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NASM CPT EXAM Prep > Practice Exam Questions > Flashcards

Practice Exam Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

When the body is trying to regulate its temperature correctly, which sensory receptors does it rely on?

a) Nociceptors
b) Thermoreceptors
c) Mechanoreceptors
d) Chemoreceptors

A

Thermoreceptors

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2
Q

What is the main characteristic of motor (efferent) neurons?

a) They are located within the spinal cord
b) They process information from the dendrite and send it along to the axon
c) They stimulate muscle contraction and create movement
d) They rely on sensory receptors to recognize environmental stimuli

A

They stimulate muscle contraction and create movement

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3
Q

Which of the following is not one of the 3 major muscle types in the Human Body?

a) Cardiac
b) Skeletal
c) Smooth
d) Striated

A

Striated

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4
Q

Within the muscle, where does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?

a) Within the capillaries
b) Within the mitochondria
c) Within the mechanoreceptors
d) Within the myogolbin

A

Within the capillaries

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5
Q

If there is not enough oxygen when sprinting of when first beginning to exercise, which of the following is created?

a) Pryuvate
b) Acetyl-CoA
c) Ketone bodies
d) Lactic Acid

A

Lactic Acid

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6
Q

Shoulder abduction is a result of the force-coupling between which muscles?

a) Pectoralis major and deltoid
b) Upper Trapezius and rotator cuff
c) Deltoid and rotator cuff
d) Upper trapezius and serratus anterior

A

Deltoid and Rotator Cuff

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7
Q

All of the following motions occur in the sagittal place except:

a) Side Bends
b) Triceps push-downs
c) Front Lunges
d) Biceps Curls

A

Side Bends

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8
Q

Which of the following initiates the electrical impulses that determine the heart rate?

a) Atrioventricular (AV) node
b) Atrioventricular bundle
c) Purkinje Fibers
d) Sinoatrial (SA) node

A

Sinoatrial (SA) Node

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9
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Type II (fast-twitch) muscle fibers?

a) Larger in size
b) Decreased oxygen delivery
c) Short-term contractions
d) Slow to fatigue

A

Slow to fatigue

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10
Q

During a bicep curl, the triceps brachii would be considered what type of mover?

a) Agonist
b) Antagonist
c) Synergist
d) Stabilizer

A

Antagonist

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11
Q

In upper crossed syndrome, all of the following are overactive muscles in the head and neck except?

a) Levator Scapulae
b) Upper trapezius
c) Sternocleidomastoid
d) Deep cervical flexors

A

Deep cervical flexors

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12
Q

What position does wearing shoes with a high heel put the ankle in?

a) a pronated postion
b) a dorsi flexed position
c) a plantar flexed position
d) a supinated position

A

A plantar flexed position

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13
Q

In what two ways should a fitness professional observe a client’s posture and alignment patterns?

a) Statically and dynamically
b) Seated and standing
c) Supine and prone
d) Anteriorly and posteriorly

A

Statically and dynamically

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14
Q

Which of the following is not a kinetic chain checkpoint term?

a) Knee
b) Foot
c) Core
d) Shoulders

A

Core

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15
Q

Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate for an obese individual?

a) YMCA 3-minute step test
b) Rockport walk test
c) Single-leg squat
d) 1 Rep Max test

A

Rockport walk test

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16
Q

Which of the following is considered a best practice for a personal trainer?

a) Provide rehabilitation services for a client
b) Prescribe a diet for a client
c) Screen a client for exercise limitations
d) Diagnose a medical condition for a client

A

Screen a client for exercise limitations

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17
Q

Which movement compensations might occur during an overhead squat assessment?

a) Knees moving outward
b) Head protruding forward
c) Shoulder elevation
d) Excessive forward lean

A

Excessive forward lean

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18
Q

What might upper extremity exercise result in for an individual with lung disease?

a) Decreased muscular performance
b) Onset of dyspnea earlier than usual
c) Hypertrophied neck muscles
d) Muscle wasting

A

Onset of dyspnea earlier than usual

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19
Q

All of the following are causes of restrictive lung disease except?

a) Asthma
b) Obesity
c) A neuromuscular disease d) Fractured ribs

A

Asthma

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20
Q

All of the following flexibility exercises are recommended for pregnant women except:

a) Active-isolated stretching
b) Self-myofascial release (SMR)
c) Dynamic stretching
d) Static stretching

A

Dynamic stretching

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21
Q

Which of the following populations should avoid the Valsalva maneuver?

a) Individuals with hypertension
b) Youth populations
c) Individuals w/ osteoporosis
d) Individuals w/ diabetes

A

Individuals with hypertension

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22
Q

What is autogenic inhibition?

a) A process where neural impulses recruit muscles to produce fore using mechanoreceptors
b) A process where inhibitory action to muscle fibers leads to excessive increases in muscle length
c) A process where tension impulses are greater than contraction impulses, leading to relaxation of the muscle
d) A process where proper muscle contraction is inhibited by excessive tightness of the muscle, leading to injury

A

A process where tension impulses are greater than contraction impulses, leading to relaxation of the muscle

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23
Q

Clients seeking strength gains should primary exercise in what cardiorespiratory zone?

a) Zone 3a
b) Zone 3
c) Zone 1
d) Zone 2

A

Zone 2

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24
Q

Which of the following is not a primary muscle of the global stabilization system?

a) Quadratus lumborum
b) Glutues Medius
c) Latissimus dorsi
d) Rectus abdominis

A

Latissimus dorsi

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25
Q

What makes “multi-planar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization” a balance-power exercise?

a) It utilizes multiple planes of motion and requires full range of motion
b) It requires stabilization in the jump from a platform down to the floor
c) It requires dynamic control in the mid-range of the motion, w/ multi-planar movement
d) It utilizes multiple planes of motions and requires force production followed by stabilization

A

It utilizes multiple planes of motion and requires force production followed by stabilization

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26
Q

What type of contraction do quick, powerful movements, such as those found during reactive training, involve first?

a) Eccentric contraction
b) Concentric contraction
c) Active-isolated contraction
d) Isometric contraction

A

Eccentric Contraction

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27
Q

According to the principle of adaptation which of the following is true?

a) Adaptation allows constant improvements to occur
b) Adaptation requires a constant change of technique
c) Adaptation manifests as primary goal of exercise programs
d) Adaptations involves the need for client education

A

Adaptation manifests as the primary goal as exercise programs

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28
Q

When using the light-to-heavy system training protocol, about how many sets are in an exercise?

a) 10-12 sets
b) 4-6 sets
c) 1-2 sets
d) 5-8 sets

A

4-6 sets

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29
Q

What is another term for the preparatory period in a traditional periodization model?

a) Proprioception
b) Inter-muscular coordination
c) Neuromuscular adaption
d) Anatomic Adaptation

A

Anatomic Adaptation

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30
Q

How many different core training movements should be used in each training session of Phases 1?

a) 1-4 core-stabilization
b) 1-2 core-power movements
c) 1-4 core-strength movements
d) 4-6 core-stabilization movements

A

1-4 core-stabilization movements

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31
Q

What is the repetition range in the stabilization endurance phases of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?

a) 15-25 repetitions
b) 8-12 repetitions
c) 12-15 repetitions
d) 12-20 repetitions

A

12-20 repetitions

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32
Q

Which type of resistance exercises are specific to Phases 2?

a) Supersets w/ stabilization
b) Supersets w/ power
c) Resistance band movements
d) Strength training w/ the barbell

A

Supersets w/ stabilization

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33
Q

What kind of flexibility work should be used in Phase 4?

a) SMR and static stretching w/ 1-3 sets of 1 repetition w/ 30-second hold
b) SMR and active flexibility w/ 1-2 sets of 5-10 repetitions w/ 1-2 second holds
c) SMR and dynamic flexibility w/ 1-2 sets of 10-15 repetitions, w/ controlled tempo

A

SMR and active flexibility w/ 1-2 sets of 5-10 repetitions w/ 1-2 second holds

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34
Q

Which of the following is an example of a multi-joint exercise in the stabilization level?

a) bench press
b) Standing overhead press
c) Two-arm medicine ball chest pass
d) Seated press machine

A

Standing Overhead Press

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35
Q

If an individual is performing self-myofascial release (SMR), what is the minimum amount of time to sustain pressure on a tender spot?

a) 30 seconds
b) 5 seconds
c) 10 seconds
d) 20 seconds

A

30 seconds

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36
Q

in pronation distortion syndrome, which of the following altered joint mechanics is present?

a) Increased knee adduction
b) Decreased foot pronation
c) Increased ankle dorsiflexion
d) Decreased knee internal rotation

A

Increased knee adduction

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37
Q

Which of the following is a concern during the ball crunch exercise?

a) Tucking the chin down toward the chest
b) Bracing the feet on the floor
c) Tilting the chin up toward the ceiling
d) Allowing the back to extend over the ball

A

Tilting the chin up toward the ceiling

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38
Q

All of the following are acute variables for balance-stabilization training except:

a) Number of sets
b) Tempo
c) Rest Frequency
d) Intensity

A

Intensity

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39
Q

Reactive training enhances all of the following neuromuscular responses except:

a) Motor unit synchronization
b) Motor unit requirement
c) Joint stability
d) Firing frequency

A

Joint Stability

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40
Q

Which of the following best describes quickness?

a) The ability to react w/ velocity to a stimulus and appropriately change of the motion of the body
b) The ability to produce quick, powerful movements involving an eccentric contraction immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction
c) The straight-ahead velocity of an individual
d) The ability to maintain a center of gravity over a changing base of support while changing direction at various speeds

A

The ability to react w/ velocity to a stimulus and appropriately change the motion of the body

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41
Q

Which of the following dictates the mechanical specificity of the training protocol for a client?

a) A client’s fitness goals and physical capabilities
b) A client’s metabolic function
c) A client’s ability to use the appropriate energy system
d) A client’s ability to recruit and synchronize motor units for firing

A

A client’s fitness goals and physical capabilities

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42
Q

Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise?

a) Bench press
b) Push-up
c) Machine leg extension
d) Lat pull-down

A

Push-up

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43
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of strength machines?

a) They improve athletic performance
b) Many of them move in one plane of motion
c) They challenge the core stabilization system
d) They provide various intensities in one weight stack

A

They provide various intensities in one weight stack

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44
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of using free weights?

a) They provide extra support for special-needs clients
b) They require multiple dumbbells or barbells to change intensity
c) They allow clients to move in multiple planes of motion
d) They may be less intimidating for some clients

A

They allow clients to move in multiple planes of motion

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45
Q

Which of the following is the correct name of the training system in which an individual performs one set of each exercise?

a) Single-set system
b) Maximal-se system
c) Single working set
d) Single-exercise system

A

Single-set system

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46
Q

Balance is influenced by all of the following factors except:

a) Injury
b) Inactivity
c) Age
d) Weight

A

Weight

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47
Q

Which of the following is a total body stabilization exercise?

a) Squat, curl, to two-arm press
b) Lunge to two-arm dumbbell press
c) Ball Squat, curl to press
d) Barbell clean

A

Ball Squat, curl to press

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48
Q

Which of the following best describes instrumental support?

a) the support expressed through encouragement, caring empathy, and concern
b) Individuals or groups that remove tangible barriers to exercise with the client
c) The availability of family, friends and coworkers to exercise w/ the client
d) The support that includes directions, advice, or suggestions given to clients about how exercise

A

Individuals or groups that remove tangible barriers to exercise, such as transportation

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49
Q

Why is it important to review previous exercise experience w/ clients?

a) It helps the trainer identify the client’s weaknesses
b) It helps the trainer predict how successful the client will be
c) It helps the trainer identify successful approaches to exercise
d) It helps the trainer identify poor form learned from previous training

A

It helps the trainer predict how successful the client will be

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50
Q

How does exercise promote a positive mood?

a) Exercise brings out the best in people
b) Exercise can create happiness
c) Exercise can trigger endorphin release
d) Exercise creates positive thoughts

A

Exercise can trigger endorphin release

51
Q

Which of the following is an example of emotional support?

a) Having a friend work out with a client
b) Praising a client for showing up and working hard
c) Giving the clients feedback on their progress
d) Having a spotter at the gym

A

Praising a client for showing up and working hard

52
Q

In which stage of the stages of change model would it be beneficial for a client to build a social support network?

a) preparation
b) contemplation
c) maintenance
d) action

A

Preparation

53
Q

If a client states that they want to win a step competition among their peer group, what type of goal is that?

a) Subjective goal
b) Process goal
c) Objective goal
d) Product goal

A

Product Goal

54
Q

Which is the primary reason that certification is an important component of becoming a personal trainer?

a) A certification indicates knowledge of proper assessment and instruction for sage and effective workouts
b) It is important to most potential employers that a trainer have a certification
c) A certification is required for reputability and highly desired by potential clients
d) A personal trainer is required to have a certification

A

A certification indicate knowledge of proper assessment and instruction for safe and effective workouts

55
Q

Which of the following marketing P’s refers to the communication information about a product or service?

a) Place
b) Price
c) Promotion
d) Product

A

Promotion

56
Q

Which of the following is a major reason why a sale does not close?

a) the trainer’s personality did not mesh well with the client’s
b) the Potential client was not seriously considering training
c) the potential client was not able to express their goals
d) the product/service did not have enough value

A

The product/service did not have enough value

57
Q

Why is an accredited certification the ideal education option for an aspiring fitness professional?

a) Accreditation is the pathway toward a degree in exercise science or physical education
b) Third party accreditation is the best way to ensure that the training is of good quality
c) Certification w/ accreditation from a third party is required by most gyms and health clubs
d) Only the most experienced trainers have certification w/ accreditation from a third party

A

Certification w/ accreditation from a third party is required by most gyms and health clubs

58
Q

If emotions such as anxiety or depression become debilitating to a client, what should the fitness professional do?

a) Refer the client to a licensed psychologist or healthcare professional
b) Call a friend or family member to alert them of what is going on
c) Meet outside of their training sessions to provide social support
d) Suggest the client keep a journal to track their feelings

A

Refer the client to a licensed psychologists or healthcare professional

59
Q

The blood vessels that collect blood from capillaries to merge w/ veins and begin the transport of blood back to the heart are known as?

a) Venules
b) Veins
c) Arteries
d) Arterioles

A

Venules

60
Q

The layer of connective tissue that surrounds muscle belly and is considered the most superficial is the:

a) Epineurium
b) Muscle lining
c) Endomysium
d) Epimysium

A

Epimysium

61
Q

When training a brand new client that is out of shape, what should be the main goal?

a) Improving Coordination
b) Muscle fiber recruitment
c) Hypertrophy
d) Rate of Force Production

A

Improving Coordination

62
Q

Stabilization Endurance Training strives to improve?

a) Total volume of work
b) Rate of force production and power
c) Rate coding
d) Muscular endurance

A

Muscular Endurance

63
Q

The ability to analyze and interpret the sensory information to a proper motor response would be a function of which of the following?

a) Sensory nervous system
b) Integrative nervous system
c) Motor nervous system
d) Motor cortex

A

Integrative Nervous System

64
Q

According to the OPT Model, Strength is made up of which of the following three phases?
a) Power Training, Strength Endurance Training, Hypertrophy Training.
b) MST, Hypertrophy, Power Training Stabilization Strength Training, Strength Endurance Training, Power
Endurance Training.
c) Strength Endurance, Hypertrophy, and MST

A

Strength Endurance, Hypertrophy, and MST

65
Q

The Shoulder is considered to be what type of joint?

a) Ball and Socket
b) Condyloid
c) Pivot
d) Nonsynovial

A

Ball and Socket

66
Q

Which of the following type of blood pressure would be determined by the contraction of the ventricles forcing blood into the pulmonary and systemic circuits?

a) Atrial systole
b) Ventricular Diastole
c) Systolic blood pressure
d) Diastolic blood pressure

A

Diastolic Blood Pressure

67
Q

At what measurement is a cholesterol reading considered high?

a) >200mg/dl
b) <180mg/dl
c) <200mg/dl
d) >180mg/dl

A

> 200mg/dl

68
Q

The Stabilization Level of training would be MOST represented by the following?

a) Intermuscular coordination
b) Explosiveness
c) Building muscle
d) Intramuscular coordination

A

Intramuscular Coordination

69
Q

Vessels that move blood away from the heart to the rest of the body are known as:

a) Capillaries
b) Arteries
c) Veins
d) Atria

A

Arteries

70
Q

Which of the following is considered an organelle within a human cell?

a) Lysosomes, Ribosomes, Endoplasmic Reticulum
b) Neurons, Cell Wall
c) Interstitial Fluid, Mucus Neurolemma, Schwann Cells
d) Sarcolemma

A

Lysosomes, Ribosomes, Endoplasmic Reticulum

71
Q

One of the muscles below is considered a stabilizer when performing a bosu ball push. What is the correct answer?

a) Teres Minor
b) Triceps Brachii
c) Biceps Branchii
d) Pec Major

A

Teres Major

72
Q

Where and how should heart rate be measured on a client?

a) Femoral pulse w/ palm
b) Carotid pulse w/ two fingers
c) Radial pulse w/ two fingers
d) Ulnar pulse w/ thumb

A

Radial pulse w/ two fingers

73
Q

Which phase supersets a barbell squat with a lunge jump?

a) Maximal Endurance Training
b) Hypertrophy Training
c) Power Training
d) Balance Training

A

Power Training

74
Q

The Elbow would be considered which type of joint?

a) Spinning Joint
b) Gliding Joint
c) Hinge Joint
d) Rolling Joint

A

Hinge Joint

75
Q

The term that best describes the heart rate in beats per minute multiplied by the amount of blood pumped per beat:

a) Systolic Blood Pressure
b) Diastolic Blood Pressure
c) Cardiac Output
d) Stroke Volume

A

Cardiac Output

76
Q

What muscle is considered an agonist during shoulder external rotation?

a) Rhomboids
b) Teres Major
c) Teres Minor
d) Supraspinatus

A

Teres Minor

77
Q 
When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; what is this an example of?
Select one:
a. Synergistic dominance 
b. Autogenic inhibition
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition
d. Relative flexibility
A

Altered Reciprocal Inhibition

78
Q 
A client runs a mile in 6 min and 30 seconds. Which of the following energy systems is the client primarily using to produce energy?
Select one:
a. Anaerobic glycolysis
b. ATP-PC
c. Oxidative
d. Phosphagen
A

Oxidative

79
Q 
Resting oxygen consumption is approximately how many mL of oxygen per kilogram body weight per minute?
Select one:
a. 35.0 mL
b. 350 mL
c. 3.5 mL
d. 0.35 mL
A

3.5 mL

80
Q 
Decreased levels of thyroid hormones tend to cause a decrease in which of the following?
Select one:
a. Resting heart rate
b. Diastolic blood pressure
c. Resting metabolic rate
d. Systolic blood pressure
A

Resting Metabolic Rate

81
Q

Which of the following is true of type I, or slow-twitch, muscle fibers?
Select one:
a. They are faster than type II muscle fibers to produce maximal tension.
b. They have a low oxidative capacity and fatigue quickly.
c. They contain more capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin than type II muscle fibers.
d. They are larger in size than type II muscle fibers and are referred to as white fibers

A

They contain more capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin than type II muscle fibers.

82
Q

Which of the following physiological characteristics should a personal trainer be aware of when working with a senior client?
Select one:
a. Decreased lean body mass
b. Increased connective tissue elasticity
c. Decreased risk of arteriosclerosis
d. Decreased blood pressure

A

Decreased lean body mass

83
Q 
Which of the following glands releases growth hormone during childhood up until puberty?
Select one:
a. Thyroid gland
b. Holocrine gland
c. Adrenal gland
d. Pituitary gland
A

Pituitary Gland

84
Q

What is the likely cause of an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Overactive erector spinae and hip extensor complex
b. Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus
c. Overactive adductors complex and biceps femoris (short head)
d. Overactive latissimus dorsi and teres major

A

Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus

85
Q 
During a pushing and pulling assessment, the personal trainer notices that a client demonstrates shoulder elevation. Which of the following muscles are most likely overactive?
Select one:
a. Deep cervical flexors
b. Intrinsic core stabilizers
c. Levator scapulae
d. Mid and lower trapezius
A

Levator Scapulae

86
Q 
What measurement needs to be taken prior to the start of the Rockport walk test?
Select one:
a. Height
b. Heart rate
c. Weight
d. Body fat
A

Weight

87
Q 
Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility?
Select one:
a. 40-yard dash
b. Gait assessment
c. Pro shuttle test
d. L.E.F.T. test
A

Pro shuttle test

88
Q 
During a single-leg squat assessment, the client’s standing leg caves inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?
Select one:
a. Adductor complex
b. Vastus lateralis
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Gluteus medius
A

Gluteus Medius

89
Q 
During a pushing assessment your client's shoulders elevate, which of the following muscles would most likely be underactive?
Select one:
a. Upper trapezius
b. Levator scapulae
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Mid and lower trapezius
A

Mid and Lower Trapezius

90
Q 
A client performs two repetitions of a bench press exercise with 130 lb and gradually decreases the resistance with each set until he performs 10 repetitions with 100 lb on the last set. Which of the following resistance training systems is the client using?
Select one:
a. Drop-set system
b. Peripheral heart action system
c. Pyramid system
d. Split-routine system
A

Pyramid system

91
Q 
When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per resistance training exercise should be performed?
Select one:
a. 6-10
b. 1-5
c. 8-12
d. 4-8
A

1-5

92
Q 
What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?
Select one:
a. Static stretching
b. Elastic stretching
c. Ballistic stretching
d. Active stretching
A

Static Stretching

93
Q

Ryan is performing static stretching on a client’s calves after an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is most likely to have prompted him to perform this procedure?
Select one:
a. The client’s feet had turned out.
b. The client’s knees bowed out.
c. The client had an anterior pelvic tilt.
d. The client had a posterior pelvic tilt.

A

The client’s feet had turned out

94
Q 
Performing resistance training exercises in a circuit fashion in order to burn more calories is an example of which of the following principles of specificity?
Select one:
a. Mechanical
b. Neuromuscular
c. Metabolic
d. Overload
A

Metabolic

95
Q 
Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to lift one leg directly beside the balance leg and then bend from waist to slowly reach hand toward the toes of the balance leg?
Select one:
a. Single-leg balance reach
b. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
c. Single-leg squat touchdown
d. Single-leg squat
A

Single-leg Romanian Deadlift

96
Q 
What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of?
Select one:
a. Balance-stabilization exercise
b. Balance-modification exercise
c. Balance-strength exercise
d. Balance-power exercise
A

Balance-Power exercise

97
Q 
When training a client in the Stabilization Level, what is the proper immediate progression for a ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Move to a bench
b. Alternating arm
c. Increase the weight
d. Single-arm
A

Alternating Arm

98
Q

Which of the following is a movement involved in the single-leg squat assessment?
Select one:
a. Push through both heels and stand upright, balancing on one leg.
b. Slowly squat as if sitting in a chair, reaching hand opposite of balance leg toward foot.
c. Bend from the waist and slowly reach hand down toward the toes of the balance leg.
d. Squat as if sitting in a chair, flexing at hips, knees, and ankles and lower to first point of compensation.

A

Squat as if sitting in a chair, flexing at hips, knees, and ankles and lower to first point of compensation.

99
Q

What exercise is considered a total-body Strength Level exercise?
Select one:
a. Squat, curl, to two-arm press
b. Kettlebell hang clean and jerk
c. Barbell clean
d. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press

A

Squat, curl, to two-arm press

100
Q 
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?
Select one:
a. Standing cable row Incorrect
b. Standing triceps extension
c. Standing cable chest press
d. Standing cable crunch
A

Standing cable chest press

101
Q 
Which of the following is a technique that expresses the purported meaning of what was just heard?
Select one:
a. Remodeling
b. Active listening
c. Reflecting
d. Asking questions
A

Reflecting

102
Q 
What is a primary cause of musculoskeletal degeneration in the adult population?
Select one:
a. Low-back pain
b. High blood sugar level
c. Spina bifida
d. Vitamin K deficiency
A

Low-back pain

103
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a sagittal plane movement?
Select one:
a. Horizontal adduction of limbs
b. Internal rotation of limbs
c. Side lunges
d. Triceps pushdown
A

Triceps Pushdown

104
Q 
What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation?
Select one:
a. Gluteus minimus
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Psoas major
A

Gluteus Maximus

105
Q

According to sliding filament theory, when does muscular contracting occur?
Select one:
a. Actin and myosin filaments slide away from each other, lengthening the sarcomere.
b. Actin and myosin filiments slide past each other, shortening the entire sarcomere.
c. The distance from Z line to Z line is increased.
d. Myofibrils are lengthened

A

Actin and myosin filaments slide past each other, shortening the entire sarcomere.

106
Q 
After leaving the left ventricle, blood enters which structure?
Select one:
a. Aorta
b. Pulmonary artery
c. Superior vena cava
d. Inferior vena cava
A

Aorta

107
Q

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.
b. Focus on resistance training so leg pain will not limit exercise.
c. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
d. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching.

A

Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily

108
Q 
Which of the following is a characteristic of lower crossed syndrome?
Select one:
a. Forward head and rounded shoulders
b. Flat feet and knock knees
c. Anterior tilt to the pelvis
d. Hyperextension of the hips and knees
A

Anterior tilt to the pelvis

109
Q 
A client's shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?
Select one:
a. Levator scapulae
b. Upper trapezius
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Lower trapezius
A

Lower Trapezius

110
Q

Acute variables determine which of the following?
Select one:
a. Progression of the exercise
b. Proper kinetic chain alignment
c. What type of workout is being done
d. The amount of stress placed on the body

A

The amount of stress placed on the body

111
Q 
High-volume training with low intensity increases which of the following?
Select one:
a. Motor unit synchronization
b. Rate of force production
c. Motor unit recruitment 
d. Metabolic rate
A

Metabolic Rate

112
Q

A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively while performing an overhead squat. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?
Select one:
a. Anterior tibialis, gracilis, and sartorius
b. Medial hamstrings, hip extensor complex, and erector spinae
c. Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, and erector spinae
d. Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex

A

Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex

113
Q 
How many weeks should a client spend during the Stabilization Phase of core training?
Select one:
a. 9
b. 8
c. 10
d. 4
A

4

114
Q 
Which of the following training types involves little motion through the spine and pelvis?
Select one:
a. Core-reactive
b. Core-power
c. Core-strength
d. Core-stabilization
A

Core-Stabilization

115
Q 
What is a single-leg balance an example of?
Select one:
a. Balance-strength exercise
b. Balance-modification exercise
c. Balance-power exercise
d. Balance-stabilization exercise
A

Balance-Stabilization exercise

116
Q 
What is a client's strongest source of self-confidence?
Select one:
a. Imagery
b. Modeling
c. Performance accomplishments
d. Verbal persuasion
A

Performance Accomplishments

117
Q 
A client who suffers from a chronic disease decides he no longer wants to participate in personal training sessions, based on the advice of his spouse. This is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Action stage
b. Remodeling
c. Diffusion
d. Behavioral reactants
A

Behavioral Reactants

118
Q 
A client is looking for a simple way to make bodyweight exercises more proprioceptively challenging. Which of the following modalities would be most appropriate for this?
Select one:
a. Resistance machine
b. Barbells
c. Smith machine
d. Suspension trainer
A

Suspension Trainer

119
Q 
During a static postural assessment, a client displays an anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscle is likely to be shortened?
Select one:
a. Hamstring complex
b. Internal oblique
c. Hip flexor complex
d. Transverse abdominis
A

Hip Flexor Complex

120
Q 
A client finishes four weeks of a Phase 4 OPT program. Which of the following adaptations is most likely to occur?
Select one:
a. Increased aerobic capacity
b. Increased maximal strength
c. Increased muscular endurance
d. Increased V02 max
A

Increased maximal strength

121
Q 
Which of the following is within the recommended set range for a resistance training exercise when working in the Power Phase?
Select one:
a. 2
b. 1
c. 3
d. 0
A

3

122
Q 
When assessing a client's overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius?
Select one:
a. Knees move inward
b. External rotation of the feet
c. Arms fall forward
d. Low back arch
A

External rotation of the feet

123
Q 
If a client’s feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?
Select one:
a. TFL
b. Biceps femoris (short head)
c. Medial gastrocnemius
d. Soleus
A

Medial gastrocnemius

124
Q

Which of the following best allows a certified personal trainer to comply with the NASM Code of Professional Conduct?
Select one:
a. Provide detailed menu plans for clients.
b. Provide nutritional supplementation to treat illness.
c. Maintain adequate liability insurance.
d. Diagnose an injury after an assessment.

A

Maintain adequate liability insurance.

NASM CPT EXAM Prep (7 decks)

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