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ANAT 1001 > prac1 > Flashcards

prac1 Flashcards

1
Q

describe simple Squamous epithelium

A
  • flat, irregularly shaped, tightly-fitted cells in a mosaic like pattern with flattened centrally located nucleus
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2
Q

function of simple Squamous epithelium

A

diffusion and filtration

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3
Q

location of simple Squamous epithelium

A

pulmonary alveoli, kidneys, lining the inner walls of blood and lymphatic vessels (endothelium), form serous membranes that line the body cavities and its organs – pericardium, pleura, peritoneum

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4
Q

describe simple cuboidal epithelium

A
  • composed of tightly fitted cube-shaped cells, with centrally positioned round nucelus
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5
Q

FUNCTION of simple cuboidal epithelium

A

secretion, filtration and absorption

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6
Q

LOCATION of simple cuboidal epithelium

A

found in many glands and glandular organs and ducts (e.g. surface of ovaries, ducts of salivary glands and pancreas)

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7
Q

describe simple columnar epithelium

A
  • Composed of tall, columnar cells (height caries), tightly fitted, nucleus usually located close ot the basement membrane; goblet cells
  • Non-ciliated (covered in microvilli to increase SA for absorption in intestine)
  • Ciliated (covered in cilia to support beating of secondary oocyte through the uterine tube to the uterus)
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8
Q

what are the two types of simple columnar epithelium

A

ciliated

non-ciliated

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9
Q

what is non-ciliated simple columnar epithelium covered in and why

A

covered in microvilli to increase SA for absorption in intestine

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10
Q

what is ciliated simple columnar epithelium covered in and why

A

covered in cilia to support beating of secondary oocyte through the uterine tube to the uterus)

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11
Q

function of simple columnar epithelium

A

protection, lubrication, secretion and absorption

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12
Q

location of simple columnar epithelium

A

lining of intestine, uterine tubes, bronchioles

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13
Q

describe pseudo-stratified simple epithelium

A
  • cells are of different heights with a variable position of the nucleus giving the appearance of being stratified; goblet cells
  • non-ciliated(rare) or ciliated
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14
Q

what are the two types of pseudo-stratified simple epithelium

A

non-ciliated

ciliated

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15
Q

function ciliated Pseudo-stratified simple epithelium

A

ciliated= protection, secretion of mucin, movement of particles and mucus

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16
Q

function non-ciliated Pseudo-stratified simple epithelium

A

protection

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17
Q

location of ciliated pseudo-stratified simple epithelium

A

ciliated: trachea, bronchi, nasal cavity

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18
Q

location of non-ciliated pseudo-stratified simple epithelium

A

non-ciliated: male urethra, male epididymis (sits on top of testes, where sperm matures)

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19
Q

describe stratified Squamous epithelium

A
  • apical surface cells are squamous while the cells closer to the underlying connective tissue are cuboidal to columnar
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20
Q

function of stratified Squamous epithelium

A

found in areas subjected to wear and tear; top layer cells are rubbed away and replaced via mitosis of the innermost cells

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21
Q

what are the two types of of stratified Squamous epithelium

A

keratinised

non-keratinised

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22
Q

location of keratinised stratified Squamous epithelium

A

keratinised (dry) contains keratin, a protein that strengthens the tissue, LOCATION: epidermis

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23
Q

location of non-keratinised stratified Squamous epithelium

A

 non-keratinised (wet) mucosa; LOCATION: mouth, oesophagus, larynx, vagina, anal canal

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24
Q

describe stratified cuboidal epithelium

A
  • rare

- usually only two or three layers of cuboidal cells

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25
Q

function of stratified cuboidal epithelium

A

protection, secreition

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26
Q

location of stratified cuboidal epithelium

A

LOCATION: ducts of sweat glands

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27
Q

describe stratified columnar epithelium

A
  • rare

- basal layer – short cells of irregular shape, apical cells columnar

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28
Q

function stratified columnar epithelium

A

protection, secretion

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29
Q

location of stratified columnar epithelium

A

conjunctiva, large ducts of salivary glands

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30
Q

describe transitional columnar epithelium

A
  • characterised with cells that change form according ot the degree of distension – flat (squamous) when stretched and cuboidal when relaxed
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31
Q

function of stratified transitional columnar epithelium

A

protection, distensibility

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32
Q

location of stratified transitional columnar epithelium

A

lining the cavity of urinary bladder, ureters,

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33
Q

function of connective tissue

A
  • provides structural and metabolic support to other

* tissues: protection, transport, repair, storage

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34
Q

what does fibroblasts synthesise?

A
  • synthesise collagen, elastic and reticular fibres, and extracellular matrix
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35
Q

what are fibroblasts responsible

A

wound healing

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36
Q

describe adipocytes

A

o specialised for fat storage, energy and insulation; involved in the synthesis of hormones and growth factors
o act as a cushion for organs e.g. heart and kidney
o located throughout loose connective tissue
o Cytoplasm with flattened nucleus forms a very narrow rim around a large central lipid droplet
o Produces the hormone leptin – which is responsible for satiety/fullness – leptin controls nutrient homeostasis

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37
Q

describe macrophages

A

o Develop from monocytes in bone marrow – (WBC)
o Irregular shape, short branched projections
o Destroys bacteria and cellular debris (phagocytosis)
o Fixed and wandering
o Contains lots of lysosomes to help break down debris, virus etc.
o Immune/defence cells

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38
Q

describe mast cells

A

o Immune cell that develop in bone marrow, differentiate in connective tissues
o Function: inflammatory and allergic response (granules contain histamine, heparin), kill bacteria

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39
Q

what is the extracellular matrix made up of

A

ground substance
collagen fibres
elastic fibres
reticular fibres

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40
Q

describe ground substancce

A

o Fluid, semi-solid, solid
o Space between cells and fibres
o Consists of water and complex carbohydrates and glycoproteins – contains hydrolonic acid (helps phagocytes to move through connective tissue)
o Hylaronidaise is produced by WBC and sperm cell – makes hydrlinic acid more permeable
o In sperm cell hydralonidaise to breakdown hydralonic acid to allow the sperm cell to enter the egg for fertilisation
Function: mechanical and structural support for tissue; biochemical barrier-role in regulating metabolic functions in surrounding cells

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41
Q

describe collagen fibres

A

o Strongest fibres (stronger than steel fibres of the same size)
o Most abundant type: closely packed orderly, flexible, high, tensile strength
o Made of collagen protein
o Types:
1. Skin, bones, tendons, organs capsules
2. Hyaline and elastic cartilage
3. Organs, smooth muscle
4. Associated with basal lamina of the basement membrane of epithelial cells (support, filtration)

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42
Q

describe elastic fibres

A

o Thin, elastic allows tissue to respond to stretch and distensions; located in skin, lung and bladder
o Elastin surrounds glycoprotein allowing the tissue to stretch and recoil

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43
Q

describe reticular fibres

A

o Very thin, type 3 collagen associated with high levels glycoprotein
o Provides a supporting framework for the cellular constituents of various tissues and organs
o E.g. in basement membrane

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44
Q

list the types of connective tissue proper

A 
loose connective tissue
- areolar
- adipose
- reticular
dense connective tissue
- dense regular
- dense irregular
-elastic
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45
Q

describe loose connective tissue areola

A

o Very thin, type 3 collagen associated with high levels glycoprotein
o Provides a supporting framework for the cellular constituents of various tissues and organs
o E.g. in basement membrane

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46
Q

describe loose reticular connective tissue

A

o intertwining reticular fibres
o creates a network that forms the stroma, binds smooth muscle cells; reticular fibres filter blood and lymph
o makes up bone marrow…

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47
Q

describe adipose tissue

A

o consists of mostly adipocytes
o location subcutaneous, around organs e.g. heart, kidney, yellow marrow of long bones
o function: insulation, energy reserve and protection and support
o great for nutrient storage
o responsible for removing lipids from blood stream
o more adipose tissues=body creates extra blood vessels
o in the messentary - anchors small intestine to abdominal wall (in pertineoum)
o 2 different types – white (insulation, energy reservation…) and brown (only found in 3 locations anterior neck, anterior abdominal wall, between scapulae – great ability for thermogenesis)

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48
Q

function of adipose tissue

A

nsulation, energy reserve and protection and support

o great for nutrient storage

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49
Q

describe dense regular connective tissue

A

o Abundant collagen fibres, few cells and little ground substance
o Well aligned densely packed fibres collagen arranged in bundles – fibroblasts arranged in rows between collagen bundles

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50
Q

location of dense regular connective tissue

A

tendons, ligaments, aponeuroses and capsules of organs

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51
Q

function of dense regular connective tissue

A

o FUNCTION: strong attachment between structures

o With strands great strength if only pulled in one direction

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52
Q

describe dense irregular connective tissue

A

o Mostly collagen fibres, few cells and little ground substance
o Tightly packed fibres random in 3dimesions – can withold being pulled in different directions

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53
Q

location dense irregular connective tissue

A

the dermis (reticular or deep layer) and digestive tract (submucosa)

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54
Q

function dense irregular connective tissue

A

o FUNCTION: strength, resists stretch/tearing in multiple directions

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55
Q

describe elastic connective tissue

A

o Predominantly elastic fibres; fibroblast in the spaces between the fibres
o Yellowish in colour, stretching capability; lungs, elastic arteries some ligaments
o E.g. in lungs, aorta

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56
Q

what are the two types o fcartilage

A

hyaline

fibrocartilage

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57
Q

location of hyaline cartilage

A

at ends of long bones, anterior ends of ribs, nose parts of larynx, trachea

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58
Q

function of hyaline cartilage

A

cushioning,
creates a smooth low friction surface for joints
provide flexibility and support in respiratory system, frame for ossification (epiphyseal plste)

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59
Q

what are the two main materials in hyaline cartilage

A

chondrocytes

collagen

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60
Q

what is fibrocartilage made of?

A

combination of dense regular connective tissue and cartilage

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61
Q

location of fibrocartilage

A

o LOCATION:pubic symphysis, intervertebral discs, menisci of knee

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62
Q

function of fibrocartilage

A

o FUNCTION: support and fusion, resists deformation under stress

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63
Q

how many bones

A

206

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64
Q

what are the two classifications of bone tissue

A

compact , spongy

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65
Q

function of bones

A

support movement protection mineral storage
blood cell formation
energy storage

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66
Q

what are the 5 classifications of bones?

A 
long
short
flat
irregular
wormian
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67
Q

describe long bones

A

longer than they are wide

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68
Q

e.g. of long bones

A 
humerus
radius
ulna
pahalanges
femur
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69
Q

describe the diaphysis

A

shaft (diaphysis) – a cylinder of compact bone around the inner(medullary cavity, outer surface surrounded by a layer of connective tissue – periosteum, nutrient foramen

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70
Q

where is the epiphysis located

A
  • Epiphysis – end of the bone, spongy tissue, red bone marrow, articular cartilage
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71
Q

location of metaphysics in bones

A
  • Metaphysis – between diaphysis and epiphysis, in growing bone contains epiphyseal (growth) plate of hyaline cartilage (longitude growth), becomes epiphyseal line
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72
Q

e.g.s of short bones

A

carpals, tarsals

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73
Q

describe short bones

A

nearly equal in length and width

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74
Q

describe sesamoid bones

A
  • Develop in tendons as a response to physical stress; not always completely ossified
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75
Q

e.g.s of sesamoid bones

A

patella, pisiform

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76
Q

describe flat bones

A

• Two surface layers of compact bone and spongy bone in the centre is called diploë

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77
Q

e.g. of flat bones

A

• E.g. cranial bones, ribs, scapulae

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78
Q

e.g. of irregular bones

A

vertebrae, calcaneus, facial bones

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79
Q

where is the frontal bone located

A

front of cranium

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80
Q

where is the parietal bones located

A

 Theupper sides and rood of the craium
 Articulations form sutures:
- Coronal suture between frontal and parietal bones
- Sagital suture between parietals meet tempporals
- Squamous suture parietals meet temporals
- Lamboid suture where parietals meet occiptal

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81
Q

where is the temporals bone located

A

 Squamous part (zygomatic process – zygomatic arch)
 Tympanic part (external acoustic meatus – ear canal)
 Petrous part (the floor of the cranium)
 Styloid process (projects inferiorly)
 Mastoid process (can be used in sex determination)

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82
Q

where is the occipital bone located

A

 The posterior and most of the base of the skill
 Lambdiod suture (parietals)
 Foramen magnum (spingal cord)
 Occiptal condyles

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83
Q

where is the sphenoid bone located

A

 Part of the anterior and middl eportions of the base of the craium and orbit
 The body (sinus) and laterally projectign greater and lesser wings

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84
Q

where is the ethmoid bone located

A

 The anterior portion of the floor of the cranium between the orbits, roof and superior sidewalls of the nasal cavity, spetum
 ethmoid sinus
 Superior andmiddle nasal conchae- scross shaped plates of bone
 Humidifys air preparing it to go in the lungs

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85
Q

where is the fontaelles bone located

A

 Plates of cartilage (mesenchyme):

  • Anterior (1) between parietals and frontal (fuse 18-24 months)
  • Posterior (1) between parietals and occiptal (fuse 2-3 months)
  • Anterolateral (2) between frontal, parietal, temproal and sphenoid (fuses at 6 months)
  • Posterolateral (2) between parietal, occiptal and temporal (fuse 6-18 month)
  • Allows for baby to be birthed via pelvis – allows skull ot be manipulated and moved to birth – then fuse later
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86
Q

what are the three large distinct depressions

A
  1. The anterior cranial fossa: the frontal bone (anteriorly), ethmoid (middle), body and lesser wings of sphenoid (posteriorly)
  2. The middle cranial fossa: sella turcica (medially), greater wings of sphenoid, squamous (laterally) and petrous (posteriorly) parts of temporal
  3. The posterior cranial fossa: mainly occiptal
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87
Q

where is the maxilla

A

upper jaw

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88
Q

locate the palatine bone

A

top of mouth

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89
Q

locate zygomatic bone

A

cheekbones
• Lateral contours of the face, lateral margin of the orbit
• Temporal process and zygomatic process (temporal)= zygomatic arch
• Defines inferior margin orbit

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90
Q

locate lacrimal bone

A

tear ducts
The anterior part of the medial wall of the medial wall of the orbit
• Smallest facial bone
• Has a duct/hole which drains tears

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91
Q

locate the vomer

A
  • Thin, flat, forms the lower part of the nasal cavity (below superior and middle nasal conchae)
  • Component of nasal septum along with septal cartilage and perpendicular plate
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92
Q

locate the mandible

A

lower jaw
- Largest strongest facial bone
• Condylar process (forms main portion of a moving joint) vs. coronoid process

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93
Q

locate hyoid bone

A

• Not attached directly to any other bone

  • Located in the neck inferior to mandible
  • Suspended from the styloid process by the stylohyoid muscles and ligaments
  • Supports and acts as a moveable base for the tongue
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94
Q

list the regions of the vertebrae

A
  • Regions: cervical 7, thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacrum (5 fused), coccyx(4 fused)
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95
Q

list the curves of the vertebrae

A
  • Cervical (convex, secondary)
  • Thoracic (concave, primary)
  • Lumbar (convex, secondary)
  • Sacral (concave, primary)
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96
Q

describe the cervical vertebrae

A
  • Spinous process is unique to cervical vertebra
  • C1 and C2 are ATYPICAL
  • C3-C7 TYPICAL
  • Vertebra within neck
  • 7 vertebrae
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97
Q

describe the thoracic vertebrae

A
  • 12 which articulate with the 12 ribs
  • Transverse processes make contact with ribs and allow for ligament and tendon
  • Foramen is where spinal cord travelst hrough
  • 12 vertebrae
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98
Q

describe the lumbar vertebrae

A
  • Largest
  • Bears the most weight
  • Thick body, wider
  • Oval foramen
  • 5 vertebrae
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99
Q

describe sacrum and coccyx

A
  • Pelvis articulates with sacrum

* Last 9 of vertebra

100
Q

how many ribs

A

12 pairs

101
Q

describe the divisions of the ribs

A
  • True (1-7): attached directly to the sternum through their own costal cartilage
  • False (8-10); cartilage to that of the rib immediately superior – no direct attachment to sternum, instead attached to costal cartilage of the ribs above
  • Floating (11-12): do not connect – imbed into muscle of back
102
Q

describe the sternum

A
  • Middle part of thoracic cage
  • 3 regions: manubrium, body, xiphoid – where manubrium and body (sternum angle) connects acts a landmark to determine where we are in the midline (at rib 2)
103
Q

locate the scapula + classification

A

shoulder blade

- irregular flat

104
Q

locate the clavicle + classification

A

collar bone

long

105
Q

locate the humerus + classification

A

arm

long

106
Q

locate the ulna + classification

A

pinky side -medial
forearm
attaches to the tracheal of humerus
long

107
Q

locate the radius + classification

A 
forearm
thumb side - lateral-	
Head of radius joins with capitulum of humerus
has a flattened round head
long
108
Q

locate the carpals, metacarpals and phalanges

A 
carpal = wrist
metacarpal = mid finger
phalange = finger
109
Q

what makes up the pelvis

A 
hip bone (os coxa)
sacrum and coccyx
110
Q

what bones make up the os coxa

A
  • Illium
  • Ischium
  • Pubis
111
Q

which is supporting bone out of the tibia and fibula

A

fibula

112
Q

locate the tarsals, metatarsals and phalanges

A 
carpal = ankle
metacarpal = mid toe
phalange = toe
113
Q

what are the 3 functional classifications of joints

A
  • synarthrosis (no movement) e.g. sutures of skull, between manubrium and sternal body
  • amphiarthrosis (slight movement) e.g. pelvis when walking, vertebral joints
  • diarthrosis (free movement) e.g. shoulder joint, hip, knee… (typically in upper and lower limbs
114
Q

e.g. of synarthrosis

A

sutures of skull, between manubrium and sternal body

115
Q

e.g. of amphiarthrosis

A

e.g. pelvis when walking, vertebral joints

116
Q

e.g. of diarthrosis

A

e.g. shoulder joint, hip, knee… (typically in upper and lower limbs)

117
Q

describe lateral movement

A

abduction

118
Q

describe medial movement

A

adduction

119
Q

describe extension movement

A

straightening

120
Q

describe elevation

A

upward e.g. elevating the mandible, shrugging shoulder (elevation of scapula)

121
Q

describe depression

A

downwards e.g. depressing your mandible – opening mouth

122
Q

describe protraction

A

forwards e.g. push mandible forward

123
Q

describe inversion

A
  • inversion – when the sole of foot is exposed medially
124
Q

describe eversion

A
  • eversion – when the sole of food is exposed laterally – feet only
125
Q

describe dorsiflexion

A
  • dorsiflexion – when toes are pointed towards celling
126
Q

describe plantar flexion

A
  • plantar flexion – tippy toes – pointed downwards
127
Q

describe pronation

A
  • pronation – palm facing downwards
128
Q

describe supination

A
  • supination – palm facing upwards
129
Q

describe opposition

A
  • opposition – only of thumb – thumb crosses palm and touches fingers
130
Q

describe retraction

A

backwards e.g. bring mandible back

131
Q

what are the structural classifications of joints

A

synovial
fibrous joint
cartilagenous

132
Q

types of fibrous joints

A
  • sutures (synarthrosis)
  • syndesmoses (synarthrosis)
  • interosseous membrane (amphiarthrotic)
133
Q

describe fibrous joints

A

o no SC bones held together by dense regular connective tissue:

134
Q

describe cartilaginous joints

A

o no SC, bones held together by cartilage:

135
Q

types. of cartilaginous joints

A
  • synchondroses (synarthrotic)

- symphyses (amphiarthrotic)

136
Q

describe synovial joints

A

o SC present, bones connected by dense irregular connective tissue (articular capsule), accessory ligaments (diathrotic)

137
Q

types of synovial joints

A
  • planar
  • hinge
  • pivot
  • condyloid
  • saddle
  • ball and socket
138
Q

describe sutures

A
  • found between skull bones
  • irregular interlocking edges of skull bones
  • made of thin layer of dense regular tissue (short distance between articulating bones)
  • synarthrotic - no movement
139
Q

describe gomphoses

A
  • joint between alveolar process and tooth (tooth socket)
  • a greater distance between the articulating bones, therefore, more dense regular connective tissue compared ot sutures (ligaments)
  • synarthroritc
140
Q

describe syndesmoses

A
  • interosseous membrane
  • a substantial sheet of dense irregular connective tissue binds two bones
  • found between ulna and radius, tibia and fibula
  • amphiarthrotic – light movemnt
141
Q

describe cartilaginous joints

A
  • eithwe hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage between bones
  • lack of joint cavity
  • synarthrosis or amphiarthosis
  • two types:
     synchondroses (primary cartilaginous)
    symphyses (secondary cartilaginous)
142
Q

e.g, of synchondroses

A
  • e.g. epiphyseal plates: joint between 1st rib and manubrium
143
Q

e.g. of symphyses

A
  • e.g. pubic symphysis, intervertebral joints

- amphiarthrosis

144
Q

describe synchondroses

A
  • bones connected by hyaline cartilage
145
Q

describe symphyses

A
  • the articular surfaces covered with hyaline cartilage and united by fibrocartilage
146
Q

list the types of synovial joints

A 
planar
hinge
condyloid
saddle
pivot
ball and socket
147
Q

describe planar

A
  • articular suraces: flat or slightly curved
148
Q

e.g. planar joints

A
  • intertarsal, intercarpal, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular…
149
Q

describe hinge joints

A
  • articular surfaces: one convex and the other concave
150
Q

movement of planar joints

A
  • movement: gliding or sliding the plane of articular surfaces (biaxial)
151
Q

movement of hinge joints

A
  • movement: flexion and extension (uniaxial)
152
Q

e.g. hinge joints

A
  • knee (modified), elbow, interphalangeal, ankle
153
Q

describe condyloid joints

A
  • articular surfaces: one convex, oval shaped the other concave, oval-shaped
154
Q

movement of condyloid joints

A
  • movement: flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, circumduction (biaxial)
155
Q

describe saddle joints

A
  • articular surfaces : saddle (modified condyloid)
156
Q

movement of saddle joints

A
  • movements: flexion/extension, abduction/Adduction, circumduction (biaxial)
157
Q

e.g. of saddle joints

A
  • carpometacarpal between trapezium and metacarpal of the thumb
158
Q

describe pivot joints

A
  • arfticular surfaces: rounded/pointed and a ring (bone and ligament)
159
Q

movement of pivot joints

A
  • movmenet: rotation around the central axis (uniaxial)
160
Q

e.g. of pivot joints

A
  • medial atlantoaxial, proximal radionar joint
161
Q

describe ball and socket joint

A
  • articular surfaces: spheroisal surface fititn ginto a cup-like depression (socket)
162
Q

movement of ball and socket joint

A
  • movment; flexion/extension, adduction/abduction, rotation (triaxial)
163
Q

e.g. ball and socket joint

A

shoulder

hip joints

164
Q

what is osteogenic cells role

A

prominent role in growth and remodelling

165
Q

what is osteoblasts responsible for

A
  • Responsible for synthesis of organic component of matrix and influence deposition of inorganic components
166
Q

what is osteocytes responsible for

A
  • Cavities (lacunae) between (within) lamellae contain osteocytes
  • Process from osteocytes travel through small canals (canaliculi) to communicate with adjacent osteocytes
  • Osteocytes maintain bone matrix
  • Can respond to mechanical forces and lay down new matrix or remove matrix
167
Q

osteoclast

A
  • Arise by the fusion of monocytes or macrophages
  • Multinucleated, branched, motile, phagocytic, bone resorption
  • Osteoclast attach themselves to the bone matrix and form a tight seal at the rim of the attachment site. The cell membrane facing the matrix has deep invaginations forming a ruffled border
  • Use lysosomes to break down the matrix – resorption. Osteoclasts are stimulated (indirectly) by parathyroid hormone and inhibited by calcitonin (thyroid gland)
168
Q

function of muscle tissue

A
  • movement
  • stability
  • storage and movement of substances within the body
  • heat production
169
Q

properties of muscle tissue

A
  • electrical excitability
  • contractibility
  • extensibility
  • elasticity
170
Q

organisation of muscle

A
  • muscle
  • muscle fascicle
  • myofibers (cells)
  • myofibrils (organelles)
  • myofilaments (proteins)
171
Q

is skeletal tissue striated?

A

yes

172
Q

is cardiac tissue striated?

A

yes

173
Q

is smooth tissue striated?

A

no

174
Q

in skeletal muscle what is the proximal attachment / origin (appendicular skeleton)

A

attachment of the stationary bone

175
Q

in skeletal muscle what is the distal attachment/ insertion(appendicular skeleton)

A

attachment to the moveable bone

176
Q

in skeletal muscle what is the superior attachment (axial skeleton)

A

moveable

177
Q

in skeletal muscle what is the inferior attachment (axial skeleton)

A

less movable

178
Q

what is a myofiber

A

muscle cell

179
Q

what is a bundle/group of myofibers

A

fassicle

180
Q

what are the 3 layers of connective tissue that surround the skeletal muscle

A

 endomysium – surrounds myofibers
 perimysium – surrounds the fascicle
 epimysium – wraps everything together

181
Q

what is eccentric

A
  • eccentric – less force is exerted by the muscle than what is needed – half the amount
182
Q

what is concentric

A
  • concentric – more force than the weight is heavy is needed
183
Q

what nerve innovates the muscles of facial expression

A
  • facial nerve
184
Q

what is the function of muscles of facial expression

A
  • function: facial expression – moves the skin and not bones
185
Q

what nerve innovates the muscles of mastication

A
  • trigeminal nerve (mandibular division)
186
Q

function of the muscles of mastication

A

chewing

187
Q

what nerve innovates the muscles of the abdomen

A
  • thoracic spinal nn.
188
Q

what muscles make up the muscles of the abdomen

A

rectus abdominis
transversus abdominis
internal oblique
external oblique

189
Q

function of the muscles of the abdomen

A
  • anterolateral wall of abdomen
  • flexion of the trunk
  • support viscera
190
Q

what nerve innovates the muscles of respiration

A

phrenic nerve

191
Q

what muscles make up the muscles of respiration

A 
internal intercostals
external intercostals
diaphragm
caval opening
central tendon of diaphram
aortic opening
192
Q

what nerve innovates the muscles of the back

A

cervical, thoracic, lumbar spinal nerves

193
Q

what muscles make up the muscles of the back

A

erector spinae
- illocostalis group
- logissimus group
spinalis group

194
Q

function of the muscles fo the back

A

erects the spine

195
Q

what muscles make up the pectoral girdle and thorax

A 
deltoid
pectoralis major
latimus dorsi
rhomboid major
rhomboid minor
trapezius
pectoralis minor
196
Q

what muscles make up the UPPER LIMB(ANTERIOR COMPARTMENT OF THE ARM)

A

biceps brachii ,long and short heads

197
Q

what nerve innovates UPPER LIMB(ANTERIOR COMPARTMENT OF THE ARM)

A

musculocutaneous nerve

198
Q

what muscles make up the rotator cuff

A
  1. supraspinatus
  2. subscapularis
  3. infraspinatus
  4. teres minor
199
Q

function of rotator cuff muscles

A
  • stabilise shoulder joint

- involved in any movement of shoulder joint

200
Q

what muscle makes up the UPPER LIMB (POSTERIOR COMPARTMENT OF THE ARM)

A

triceps brachii

201
Q

what nerve innovates the UPPER LIMB (POSTERIOR COMPARTMENT OF THE ARM)

A

radial nerve

202
Q

function of UPPER LIMB (POSTERIOR COMPARTMENT OF THE ARM)

A

extension of the arm

203
Q

what muscles are included in the UPPER LIMB ( ANTERIOR COMPARMENT OF THE FOREARM)

A 
pronator teres
flexor carpi radiallis
flexor carpi ulnaris
palmaris longus
flexor digitorium superficailsi
204
Q

what nerve innovates the muscles UPPER LIMB ( ANTERIOR COMPARMENT OF THE FOREARM)

A
  • median and ulnar nn.
205
Q

function of the muscles of UPPER LIMB ( ANTERIOR COMPARMENT OF THE FOREARM)-

A

flexion of wrist and fingers

206
Q

what muscle makes up the UPPER LIMB (POSTERIOR COMPARTMEMT OF THE FOREAEM)

A

extensor digitorum

207
Q

what nerve makes innovates the UPPER LIMB (POSTERIOR COMPARTMEMT OF THE FOREAEM)

A

radial nerve

208
Q

what is the function of UPPER LIMB (POSTERIOR COMPARTMEMT OF THE FOREAEM)

A

extension of wrist and fingers

209
Q

what muscles make up the hand

A
  • thenar eminence

- hypothenar eminence

210
Q

what nerve innovates the muscles of the hand

A
  • ulnar and median nn.
211
Q

function of the gluteal region of the lower limb

A
  • function: extend thigh hip, abduction and external rotation
212
Q

what muscles make up the gluteal region of the lower limb

A 
gluteus maxiumius
gluteus medius
piriforms
superior gemmellus
obturator intermus
inferior gemellus
quadrates femoris
213
Q

what muscles make up the LOWER LIMB (ANTEIROR COMPARTMENT OF THE THIGH)

A

rectus femoris
vastus medialis
vastus laterus

214
Q

what nerve innovates LOWER LIMB (ANTEIROR COMPARTMENT OF THE THIGH)

A

femoral nerve

215
Q

function of muscles of the LOWER LIMB (ANTEIROR COMPARTMENT OF THE THIGH)

A

extension of the knee

216
Q

what nerve innovates the LOWER LIMB (MEDIAL COMPARTMENT OF THE THIGH)

A

obturator nerve

217
Q

function of the muscles of LOWER LIMB (MEDIAL COMPARTMENT OF THE THIGH)

A

adduct the hip

218
Q

what make sup the hamstring group -LOWER LIMB (POSTERIOR COMPARTMENT OF THE THIGH)

A
  • hamstring group:
     semimembranosus
     semitendinosus
     biceps femoris
219
Q

what nerve innovates LOWER LIMB (POSTERIOR COMPARTMENT OF THE THIGH)

A
  • tibial and common fibular (from sciatic)
220
Q

function ofLOWER LIMB (POSTERIOR COMPARTMENT OF THE THIGH)

A

extend hip flex knee

221
Q

what muscles make upLOWER LIMB (ANTERIOR COMPARTMENT OF THE LEG)

A

tibialis anterior
extensor digitorium longus
extensor hallicus longus

222
Q

what nerve innovates the muscles LOWER LIMB (ANTERIOR COMPARTMENT OF THE LEG)

A

deep fibular n

223
Q

function of the muscles LOWER LIMB (ANTERIOR COMPARTMENT OF THE LEG)

A

dorsiflexion

224
Q

what muscles make up the LOWER LIMB (LATERAL COMPARMENT TOF THE LEG)

A

fibulas longus

fibulas brevis

225
Q

what nerve innovates muscles of LOWER LIMB (LATERAL COMPARMENT TOF THE LEG)

A
  • superficial fibular (peroneal) n.
226
Q

function of the muscles of LOWER LIMB (LATERAL COMPARMENT TOF THE LEG)

A

eversion of foot

227
Q

what muscles make up the LOWER LIMB (POSTERIOR COMPARMENT OF THE LEG)

A

gastrocnemius - lateral and medial heads

228
Q

function of the muscles LOWER LIMB (POSTERIOR COMPARMENT OF THE LEG)

A

plantar-flexion

229
Q

what nerve innovates muscles of LOWER LIMB (POSTERIOR COMPARMENT TOF THE LEG)

A

tibial

230
Q

locate the apex of heart

A

pointy bottom

231
Q

what is the posterior surface made of

A

predominantly made up of left and right atrium

232
Q

function of pericardium

A
  • keep the heart in place while allowing the freedom to move
233
Q

what are the two layers of pericaridum

A

fibrous (outer)

serous (inner)

234
Q

what makes up the walls of the heart

A

epicardium
myocaridum
endocardium

235
Q

what is the inner wall of the heart

A

endocardium

236
Q

what is the middle wall of the heart

A

myocardium - (95% of wall)

237
Q

what is the external wall of heart

A

epicardium

238
Q

what are the two receiving chambers of heart

A

atria

239
Q

what are the two pumping chambers of heart

A

ventricles

240
Q

what and where are the grooves on the heart

A
  • coronary (between atria and ventricles
  • anterior and posterior interventricular (btw the ventricles)
  • sulci contain coronary vessel supplying heart wall
241
Q

what does the right atrium recive

A
  • receives deoxygenated blood from: inferior and superior vena cava and coronary sinus
242
Q

what are the features of the right atrium

A
  • posterior wall smooth
  • anterior wall rough – musculi pectinate, auricle
  • interatrial septum
     fossa ovalis (foramen oval: opening in foetal heart to direct blood from right to left atria to bypass non-functioning foetal lungs closes after birth)
  • right atrioventricular (tricuspid)
  • quite a thin wall
243
Q

what does the right ventricle pump

A
  • pumps deoxygenated blood to the pulmonary trunk (artery) through the pulmonary (semilunar) value to the lungs
244
Q

features of right ventricle

A
  • thick muscular walls, intraventricular septum
  • inner surface: muscular ridges – trabeculae carinae
  • the cusps of the tricuspid value connected to the papillary muscles via the chordae tendineae
245
Q

what dies the left atrium receive

A
  • receives oxygenated blood from the four pulmonary veins
246
Q

features of left atrium

A
  • left atrioventricular orifice closed by the left atrioventricular (bicuspid, mitral) value
  • slightly above and behind the atrium – superior and posterior
  • holds less blood than right atrium
  • much thicker myocardium than right atrium

ANAT 1001 (4 decks)

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