hand

93
Q

Formula for average shelf life of inventory in days =

A

365 / annual inventory turnover ratio

94
Q

Define: economic order quantity

A

Optimum order quantity, determined by the point at which Inventory ordering and holding cost are minimized

95
Q

Formula for: EOQ

A

Sqrt(2AF/HUc)

A = annual demand in units
F = fixed ordering costs incurred per order
H = holding costs on annual basis as percent of unit cost
Uc = unit cost

96
Q

Define: FOB shipping point vs FOB destination

A

FOB shipping point = title of inventory passes to practice at shipping dock

FOB destination = title passes when delivered to practice

97
Q

Define: markup vs margin pricing methods

A

Markup = multiple by a factor

Margin = add flat amount

98
Q

Formula for: sales price

A

SP = FC + VC + P

FC - fixed costs
VC - variable costs
P - profit

99
Q

Formula for: breakeven point

A

= FC + VC

FC - fixed costs
VC - variable costs

100
Q

Formula for: holding costs

A

= purchase price x 15-30%

101
Q

define: one-write systems

A

manual invoicing system that uses carbon copy paper to give one copy to the client and the other is transferred to the practice’s summary journal of sales

102
Q

Define: imprest

A

Cash kept in drawer at all times

103
Q

Define: imprest

A

Cash kept in drawer at all times

104
Q

Term for: all measures used by a business to ensure against errors, waste, and fraud; to assure the reliability of accounting data; and to promote compliance with all company policies

A

Internal controls

105
Q

The ___ demands stringent reporting before stock in a corporation can be publicly traded on a stock exchange.

A

Security and exchange commission

106
Q

What IRS publication serves as an information publication regarding state and local payroll tax laws?

A

Circular E

107
Q

What IRS form is the Employer’s Annual Federal Unemployment Tax Return?

A

Form 940

108
Q

What IRS form is the Employer’s quarterly Federal Tax Return?

A

Form 941

109
Q

What is the difference between a bookkeeper and accountant?

A

Bookkeeper inputs data, accountant interprets data

110
Q

Term for: clauses in a loan

A

Loan covenants

111
Q

What are the two methods a bookkeeper can use to establish a budget?

A

Top-down or bottom-up

112
Q

Define: top down budgeting approach

A

Desired gross income is projected

113
Q

Define: bottom up budget approach

A

Desired profitability is use to set the rest of the budget

114
Q

Name two major National payroll services

A

ADP and paychex

115
Q

What are the three levels of financial reports an account can run from least to most detailed?

A

Compilation, review, audit

116
Q

Define: assurance service

A

CPA attests to the reasonableness and accuracy of financial statements

Includes reviews and audits

117
Q

What three kinds of tax professionals can represent a hospital if being audited by the IRS?

A

CPA, attorney, enrolled agent

118
Q

Term for: organized listing of all income, expense, asset, liability, and equity categories

A

Chart of accounts

119
Q

Where are the monetary records of properties and services purchased by a hospital maintained?

A

Cost principle

120
Q

Define: International Financial Reporting Standards

A

IFRS
set of accounting standards developed by the International Accounting Standards Board

121
Q

Term for: financial claims to properties or assets

A

Equities

122
Q

What are the four types of financial statements used by businesses?

A

Balance sheet
Income statement
Cash flow statement
Statement of stockholder’s equity

123
Q

Which is more common: cash basis or accrual basis accounting?

A

Cash

124
Q

What is a benefit of cash based accounting?

A

Income is deferred and expenses are realized immediately, so net profit is lower = less taxes

125
Q

How can you get the best of both worlds between cash and accrual accounting?

A

Use cash basis for tax purposes and accrual basis for managerial purposes

126
Q

What are the stages of grief?

A

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance

127
Q

Term for: competitively promoting a product or service, typically through paid, public announcements by a business directed to clientele

A

Advertising

128
Q

Term for: all activities engaged in to build a brand and create awareness of services or goods

A

Marketing

129
Q

What are the four P’s of marketing?

A

Product
Place
Price
Promotion

130
Q

Compare indirect and direct marketing

A

Indirect = the image you put off

Direct = the promotion of products/services

131
Q

Compare internal and external marketing:

A

Internal = to existing clients

External = to new clients

132
Q

Term for: identifiable activities that provide buyer satisfaction

A

Services

133
Q

Term for: identification of a specific target group by specific characteristics

A

Segmentation

134
Q

Term for: an effort to direct promotional efforts toward one or more identifiable segments

A

Target marketing

135
Q

Term for: the total audience addressed by the message

A

Reach

136
Q

Term for the average number of times that the targeted audience is exposed to the message in a given period of time

A

Frequency

137
Q

Term for the use of consumer direct channels to reach and deliver goods and services to customers without using marketing middlemen, involves sending an offer announcement reminder or other item to a person

A

Direct response marketing

138
Q

What is an example of direct response marketing?

A

Snail mail, patient care reminders

139
Q

What are the three R’s of client retention?

A

Recall, reappointment, reminder

140
Q

What is the major objective of branding?

A

Differentiate from other practices

141
Q

Term for any activity initiated that is designed to create a positive image walk, communicating with present and potential clients

A

Public relations

cvpm exam by book (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions