NASM CPT STUDY EXAM

Question 1

For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which of the following methods to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Age predicted maximum heart rate
b. Karvonen formula
c. Heart rate response
d. Heart rate reserve

Answer 1

Heart Rate Response

Question 2

Based on the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, which of the following is the recommended weekly amount of time for moderate-intensity aerobic activity?
Select one:
a. 75 minutes
b. 90 minutes
c. 120 minutes
d. 150 minutes

Answer 2

150 minutes

Question 3

Which of the following statements is true concerning client goal setting?
Select one:
a. Clients who are certain about what they want to accomplish are less likely to successfully make life changes.
b. A long-term goal keeps the client motivated for a longer period of time.
c. Setting achievable goals at the lower end of a client’s ability will build more confidence when accomplished.
d. Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions.

Answer 3

Goals shoyuld be consistent w/ a client’s own ideals and ambitions

Question 4

The client is ready to progress from Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance to Phase 2. Which of the following best describes the resistance training portion of her new Strength Endurance workout?
Select one:
a. Stabilization exercises with strength supersets
b. Strength with power supersets
c. Power exercises with strength supersets
d. Strength exercises with stabilization supersets

Answer 4

Strength exercises w/ stabilization supersets

Question 5

During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?
Select one:
a. Bicep femoris
b. Piriformis
c. Transverse abdominus
d. Latissimus dorsi

Answer 5

Latissimus Dorsi

Question 6

During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client's feet turn out. Which of the following stretches should be used to lengthen the overactive muscles?
Select one:
a. Kneeling hip flexor
b. Standing calf
c. Standing adductor
d. Standing quadriceps

Answer 6

Standing Calf

Question 7

Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Flexion
b. Abduction
c. Extension
d. External rotation

Answer 7

Abduction

Question 8

A client’s maximum heart rate must be established prior to administering the YMCA 3 minute step test. This is achieved by:
Select one:
a. subtracting the client’s age from 220
b. subtracting the client’s resting heart rate from 220
c. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then subtracting the client’s resting heart rate
d. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then multiplying by 60-90%

Answer 8

Subtracting the client’s age from 220

Question 9

A slow and controlled dumbbell chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity?
Select one:
a. Mechanical
b. Balance
c. Metabolic
d. Neuromuscular

Answer 9

Neuromuscular

Question 10

Muscle imbalances can be caused by lack of core strength and poor training techniques. Which concept causes the biceps femoris and piriformis to compensate in a squatting movement?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

Answer 10

Synergistic Dominance

Question 11

Which of the following is most useful for assessing an athlete's lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test
b. Davies test
c. Rockport walk test
d. Overhead squat assessment

Answer 11

Shark Skill Test

Question 12

Which of the following is a primary focus of stabilization training?
Select one:
a. Increased lean body mass
b. Enhanced control of posture
c. Improved peak force
d. Improved prime mover strength

Answer 12

Enhanced Control of Posture

Question 13

In the Maximal Strength Training (MST) phase, what should be the primary emphasis in the client’s program?
Select one:
a. Powerful movements
b. Joint stabilization
c. Increasing hypertrophy
d. Increasing load

Answer 13

Increasing Load

Question 14

A client's shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles may be underactive?
Select one:
a. Levator scapulae
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Mid and lower trapezius

Answer 14

Mid and Lower Trapezius

Question 15

Which of the following muscles is the synergist when a client is performing a chest press?
Select one:
a. Anterior deltoid
b. Rotator cuff
c. Pectoralis major
d. Levator scapulae

Answer 15

Anterior Deltoid

Question 16

The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is:
Select one:
a. power.
b. speed.
c. quickness.
d. agility.

Answer 16

Quickness

Question 17

When performing a \_\_\_\_\_, the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension.
Select one:
a. standing triceps extension
b. biceps curl
c. standing cable row
d. dumbbell chest press

Answer 17

Standing Triceps Extension

Question 18

The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because:
Select one:
a. it increases muscle spindle activity.
b. it results in reciprocal inhibition.
c. it allows muscle fibers to contract.
d. it allows lengthening of the muscle.

Answer 18

It allows lengthening of the muscle

Question 19

Under the supervision of which of the following professionals is it appropriate for an adult client to follow an 800-1000 calorie diet?
Select one:
a. Certified Personal Trainer
b. Medical physician
c. Nutritionist
d. Performance Enhancement Specialist

Answer 19

Medical Physician

Question 20

Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar step-up to balance
b. Single-leg squat
c. Single-leg dead lift
d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up

Answer 20

Multiplanar dumbbell step-up

Question 21

Which of the following is the proper lower extremity position when performing a ball squat?
Select one:
a. Knee over second toe
b. Adduction of the hip
c. Pronation of the foot
d. Internal rotation of the hip

Answer 21

Knee over second toe

Question 22

During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down?
Select one:
a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Small intestines
d. Esophagus

Answer 22

Stomach

Question 23

Which of the following describes the importance of active listening when engaging with a client?
Select one:
a. Providing the client with the right information.
b. Requiring the client to pay attention.
c. Convincing the client to do something.
d. Seeking a client’s perspective.

Answer 23

Seeking a client’s perspective

Question 24

An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of:
Select one:
a. autogenic inhibition.
b. reciprocal inhibition.
c. altered reciprocal inhibition.
d. synergistic dominance.

Answer 24

Reciprocal Inhibition

Question 25

In the Stabilization Endurance Phase, exercises should be performed with which of the following types of intensity?
Select one:
a. High
b. Low
c. Maximal
d. Moderate

Answer 25

Low

Question 26

The principle that states the body will adapt to the demands that are placed upon it is called the Principle of
Select one:
a. Periodization.
b. Efficiency.
c. Overload.
d. Specificity.

Answer 26

Specificity

Question 27

Which of the following is a Power Level balance exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Single-leg throw and catch
c. Single-leg internal and external rotation
d. Single-leg squat touchdown

Answer 27

Single-leg hop-up w/ stabilization

Question 28

Which of the following should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain?
Select one:
a. Limit complex carbohydrate intake to prevent weight gain.
b. Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain.
c. Increase fat intake to offset a decrease in carbohydrates.
d. Increase intake of high glycemic foods.

Answer 28

Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain

Question 29

When a client performs reactive exercises in the Stabilization Level of training, they should hold the landing position for how many seconds before repeating the movement?
Select one:
a. 1 to 2 seconds
b. 3 to 5 seconds
c. 6 to 7 seconds
d. 8 to 10 seconds

Answer 29

3 to 5 seconds

Question 30

Which of the following vitamins and minerals are known to have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc
b. Vitamin B, vitamin C, folic acid, and biotin
c. Beta-Carotene, vitamin E, vitamin K, and niacin
d. Iodine, magnesium, copper, and fluoride

Answer 30

Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc

Question 31

Which of the following movement dysfunctions will create abnormal stress throughout the kinetic chain?
Select one:
a. Over-pronation of the foot
b. Neutrality of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
c. Patella tracking parallel with the foot
d. Neutrality of the scapulae

Answer 31

Over-pronation of the foot

Question 32

Which of the following is contraindicated when training a client who is pregnant?
Select one:
a. Fitness assessments should be performed using seated or standing exercises.
b. Stabilization Endurance training should be used during the second and third trimesters
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.
d. Plyometric training may be done in the first trimester.

Answer 32

Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester

Question 33

When performing a \_\_\_\_\_, the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction.
Select one:
a. standing triceps extension
b. biceps curl
c. standing cable row
d. dumbbell chest press

Answer 33

Standing cable row

Question 34

Based on Overhead Squat Assessment findings, if a client exhibits knees moving inward, which flexibility exercise is recommended?
Select one:
a. Abductor static stretch
b. Adductor static stretch
c. Piriformis foam roller
d. Psoas foam roller

Answer 34

Adductor static stretch

Question 35

A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat on an Airex pad
b. Two-leg squat on floor
c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc
d. Single-leg squat on a Dyna disc

Answer 35

Two-leg squat on Dyna disc

Question 36

Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base?
Select one:
a. 9 to 11
b. 12 to 13
c. 14 to 16
d. 17 to 19

Answer 36

12 to 13

Question 37

Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?
Select one:
a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions.
b. Your client fails after 1 repetition.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten.

Answer 37

Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions

Question 38

Which of the following contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low carbohydrate diet?
Select one:
a. Increase in waste excretion
b. Loss of body fat
c. Increase in metabolism
d. Loss of water

Answer 38

Loss of water

Question 39

Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression?
Select one:
a. 10 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 30 seconds

Answer 39

20 seconds

Question 40

Which of the following is the correct repetition range and tempo for the Stabilization, Strength, and Power Phases of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. 12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
b. 12-20/Moderate, 1-10/Explosive, 1-12/Slow
c. 1-10/Slow, 12-20/Moderate, 1-12/Explosive
d. 1-10/Moderate,12-20/Slow, 1-12/Explosive

Answer 40

12-20/Slow, 1-12/Moderate, 1-10/Explosive

Question 41

Which scenario is a component of the sliding filament theory?
Select one:
a. The result of two Z lines moving closer together.
b. The result of ATP production through aerobic respiration.
c. The pancreas releases glucagon into the bloodstream.
d. The pancreas releases insulin into the bloodstream.

Answer 41

The result of two Z lines moving closer together

Question 42

Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Psoas
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Gluteus maximus

Answer 42

Gluteus Maximus

Question 43

How many times the heart beats per minute and how much blood is being pumped with each beat is known as:
Select one:
a. Stroke volume
b. Heart rate
c. Cardiac output
d. Expiration

Answer 43

Cardiac Output

Question 44

Which of the following muscles is underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat?
Select one:
a. Levator scapulae
b. Rhomboids
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Upper trapezius

Answer 44

Rhomboids

Question 45

Which of the following is the system activated at the onset of any activity, regardless of intensity?
Select one:
a. EPOC
b. ATP-PC
c. Oxidative
d. Glycolysis

Answer 45

ATP-PC

Question 46

When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due to tightness in the lateral gastrocnemius is:
Select one:
a. the knees moving inward.
b. external rotation of the feet.
c. excessive forward lean.
d. low back arches.

Answer 46

External Rotation of the feet

Question 47

Which of the following is a category of subjective information?
Select one:
a. Body composition
b. Cardiorespiratory assessment
c. Medical background
d. Performance assessment

Answer 47

Medical Background

Question 48

If a client’s knee moves inward while performing the Single-leg Squat test, this is an indication that which of the following muscles is overactive?
Select one:
a. Adductor longus
b. Vastus medialis oblique
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Piriformis

Answer 48

Adductor Longus

Question 49

Which of the following is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy?
Select one:
a. 1 to 2
b. 2 to 4
c. 4 to 6
d. 6 to 10

Answer 49

2 to 4

Question 50

Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?
Select one:
a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate
b. 40 to 50% of their maximum heart rate
c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate
d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate

Answer 50

60% to 70% of their maximum heart rate

Question 51

How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?
Select one:
a. 6 to 12 ounces
b. 16 to 24 ounces
c. 24 to 32 ounces
d. 32 to 48 ounces

Answer 51

16 to 24 ounces

Question 52

Which of the following is the innermost layer of muscular connective tissue?
Select one:
a. Fasciculus
b. Endomysium
c. Perimysium
d. Epimysium

Answer 52

Endomysium

Question 53

Feedback regarding personal history such as sport, lifestyle, and past medical history would be best described as:
Select one:
a. objective information.
b. subjective information.
c. movement assessment.
d. fitness assessment.

Answer 53

Subjective

Question 54

If a client demonstrates shoulder elevation while performing a cable row exercise, which of the following muscles is considered overactive?
Select one:
a. Rhomboids
b. Mid/lower trapezius
c. Levator scapulae
d. Erector spinae

Answer 54

Levator Scapulae

Question 55

Which of the following should a trainer consider when designing a resistance training program for seniors?
Select one:
a. Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.
b. Phase 1 of the OPT model should be used for 4 weeks before moving to Phases 2 through 5.
c. Phase 5 of the OPT model is contraindicated for senior clients due to increased safety considerations.
d. Training frequencies should start at 4 to 5 times per week.

Answer 55

Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.

Question 56

Muscle imbalances can be caused by lack of core strength and poor training techniques. Which concept causes the biceps femoris and piriformis to compensate in a squatting movement?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

Answer 56

Synergistic Dominance

Question 57

Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Postural
b. Structural
c. Functional
d. Neuromuscular

Answer 57

Functional

Question 58

A client who has an increased functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is in which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
a. Resistance development
b. Alarm reaction
c. Exhaustion
d. Periodization

Answer 58

Resistance Development

Question 59

What is a high-protein diet commonly associated with?
Select one:
a. A decrease in urea production
b. A decreased risk of dehydration
c. A decrease in glycogen stores
d. An increase in fiber intake

Answer 59

a decrease in glycogen stores

Question 60

Which of the following is the hip joint inferior to?
Select one:
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Knee
c. Shoulder
d. Hamstrings

Answer 60

Shoulder

Question 61

Maintenance of which of the following is an integrated process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency using visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive inputs?
Select one:
a. Mechanical equilibrium
b. Static equilibrium
c. Postural equilibrium
d. Dynamic equilibrium

Answer 61

Postural Equilibrium

Question 62

A personal trainer is advising a client on caloric distribution. Which of the following falls within the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for protein?
Select one:
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 30%
d. 40%

Answer 62

30%

Question 63

Which of the following refers to a straightening movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases?
Select one:
a. Extension
b. Flexion Incorrect
c. Inversion
d. Adduction

Answer 63

Extension

Question 64

Dysfunctional breathing results in an increase in the activity level of which of the following secondary respiratory muscles?
Select one:
a. Scalenes
b. Internal oblique
c. Diaphragm
d. Rectus abdominis

Answer 64

Scalenes

Question 65

Decreased levels of thyroid hormones tend to cause a decrease in which of the following?
Select one:
a. Diastolic blood pressure
b. Systolic blood pressure
c. Resting heart rate
d. Resting metabolic rate

Answer 65

Resting metabolic rate

Question 66

Which of the following refers to a position on or toward the front of the body?
Select one:
a. Superior
b. Lateral
c. Medial
d. Anterior

Answer 66

Anterior

Question 67

During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?
Select one:
a. Abdominals
b. Gluteals
c. Hamstrings
d. Quadriceps

Answer 67

Quadriceps

Question 68

Which of the following is the method used to estimate the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin?
Select one:
a. Body weight measurement
b. Body mass index Incorrect
c. Skinfold measurement
d. Circumference measurement

Answer 68

Skinfold measurement

Question 69

A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Dynamic
b. Corrective
c. Active
d. Functional

Answer 69

Active

Question 70

Which of the following describes a mesocycle?
Select one:
a. Annual training plan
b. Weekly training plan
c. Daily training plan
d. Monthly training plan

Answer 70

Monthly training plan

Question 71

In order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae (TFL) while standing, a client's back leg should be in which of the following positions?
Select one:
a. Externally rotated
b. Internally rotated
c. Abducted 90°
d. Adducted 90

Answer 71

Externally rotated

Question 72

What is the proper balance progression to increase a client’s proprioception?
Select one:
a. Single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, one-leg unstable
b. Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable
c. Two-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg stable, single-leg unstable
d. Single-leg stable, two-leg stable, one-leg unstable, two-leg unstable

Answer 72

Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable

Question 73

Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?
Select one:
a. Standing triceps extension
b. Standing cable chest press
c. Standing cable row
d. Standing cable crunch

Answer 73

Standing cable chest press

Question 74

What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of?
Select one:
a. Balance-strength exercise
b. Balance-power exercise
c. Balance-stabilization exercise
d. Balance-modification exercise

Answer 74

Balance-Power

Question 75

Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question?
Select one:
a. “If someone told you all your goals were at the top of a mountain, would you climb that mountain to reach them?”
b. “What are your top three fitness goals?”
c. “Did you play sports in high school?”
d. “Is there an athlete or celebrity whose body you would like to have?”

Answer 75

What are your top three fitness goals?

Question 76

Which of the following is a process created to produce internalized experiences to support exercise participation?
Select one:
a. Positive self-talk
b. Exercise imagery
c. Psyching up
d. Self-monitoring

Answer 76

Exercise imagery

Question 77

Jennifer is concerned about staying motivated in her fitness program. What will provide her emotional support to remain motivated?
Select one:
a. Providing her transportation to the fitness facility.
b. Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout.
c. Training with family, friends, and coworkers.
d. Educating her on the benefits of different exercises.

Answer 77

Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout.

Question 78

An individual exercises regularly, but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this individual?
Select one:
a. Maintenance
b. Preparation
c. Action
d. Contemplation

Answer 78

Action

Question 79

A father decides that there is too much injury risk for his overweight son to partake in personal training. This is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Contemplation
b. Affirmations
c. Diffusion Incorrect
d. Behavioral reactants

Answer 79

Behavioral reactants

Question 80

Which gland produces the hormones (epinephrine and norepinephrine) that help prepares the body for activity and for the fight or flight response?
Select one:
a. Pituitary
b. Apocrine
c. Adrenal
d. Thyroid

Answer 80

Adrenal

Question 81

Which term refers to the motion of a joint?
Select one:
a. Wave summations
b. Excitation-contraction coupling
c. Arthrokinematics
d. Force-velocity curves

Answer 81

Arthrokinematics

Question 82

The rate of force production relates to the ability of muscles to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. React to a stimulus without hesitation Incorrect
b. Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time
c. Release energy in a controlled manner
d. Decrease the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum

Answer 82

Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time

Question 83

Pronation of the forearm involves the inward movement of the forearm in which of the following planes?
Select one:
a. Sagittal 
b. Transverse
c. Frontal
d. Anterior-posterior

Answer 83

Transverse

Question 84

In which of the following structures are water and chemicals exchanged between the blood and tissues?
Select one:
a. Sinoatrial node
b. Venules
c. Capillaries
d. Atrioventricular node

Answer 84

Capillaries

Question 85

Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test
b. Davies test
c. Pushing test
d. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test

Answer 85

Pushing Test

Question 86

During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be shortened?
Select one:
a. Serratus anterior and infraspinatus
b. Lower trapezius and rhomboids
c. Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major
d. Teres minor and posterior deltoid

Answer 86

Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major

Question 87

The Rockport walk test is used to determine which of the following?
Select one:
a. VO2 reserve
b. Estimated oxygen consumption
c. Metabolic equivalent (MET)
d. Heart rate reserve (HRR)

Answer 87

Estimated oxygen consumption

Question 88

A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent?
Select one:
a. Vertical loading
b. Peripheral heart action
c. Drop-set
d. Pyramid

Answer 88

Vertical Loading

Question 89

A new client with limited exercise experience has recently begun a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training program. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for this client to increase muscular endurance?
Select one:
a. Plyometric-strength training
b. Circuit training
c. Pyramid system training
d. Drop-set training

Answer 89

Circuit Training

Question 90

If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client's warm-up?
Select one:
a. Posterior tibialis
b. Anterior tibialis
c. Hip flexor complex
d. Hamstring complex

Answer 90

Hip Flexor Complex

Question 91

When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?
Select one:
a. The groin region inside the upper thigh
b. The short head of the biceps femoris
c. The quadriceps along the vastus medialis
d. The entire inner thigh region

Answer 91

The groin region inside the upper thigh

Question 92

Which of the following was developed by a Russian scientist in the training of cosmonauts to decrease the loss of muscle and bone mass while in space?
Select one:
a. Vibration training
b. Kettlebell training Incorrect
c. Elastic resistance training
d. Suspension body-weight training

Answer 92

Vibration training

Question 93

What exercise is considered a total-body Strength Level exercise?
Select one:
a. Barbell clean
b. Squat, curl, to two-arm press
c. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
d. Kettlebell hang clean and jerk

Answer 93

Squat, curl, to two-arm press

Question 94

A new client tells the personal trainer that although he exercises occasionally, he is now ready to try a different approach to become a regular exerciser. This an example of which section of the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Preparation
c. Precontemplation
d. Maintenance

Answer 94

Preparation

Question 95

In the context of the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do not exercise but are thinking of becoming more active in the next six months?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Preparation
d. Contemplation

Answer 95

Contemplation

Question 96

Which of the following is the last stage in the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Maintenance
b. Action
c. Preparation
d. Precontemplation

Answer 96

Maintenance

Question 97

An individual exercises regularly, but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this individual?
Select one:
a. Preparation
b. Maintenance
c. Contemplation
d. Action

Answer 97

Action

Question 98

Once a personal trainer has identified their income goal and what they need to make each week, what is the next immediate step?
Select one:
a. Figuring out how many sessions need to be performed each week
b. Figuring out how many potential clients need to be contacted each day
c. Figuring out the closing percentage
d. Figuring out how many potential clients they need

Answer 98

Figuring out how many sessions need to be performed each week