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NASM CPT 6th Edition 2020 > Practice Exam Questions > Flashcards

Practice Exam Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

What muscle is prime mover for a row?

A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Posterior deltoid
C. Pectoralis major
D. Pectoralis minor

A

A. Latissimus Dorsi

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2
Q

Which rating of perceived exertion (RPE) on the Borg Scale (6-20) would be implemented in a cardio training program for a client wanting to improve their aerobic base?

A. 9-11
B. 12-13
C. 14-16
D. 17-19

A

B. 12-13 (in the middle, somewhat hard for cardio improvement)

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3
Q

A series of exercises that is performed one after the other, with minimal rest, is referred to as what type of training system?

A. Multiple set system
B. Pyramid System
C. Superset system
D. Circuit training system

A

D. Circuit training system

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4
Q

Which of the following contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low carbohydrate diet?

A. Increase waste secretion
B. Loss of body fat
C. Increase in metabolism
D. Loss of water

A

D. Loss of water

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5
Q

A CPT should maintain accurate financial, contract appointments & tax records including receipts for a minimum of how long?

A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 2 years
D. 4 years

A

D. 4 years

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6
Q

Which muscle is the synergist when performing a chest pass?

A. Anterior deltoid
B. Rotator cuff
C. Pectoralis major
D. Levator scapulae

A

A. Anterior deltoid

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7
Q

An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of:

A. Autogenic inhibition
B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Altered reciprocal inhibition
D. Synergistic dominance

A

B. Reciprocal inhibition

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8
Q

What is the recommendation of time for weekly amount of moderate intensity aerobic activity?

A. 75 min
B. 90 min
C. 120 min
D. 150 min

A

D. 150 min (30 min 5x/week)

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9
Q

The load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction when performing a _____.

A. Standing tricep extension
B. Bicep curl
C. Standing cable row
D. Dumbbell chest press

A

C. Standing cable row

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10
Q

A clients shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which muscle may be underactive?

A. Levator scapulae
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Mid and lower trapezius

A

D. Mid and lower trapezius

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11
Q

Which of the following muscles is probably underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat?

A. Levator scapulae
B. Rhomboids
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Upper trapezius

A

B. Rhomboids

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12
Q

To ensure proper front side mechanics during sprinting, the ankle must be in a position of:

A. Plantarflexion
B. Eversion
C. Dorsiflexion
D. Inversion

A

C. Dorsiflexion (heel, toe)

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13
Q

Which of the following is a Power level balance exercise?

A. Single leg box hop up with stabilization
B. Single leg throw and catch
C. Single leg internal and external rotation
D. Single leg squat touchdown

A

A. Single leg box hop up with stabilization

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14
Q

A sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep max bench press estimation test would be when:

A. Client fails after 8-12 reps
B. Client fails after 1 rep
C. Client fails after 3-5 reps
D. Client fails before arm straightens

A

C. Client fails after 3-5 reps

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15
Q

How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?

A. 6-12
B. 16-24
C. 24-32
D. 32-48

A

B. 16-24

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16
Q

Which of the following should a trainer consider when designing a resistance training program for seniors?

A. Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8-10 exercises
B. Phase 1 should be used for 4 weeks before moving to phase 2-5
C. Phase 5 is contraindicated for seniors due to increased safety considerations
D. Training frequency should start at 4-5 times per week

A

A. Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8-10 exercises

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17
Q

Feedback regarding personal history such as sport, lifestyle, and past medical history would be best described as:

A. Objective information
B. Subjective information
C. Movement assessment
D. Fitness assessment

A

B. Subjective information

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18
Q

What is an expected systolic blood pressure for a healthy client?

A. 80 mm Hg
B. 95 mm Hg
C. 120 mm Hg
D. 135 mm Hg

A

C. 120 mm Hg

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19
Q

Which of the following is a skin fold measurement site for the Durin-Womersley formula?

A. Calf
B. Mid-axillary kind
C. Subscapular
D. Thigh

A

C. Subscapular

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20
Q

Davis’s Law states:

A. A chronically shortened muscle will demonstrate poor neuromuscular efficiency.
B. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress.
C. A tight agonist muscle will decrease neural drive to its functional antagonist.
D. The body will seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.

A

B. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress.

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21
Q

When performing a ____, the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension.

A. Standing triceps extension
B. Biceps curl
C. Standing cable row
D. Dumbbell chest press

A

A. Standing triceps extension

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22
Q

CPTs have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression?

A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 30

A

C. 20 seconds

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23
Q

The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because:

A. Increases muscle spindle activity
B. It results in reciprocal inhibition
C. It allows muscle fibers to contract
D. It allows lengthening of the muscle

A

D. It allows lengthening of the muscle

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24
Q

A client cannot perform a full prone iso-abs exercise, which would be an appropriate regression?

A. Prone iso-abs with knees on floor
B. Prone iso-abs with feet on stability ball
C. Back extension
D. Stability ball crunch

A

A. Prone iso-abs with knees on floor

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25
Q

Which of the following is considered a balance-strength exercise?

A. Single-leg squat touchdown
B. Single-leg lift and chop
C. Single-leg balance and reach
D. Single-leg hop with stabilization

A

A. Single-leg squat touchdown

26
Q

What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardiorespiratory training?

A. 56%-75%
B. 66%-75%
C. 76%-85%
D. 86%-95%

A

C. 76%-85%

27
Q

How many times the heart beats per minute and how much blood is being pumped with each beat is known as:

A. Stroke volume
B. Heart rate
C. Cardiac output
D. Expiration

A

C. Cardiac output

28
Q

Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in frontal plane?

A. Flexion
B. Abduction
C. Extension
D. External rotation

A

B. Abduction

29
Q

Which of the following core-training exercise is best for new client?

A. Ball crunch
B. Front medicine ball oblique throw
C. Reverse crunch
D. Prone iso-ab

A

D. Prone iso-ab

30
Q

If a client demonstrates shoulder elevation while performing a cable row exercise, which of the following muscles is considered overactive?

A. Rhomboids
B. Sternocleidomastoid
C. Upper trapezius
D. Erector spinae

A

C. Upper trapezius

31
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?

A. 20-30% MHR
B. 40-50% MHR
C. 60-70% MHR
D. 85-95% MHR

A

C. 60-70% MHR

32
Q

Which of the following is subjective information?

A. Body composition
B. Cardiorespiratory assessment
C. Medical background
D. Performance assessment

A

C. Medical background

33
Q

Muscle imbalances can be caused by lack of core strength and poor training techniques. Which concept causes biceps femoris and piriformis to compensate in a squatting movement?

A. Autogenic inhibition
B. Synergistic dominance
C. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
D. Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

B. Synergistic dominance

34
Q

Which of the following muscles is lengthened in lower crossed syndrome?

A. Psoas minor
B. Rectus femoris
C. Erector spinae
D. Transverse abdominis

A

D. Transverse abdominis

35
Q

During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down?

A. Mouth
B. Stomach
C. Small Intestines
D. Esophagus

A

B. Stomach

36
Q

Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric & concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?

A. Postural
B. Structural
C. Functional
D. Neuromuscular

A

C. Functional

37
Q

Which of the following is an example of strength level resistance training exercise for legs?

A. Multiplanar step-up to balance
B. Single-leg squat
C. Single-leg dead lift
D. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up

A

D. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up

38
Q

For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which of the following methods is most appropriate to establish training heart rate?

A. Age predicted MHR
B. Karvonen formula
C. Heart rate response
D. Heart rate reserve

A

C. Heart rate response

39
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning client goal setting?

A. Clients certain about what they want to accomplish are less likely to make changes
B. A long term goal keeps the client motivated
C. Set achievable goals at the lower end of their ability
D. Goals should be consistent with their own ideals and ambitions

A

D. Goals should be consistent with their own ideals and ambitions

40
Q

Horizontal abduction involves the movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from which position to a lateral position?

A. Anterior
B. Ipsilateral
C. Posterior
D. Inferior

A

A. Anterior

41
Q

During the concentric action of the gluteus Maximus, what movement is occurring at the joint?

A. Hip flexion and internal rotation
B. Hip extension and external rotation
C. Hip adduction and lateral rotation
D. Hip abduction and medial rotation

A

B. Hip extension and external rotation

42
Q

Which term refers to the assistance of amino acids in energy production during periods of starvation?

A. The Kreb’s Cycle
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycogenesis
D. The Cori Cycle

A

B. Gluconeogenesis

43
Q

Which of the following describes the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns?

A. Active flexibility
B. Relative flexibility
C. Corrective flexibility
D. Dynamic flexibility

A

B. Relative flexibility

44
Q

Which of the following muscles is probably underactive if a client’s support or standing leg falls inward during a single-leg squat assessment?

A. Tensor fascia latae (TFL)
B. Adductor complex
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Gluteus medius

A

D. Gluteus medius

45
Q

Ruby performs an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following movement compensations indicates the need for a static standing TFL stretch?

A. The clients knees move inward
B. The clients arms fall forward
C. The clients heels rise
D. The clients low back rounds

A

A. The clients knees move inward (tight/overactive TFL)

46
Q

The Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) is primarily aimed at identifying which of the following?

A. An individual’s level of readiness for participation in sports competitions
B. An individual’s level of motivation to begin an exercise program
C. An individual’s level of social support to aid in weight loss endeavors
D. An individual’s level of risk for cardiovascular disease

A

D. An individual’s level of risk for cardiovascular disease

47
Q

Which of the following percentages of ATP and PC recovery result from a rest interval of 40 seconds between sets of resistance exercises?

A. 25%
B. 100%
C. 50%
D. 75%

A

D. 75%

48
Q

A woman is a training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptations occurring to the woman’s aerobic energy system?

A. Metabolic specificity
B. Mechanical specificity
C. Autogenic inhibition
D. Reciprocal inhibition

A

A. Metabolic specificity

49
Q

Which of the following exercises is the most effective at improving dynamic stabilization, concentric strength, eccentric strength, and neuromuscular efficiency of the entire kinetic chain?

A. Prone iso-abs
B. Reverse crunch
C. Supported dumbbell row
D. Dumbbell snatch

A

B. Reverse crunch

50
Q

When working with loads exceeding 90% of maximum, a client would not exceed a workout volume of?

A. 20 reps
B. 60 reps
C. 10 reps
D. 30 reps

A

D. 30 reps

51
Q

A clients low back arches during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?

A. Biceps femoris
B. Rectus abdominis
C. Gluteus Maximus
D. Hip flexor complex

A

D. Hip flexor complex

52
Q

Exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?

A. Balance-strength
B. Leg-stabilization
C. Leg-strength
D. Balance-stabilization

A

A. Balance-strength

53
Q

Which type of training involves performing exercises as fast and explosively as possible?

A. Strength-power
B. Reactive-stabilization
C. Stabilization-endurance
D. Reactive-power

A

D. Reactive-power

54
Q

If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the clients warm-up?

A. Posterior tibialis
B. Hamstring complex
C. Anterior tibialis
D. Hip flexor complex

A

D. Hip flexor complex

55
Q

What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?

A. Two-arm dumbbell chest press on a bench
B. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press
C. Single-leg ball dumbbell chest press
D. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press

A

B. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press

56
Q

A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?

A. Leg-stabilization
B. Balance-power
C. Leg-power
D. Balance-stabilization

A

B. Balance-power

57
Q

When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?

A. Anteriorly rotated pelvis
B. 90 degree internally rotated humerus
C. Posteriorly rotated pelvis
D. 90 degree horizontally abducted humerus

A

C. Posteriorly rotated pelvis

58
Q

Which of the following is a precaution that should be taken while performing reverse crunch?

A. Avoid a large stride length to protect low back
B. Avoid rounding the lower back
C. Avoid swinging the legs
D. Keep the chin tucked

A

C. Avoid swinging the legs

59
Q

In order to most effectively target the TFL (tensor fascia latae) while standing, a clients back leg should be in which of the following positions?

A. Abducted 90 degrees
B. Externally rotated
C. Adducted 90 degrees
D. Internally rotated

A

B. Externally rotated

60
Q

A personal trainer is working with a client who reports not having enough time to exercise. Which of the following is the most effective technique to help the client prioritize his time, improving exercise adherence?

A. Have client keep a daily exercise log for 6 months
B. Have client create a list of positive thoughts
C. Have client produce internal experiences to support exercise participation
D. Have client keep a journal tracking daily activities for 3 days

A

D. Have client keep a journal tracking daily activities for 3 days

61
Q

A father decides that there is too much injury risk for his overweight son to partake in personal training. This is an example of:

A. Behavioral reactants
B. Diffusion
C. Contemplation
D. Affirmations

A

A. Behavioral reactants

NASM CPT 6th Edition 2020 (6 decks)

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