NASM CPT STUDY EXAM Flashcards
1
Q
For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which of the following methods to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate? Select one: a. Age predicted maximum heart rate b. Karvonen formula c. Heart rate response d. Heart rate reserve
A
Heart Rate Response
2
Q
Based on the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, which of the following is the recommended weekly amount of time for moderate-intensity aerobic activity? Select one: a. 75 minutes b. 90 minutes c. 120 minutes d. 150 minutes
A
150 minutes
3
Q
Which of the following statements is true concerning client goal setting?
Select one:
a. Clients who are certain about what they want to accomplish are less likely to successfully make life changes.
b. A long-term goal keeps the client motivated for a longer period of time.
c. Setting achievable goals at the lower end of a client’s ability will build more confidence when accomplished.
d. Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions.
A
Goals shoyuld be consistent w/ a client’s own ideals and ambitions
4
Q
The client is ready to progress from Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance to Phase 2. Which of the following best describes the resistance training portion of her new Strength Endurance workout?
Select one:
a. Stabilization exercises with strength supersets
b. Strength with power supersets
c. Power exercises with strength supersets
d. Strength exercises with stabilization supersets
A
Strength exercises w/ stabilization supersets
5
Q
During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive? Select one: a. Bicep femoris b. Piriformis c. Transverse abdominus d. Latissimus dorsi
A
Latissimus Dorsi
6
Q
During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client's feet turn out. Which of the following stretches should be used to lengthen the overactive muscles? Select one: a. Kneeling hip flexor b. Standing calf c. Standing adductor d. Standing quadriceps
A
Standing Calf
7
Q
Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Flexion b. Abduction c. Extension d. External rotation
A
Abduction
8
Q
A client’s maximum heart rate must be established prior to administering the YMCA 3 minute step test. This is achieved by:
Select one:
a. subtracting the client’s age from 220
b. subtracting the client’s resting heart rate from 220
c. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then subtracting the client’s resting heart rate
d. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then multiplying by 60-90%
A
Subtracting the client’s age from 220
9
Q
A slow and controlled dumbbell chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity? Select one: a. Mechanical b. Balance c. Metabolic d. Neuromuscular
A
Neuromuscular
10
Q
Muscle imbalances can be caused by lack of core strength and poor training techniques. Which concept causes the biceps femoris and piriformis to compensate in a squatting movement? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Synergistic dominance c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
A
Synergistic Dominance
11
Q
Which of the following is most useful for assessing an athlete's lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control? Select one: a. Shark skill test b. Davies test c. Rockport walk test d. Overhead squat assessment
A
Shark Skill Test
12
Q
Which of the following is a primary focus of stabilization training? Select one: a. Increased lean body mass b. Enhanced control of posture c. Improved peak force d. Improved prime mover strength
A
Enhanced Control of Posture
13
Q
In the Maximal Strength Training (MST) phase, what should be the primary emphasis in the client’s program? Select one: a. Powerful movements b. Joint stabilization c. Increasing hypertrophy d. Increasing load
A
Increasing Load
14
Q
A client's shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles may be underactive? Select one: a. Levator scapulae b. Latissimus dorsi c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Mid and lower trapezius
A
Mid and Lower Trapezius
15
Q
Which of the following muscles is the synergist when a client is performing a chest press? Select one: a. Anterior deltoid b. Rotator cuff c. Pectoralis major d. Levator scapulae
A
Anterior Deltoid
16
Q
The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is: Select one: a. power. b. speed. c. quickness. d. agility.
A
Quickness
17
Q
When performing a \_\_\_\_\_, the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension. Select one: a. standing triceps extension b. biceps curl c. standing cable row d. dumbbell chest press
A
Standing Triceps Extension
18
Q
The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because: Select one: a. it increases muscle spindle activity. b. it results in reciprocal inhibition. c. it allows muscle fibers to contract. d. it allows lengthening of the muscle.
A
It allows lengthening of the muscle
19
Q
Under the supervision of which of the following professionals is it appropriate for an adult client to follow an 800-1000 calorie diet? Select one: a. Certified Personal Trainer b. Medical physician c. Nutritionist d. Performance Enhancement Specialist
A
Medical Physician
20
Q
Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs? Select one: a. Multiplanar step-up to balance b. Single-leg squat c. Single-leg dead lift d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
A
Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
21
Q
Which of the following is the proper lower extremity position when performing a ball squat? Select one: a. Knee over second toe b. Adduction of the hip c. Pronation of the foot d. Internal rotation of the hip
A
Knee over second toe
22
Q
During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down? Select one: a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestines d. Esophagus
A
Stomach
23
Q
Which of the following describes the importance of active listening when engaging with a client?
Select one:
a. Providing the client with the right information.
b. Requiring the client to pay attention.
c. Convincing the client to do something.
d. Seeking a client’s perspective.
A
Seeking a client’s perspective
24
Q
An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of: Select one: a. autogenic inhibition. b. reciprocal inhibition. c. altered reciprocal inhibition. d. synergistic dominance.
A
Reciprocal Inhibition
25
```
In the Stabilization Endurance Phase, exercises should be performed with which of the following types of intensity?
Select one:
a. High
b. Low
c. Maximal
d. Moderate
```
Low
26
```
The principle that states the body will adapt to the demands that are placed upon it is called the Principle of
Select one:
a. Periodization.
b. Efficiency.
c. Overload.
d. Specificity.
```
Specificity
27
Which of the following is a Power Level balance exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Single-leg throw and catch
c. Single-leg internal and external rotation
d. Single-leg squat touchdown
Single-leg hop-up w/ stabilization
28
Which of the following should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain?
Select one:
a. Limit complex carbohydrate intake to prevent weight gain.
b. Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain.
c. Increase fat intake to offset a decrease in carbohydrates.
d. Increase intake of high glycemic foods.
Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain
29
```
When a client performs reactive exercises in the Stabilization Level of training, they should hold the landing position for how many seconds before repeating the movement?
Select one:
a. 1 to 2 seconds
b. 3 to 5 seconds
c. 6 to 7 seconds
d. 8 to 10 seconds
```
3 to 5 seconds
30
Which of the following vitamins and minerals are known to have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc
b. Vitamin B, vitamin C, folic acid, and biotin
c. Beta-Carotene, vitamin E, vitamin K, and niacin
d. Iodine, magnesium, copper, and fluoride
Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc
31
Which of the following movement dysfunctions will create abnormal stress throughout the kinetic chain?
Select one:
a. Over-pronation of the foot
b. Neutrality of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
c. Patella tracking parallel with the foot
d. Neutrality of the scapulae
Over-pronation of the foot
32
Which of the following is contraindicated when training a client who is pregnant?
Select one:
a. Fitness assessments should be performed using seated or standing exercises.
b. Stabilization Endurance training should be used during the second and third trimesters
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.
d. Plyometric training may be done in the first trimester.
Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester
33
```
When performing a _____, the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction.
Select one:
a. standing triceps extension
b. biceps curl
c. standing cable row
d. dumbbell chest press
```
Standing cable row
34
```
Based on Overhead Squat Assessment findings, if a client exhibits knees moving inward, which flexibility exercise is recommended?
Select one:
a. Abductor static stretch
b. Adductor static stretch
c. Piriformis foam roller
d. Psoas foam roller
```
Adductor static stretch
35
```
A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat on an Airex pad
b. Two-leg squat on floor
c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc
d. Single-leg squat on a Dyna disc
```
Two-leg squat on Dyna disc
36
```
Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base?
Select one:
a. 9 to 11
b. 12 to 13
c. 14 to 16
d. 17 to 19
```
12 to 13
37
Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?
Select one:
a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions.
b. Your client fails after 1 repetition.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten.
Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions
38
```
Which of the following contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low carbohydrate diet?
Select one:
a. Increase in waste excretion
b. Loss of body fat
c. Increase in metabolism
d. Loss of water
```
Loss of water
39
```
Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression?
Select one:
a. 10 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 30 seconds
```
20 seconds
40
Which of the following is the correct repetition range and tempo for the Stabilization, Strength, and Power Phases of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. 12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
b. 12-20/Moderate, 1-10/Explosive, 1-12/Slow
c. 1-10/Slow, 12-20/Moderate, 1-12/Explosive
d. 1-10/Moderate,12-20/Slow, 1-12/Explosive
12-20/Slow, 1-12/Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
41
Which scenario is a component of the sliding filament theory?
Select one:
a. The result of two Z lines moving closer together.
b. The result of ATP production through aerobic respiration.
c. The pancreas releases glucagon into the bloodstream.
d. The pancreas releases insulin into the bloodstream.
The result of two Z lines moving closer together
42
```
Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Psoas
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Gluteus maximus
```
Gluteus Maximus
43
```
How many times the heart beats per minute and how much blood is being pumped with each beat is known as:
Select one:
a. Stroke volume
b. Heart rate
c. Cardiac output
d. Expiration
```
Cardiac Output
44
```
Which of the following muscles is underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat?
Select one:
a. Levator scapulae
b. Rhomboids
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Upper trapezius
```
Rhomboids
45
```
Which of the following is the system activated at the onset of any activity, regardless of intensity?
Select one:
a. EPOC
b. ATP-PC
c. Oxidative
d. Glycolysis
```
ATP-PC
46
```
When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due to tightness in the lateral gastrocnemius is:
Select one:
a. the knees moving inward.
b. external rotation of the feet.
c. excessive forward lean.
d. low back arches.
```
External Rotation of the feet
47
```
Which of the following is a category of subjective information?
Select one:
a. Body composition
b. Cardiorespiratory assessment
c. Medical background
d. Performance assessment
```
Medical Background
48
```
If a client’s knee moves inward while performing the Single-leg Squat test, this is an indication that which of the following muscles is overactive?
Select one:
a. Adductor longus
b. Vastus medialis oblique
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Piriformis
```
Adductor Longus
49
```
Which of the following is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy?
Select one:
a. 1 to 2
b. 2 to 4
c. 4 to 6
d. 6 to 10
```
2 to 4
50
```
Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?
Select one:
a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate
b. 40 to 50% of their maximum heart rate
c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate
d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate
```
60% to 70% of their maximum heart rate
51
```
How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?
Select one:
a. 6 to 12 ounces
b. 16 to 24 ounces
c. 24 to 32 ounces
d. 32 to 48 ounces
```
16 to 24 ounces
52
```
Which of the following is the innermost layer of muscular connective tissue?
Select one:
a. Fasciculus
b. Endomysium
c. Perimysium
d. Epimysium
```
Endomysium
53
```
Feedback regarding personal history such as sport, lifestyle, and past medical history would be best described as:
Select one:
a. objective information.
b. subjective information.
c. movement assessment.
d. fitness assessment.
```
Subjective
54
```
If a client demonstrates shoulder elevation while performing a cable row exercise, which of the following muscles is considered overactive?
Select one:
a. Rhomboids
b. Mid/lower trapezius
c. Levator scapulae
d. Erector spinae
```
Levator Scapulae
55
Which of the following should a trainer consider when designing a resistance training program for seniors?
Select one:
a. Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.
b. Phase 1 of the OPT model should be used for 4 weeks before moving to Phases 2 through 5.
c. Phase 5 of the OPT model is contraindicated for senior clients due to increased safety considerations.
d. Training frequencies should start at 4 to 5 times per week.
Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.
56
```
Muscle imbalances can be caused by lack of core strength and poor training techniques. Which concept causes the biceps femoris and piriformis to compensate in a squatting movement?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
```
Synergistic Dominance
57
```
Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Postural
b. Structural
c. Functional
d. Neuromuscular
```
Functional
58
```
A client who has an increased functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is in which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
a. Resistance development
b. Alarm reaction
c. Exhaustion
d. Periodization
```
Resistance Development
59
```
What is a high-protein diet commonly associated with?
Select one:
a. A decrease in urea production
b. A decreased risk of dehydration
c. A decrease in glycogen stores
d. An increase in fiber intake
```
a decrease in glycogen stores
60
```
Which of the following is the hip joint inferior to?
Select one:
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Knee
c. Shoulder
d. Hamstrings
```
Shoulder
61
```
Maintenance of which of the following is an integrated process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency using visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive inputs?
Select one:
a. Mechanical equilibrium
b. Static equilibrium
c. Postural equilibrium
d. Dynamic equilibrium
```
Postural Equilibrium
62
```
A personal trainer is advising a client on caloric distribution. Which of the following falls within the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for protein?
Select one:
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 30%
d. 40%
```
30%
63
```
Which of the following refers to a straightening movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases?
Select one:
a. Extension
b. Flexion Incorrect
c. Inversion
d. Adduction
```
Extension
64
```
Dysfunctional breathing results in an increase in the activity level of which of the following secondary respiratory muscles?
Select one:
a. Scalenes
b. Internal oblique
c. Diaphragm
d. Rectus abdominis
```
Scalenes
65
```
Decreased levels of thyroid hormones tend to cause a decrease in which of the following?
Select one:
a. Diastolic blood pressure
b. Systolic blood pressure
c. Resting heart rate
d. Resting metabolic rate
```
Resting metabolic rate
66
```
Which of the following refers to a position on or toward the front of the body?
Select one:
a. Superior
b. Lateral
c. Medial
d. Anterior
```
Anterior
67
```
During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?
Select one:
a. Abdominals
b. Gluteals
c. Hamstrings
d. Quadriceps
```
Quadriceps
68
```
Which of the following is the method used to estimate the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin?
Select one:
a. Body weight measurement
b. Body mass index Incorrect
c. Skinfold measurement
d. Circumference measurement
```
Skinfold measurement
69
```
A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Dynamic
b. Corrective
c. Active
d. Functional
```
Active
70
```
Which of the following describes a mesocycle?
Select one:
a. Annual training plan
b. Weekly training plan
c. Daily training plan
d. Monthly training plan
```
Monthly training plan
71
```
In order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae (TFL) while standing, a client's back leg should be in which of the following positions?
Select one:
a. Externally rotated
b. Internally rotated
c. Abducted 90°
d. Adducted 90
```
Externally rotated
72
What is the proper balance progression to increase a client’s proprioception?
Select one:
a. Single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, one-leg unstable
b. Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable
c. Two-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg stable, single-leg unstable
d. Single-leg stable, two-leg stable, one-leg unstable, two-leg unstable
Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable
73
```
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?
Select one:
a. Standing triceps extension
b. Standing cable chest press
c. Standing cable row
d. Standing cable crunch
```
Standing cable chest press
74
```
What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of?
Select one:
a. Balance-strength exercise
b. Balance-power exercise
c. Balance-stabilization exercise
d. Balance-modification exercise
```
Balance-Power
75
Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question?
Select one:
a. "If someone told you all your goals were at the top of a mountain, would you climb that mountain to reach them?"
b. "What are your top three fitness goals?"
c. "Did you play sports in high school?"
d. "Is there an athlete or celebrity whose body you would like to have?"
What are your top three fitness goals?
76
```
Which of the following is a process created to produce internalized experiences to support exercise participation?
Select one:
a. Positive self-talk
b. Exercise imagery
c. Psyching up
d. Self-monitoring
```
Exercise imagery
77
Jennifer is concerned about staying motivated in her fitness program. What will provide her emotional support to remain motivated?
Select one:
a. Providing her transportation to the fitness facility.
b. Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout.
c. Training with family, friends, and coworkers.
d. Educating her on the benefits of different exercises.
Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout.
78
```
An individual exercises regularly, but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this individual?
Select one:
a. Maintenance
b. Preparation
c. Action
d. Contemplation
```
Action
79
```
A father decides that there is too much injury risk for his overweight son to partake in personal training. This is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Contemplation
b. Affirmations
c. Diffusion Incorrect
d. Behavioral reactants
```
Behavioral reactants
80
```
Which gland produces the hormones (epinephrine and norepinephrine) that help prepares the body for activity and for the fight or flight response?
Select one:
a. Pituitary
b. Apocrine
c. Adrenal
d. Thyroid
```
Adrenal
81
```
Which term refers to the motion of a joint?
Select one:
a. Wave summations
b. Excitation-contraction coupling
c. Arthrokinematics
d. Force-velocity curves
```
Arthrokinematics
82
The rate of force production relates to the ability of muscles to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. React to a stimulus without hesitation Incorrect
b. Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time
c. Release energy in a controlled manner
d. Decrease the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum
Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time
83
```
Pronation of the forearm involves the inward movement of the forearm in which of the following planes?
Select one:
a. Sagittal
b. Transverse
c. Frontal
d. Anterior-posterior
```
Transverse
84
```
In which of the following structures are water and chemicals exchanged between the blood and tissues?
Select one:
a. Sinoatrial node
b. Venules
c. Capillaries
d. Atrioventricular node
```
Capillaries
85
Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test
b. Davies test
c. Pushing test
d. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test
Pushing Test
86
During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be shortened?
Select one:
a. Serratus anterior and infraspinatus
b. Lower trapezius and rhomboids
c. Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major
d. Teres minor and posterior deltoid
Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major
87
```
The Rockport walk test is used to determine which of the following?
Select one:
a. VO2 reserve
b. Estimated oxygen consumption
c. Metabolic equivalent (MET)
d. Heart rate reserve (HRR)
```
Estimated oxygen consumption
88
```
A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent?
Select one:
a. Vertical loading
b. Peripheral heart action
c. Drop-set
d. Pyramid
```
Vertical Loading
89
```
A new client with limited exercise experience has recently begun a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training program. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for this client to increase muscular endurance?
Select one:
a. Plyometric-strength training
b. Circuit training
c. Pyramid system training
d. Drop-set training
```
Circuit Training
90
```
If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client's warm-up?
Select one:
a. Posterior tibialis
b. Anterior tibialis
c. Hip flexor complex
d. Hamstring complex
```
Hip Flexor Complex
91
When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?
Select one:
a. The groin region inside the upper thigh
b. The short head of the biceps femoris
c. The quadriceps along the vastus medialis
d. The entire inner thigh region
The groin region inside the upper thigh
92
```
Which of the following was developed by a Russian scientist in the training of cosmonauts to decrease the loss of muscle and bone mass while in space?
Select one:
a. Vibration training
b. Kettlebell training Incorrect
c. Elastic resistance training
d. Suspension body-weight training
```
Vibration training
93
What exercise is considered a total-body Strength Level exercise?
Select one:
a. Barbell clean
b. Squat, curl, to two-arm press
c. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
d. Kettlebell hang clean and jerk
Squat, curl, to two-arm press
94
```
A new client tells the personal trainer that although he exercises occasionally, he is now ready to try a different approach to become a regular exerciser. This an example of which section of the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Preparation
c. Precontemplation
d. Maintenance
```
Preparation
95
```
In the context of the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do not exercise but are thinking of becoming more active in the next six months?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Preparation
d. Contemplation
```
Contemplation
96
```
Which of the following is the last stage in the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Maintenance
b. Action
c. Preparation
d. Precontemplation
```
Maintenance
97
```
An individual exercises regularly, but has not yet maintained the behavior for 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this individual?
Select one:
a. Preparation
b. Maintenance
c. Contemplation
d. Action
```
Action
98
Once a personal trainer has identified their income goal and what they need to make each week, what is the next immediate step?
Select one:
a. Figuring out how many sessions need to be performed each week
b. Figuring out how many potential clients need to be contacted each day
c. Figuring out the closing percentage
d. Figuring out how many potential clients they need
Figuring out how many sessions need to be performed each week
