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Progress Test Practice > Practice 1 > Flashcards

Practice 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Erythema Nodosum is associated with what conditions?

A

Streptococcus Infection
Primary infection of TB
Sarcoidosis
IBD

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2
Q

What type of anaemia can be found in patients with Crohn’s disease?

A

Normocytic, normochromic anaemia - Anaemia of chronic disease

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3
Q

What gender is Carpel Tunnel Syndrome more common in?

A

Female

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4
Q

What gender is Cubital Tunnel Syndrome (Ulner nerve) more common in?

A

Males

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5
Q

What are the functions of Bile Salts?

A
  1. Emulsification of lipids
  2. Activation of lipases through optimisation of pH
  3. Absorption of fat soluble vitamins (B12) due to reabsorption in the terminal ileum
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6
Q

What anti-fungal is used to treat Aspergillus fumigatus, a common fungal infection affecting the lungs in those who are immunosuppressed?

A

Amphotericin

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7
Q

Can there be a negative culture with infective endocarditis?

A

Yes. Ride-sided endocarditis and infection with fastidious organisms are causes of negative culture.

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8
Q

Can murmurs be absent in infective endocarditis?

A

Murmurs are frequently absent - especially for tricuspid disease

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9
Q

What is a recognised associated pulmonary lesion with infective endocarditis?

A

Pulmonary abscess - septic emboli from the tricuspid valve become lodged in the lung

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10
Q

What is the common causative organism for infective endocarditis?

A

S. Aureus occurs in 50% of cases follows by strep

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11
Q

Which valve is most commonly affected in infective endocarditis?

A

Tricuspid valve

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12
Q

What term is used to denote the heart pointing towards the right side of the chest instead of the left?

A

Dextrocardia

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13
Q

What can indicate a patient has dextrocardia?

A

Absent apex beat on the left hand side

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14
Q

What is the most likely causative organism for a UTI?

A

Escherichia coli

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15
Q

What is the most likely causative organism for skin infections?

A

Staphylococcus aureas

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16
Q

What is the most common cause of food poisoning?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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17
Q

What is the most likely causative organism for valvular disease?

A

Staph aureus

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18
Q

What is the most likely causative organism for valvular disease with previously affected valves (e.g. with Rheumatic fever)

A

Streptococcus viridans

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

20
Q

What is the most common cause of hospital acquired pneumonia

A

Gram negatives and staph aureus

21
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosing somatisation disorder?

A
  1. Four different pan sites or functions
  2. Two gastrointestinal symptoms other than pain
  3. One sexual or reproductive symptom other than pain
  4. One pseudoneurological symptom
    - -> it occurs in children and usually is predisposed by a stressful factor/life event
22
Q

What is an abdominal migraine?

A

It is also known as Cyclical vomiting syndrome and is most frequent in adolescents. Violent prolonged vomiting episodes may occur and these are precipitated by stress, menses or intercurrent infections.

23
Q

Prolonged immobility increases your risk of certain venous conditions such as?

A

Venous thromboembolism

24
Q

What is the best test for diagnosing PEs?

A

CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA)

25
Q

What is a macule?

A

A small, flat area or spot of discoloured skin usually less than 5mm in diameter

26
Q

What is a papule?

A

A small raised area of skin less than 5mm. It usually has a domed top.

27
Q

What is a maculopapular rash?

A

It’s a rash combining small flat spots and raised spots on the skin.

28
Q

What kind of rash presents with measles?

A

Maculopapular rash.

29
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

It is a papule with a fluid-filled centre.

30
Q

When would you typically find vesicles?

A

Chickenpox rash and cold sores.

31
Q

What is a pustule?

A

It’s a vesicle containing pus (serum, WBC and the causative virus). These are expected in many viral illnesses.

32
Q

What is a nodule?

A

It’s a larger swelling on the skin surface usually more than 5mm in diameter, which extends deep into the skin and is firm to touch.

33
Q

What is petechiae?

A

Small red-brown flat macules up to 2mm in diameter. They are non-blanching and are caused by tiny spots of blood gathered under the skin’s surface.

34
Q

Petechiae are characteristic of what?

A

Meningococcal disease

35
Q

What is purpura?

A

Areas of little petechiae joined together, larger and usually more than 2mm.

36
Q

A 60 year old builder smoked 30 a day for 40 years. Breathlessness, haemoptysis and clubbing. Stony dull percussion.

A

Carcinoma of the bronchus

37
Q

What common work place fins asbestos?

A

Ship yards

38
Q

A 64 year old shipyard worker lifelong non-smoker has a dull ache on left chest and dyspnoea . Lobular pleural thickening seen.

A

Mesothelioma is a pleural based lung malignancy associated with earlier asbestos exposure.

39
Q

Farmer’s lung is an example of what?

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

40
Q

18 year old cystic fibrosis has a persistent productive cough of purulent sputum, finger clubbing and low-pitched crackles.

A

Bronchiectasis - cystic fibrosis is a cause of bronchiectasis.

41
Q

Tramline or ring shadows on CXR indicate what condition?

A

Bronchiectasis

42
Q

Patient returned from holiday, has fever and malaise plus left crackles. Relatively normal WBC despite obvious infection.

A

Legionella pneumophila

43
Q

What is Legionella pneumophila?

A

Thin gram negative bacterium causing Legionnaires’ disease or Legionellosis.

44
Q

How do you treat Legionella?

A

Macrolides and ciprofloxacin

45
Q

Name some drugs which are contra-indicated in asthmatics.

A 
Adenosine = wheeze and bronchospasm 
Diclofenac = NSAID contraindicated
Labetalol = b-blocker contraindicated 
Morphine = release histamines = bronchospasms worse

Progress Test Practice (8 decks)

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