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PPL AIR LAW Flashcards

1
Q

What are the basic requirements to obtain a private pilots license?

A

Minimum age of 17
Minimum category three medical
40 hours of ground school
Minimum 60% overall and in individual subject areas in written exams
Minimum 45 hours flight instruction which may include a maximum of five hours in a simulator or flight training device

Minimum 17 hours dual
Minimum 12 hours solo including five cross-country hours

Must have completed a cross country flight of at least 150 nautical miles which includes at least to en-route landings

Successful flight test

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2
Q

What happens if you fail the written exam?

A

First failure retake in 14 days

Second failure retake in 30 days

Third or subsequent failures 30 days plus an additional 30 days for each failure up to a maximum of 180 days

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3
Q

When does night begin and end?

A

Gnite is the period from the end of evening twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Practically it is the. 1/2 hour after sunset and 1/2 hour before sunrise

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4
Q

Requirements for an aerodrome to be useable at night

A

Fixed steady white lights to mark takeoff and landing areas

Fixed red light to mark unserviceable or hazardous areas

The windsock must be lighted

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5
Q

Define aircraft

A

Anything which flies

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6
Q

Categories of Aircraft

A

Ultralight airplane, Aeroplan, glider, balloons, gyroplane, helicopter

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7
Q

Classes of aeroplanes

A

Seaplane and land plane

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8
Q

Types of land planes

A

Blanket type rating, individual type rating

High-performance Aeroplan, minimum two crew airplane

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9
Q

What are we likely to have on your pilots license in terms of endorsement? Or a blanket type rating?

A

all single pilot non-high performance, single engine land airplanes

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10
Q

For what do you require an individual type rating?

A

High-performance airplanes, and Aeroplan is requiring more than one crewmember

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11
Q

Define a high-performance Aeroplan

A

Certified minimum flight crew of 1

Vne: 250 KIAS or greater

Vso: 80 KIAS or greater

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12
Q

Requirements to fly a high-performance Aeroplan

A

Complete ground school training

Complete flight training

200 hours on airplanes

Complete qualifying flight

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13
Q

Requirements to fly to crew airplane

A

Complete ground school and flight training program

Obtained at 70% on I a T R a within 24 months proceeding the application

Complete flight training on type

Have at least 250 pilot flight time in airplanes

Pass a pilot proficiency check within 12 months proceeding the application for the rating

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14
Q

To meet the basic recency requirements a pilot must

A

One. I have flown as a pilot in command or is it copilot within the previous five years

Or

Have successfully completed both of Flight review conducted by Flight Instructor and the appropriate written examination specified in the personal licensing standards within the previous 12 months

And

Have completed the recurrent training program within the previous 24 months

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15
Q

What are the requirements in order to carry passengers in an airplane

A

Have completed within the last six months:

Five night or day takeoffs and five night or day landings, if the flight was with passengers to be conducted holy by day, or

Five night takeoff and five night landings, if the flight with passengers is to be conducted holy or partly by night

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16
Q

If you change your address how long do you have to notify the department of transportation?

A

Seven days.

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17
Q

Minimum disability requirements for VFR flight went flying within a controlled airspace during the day and at night

A

Flight visibility of 3 miles

Horizontal distance from cloud of 1 mile

Vertical distance from cloud is 500 feet

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18
Q

Minimum Vizza Bility requirements for VF our flight when flying within a control zone

A

Reported grand visibility must be at least three statute miles

May not operate at less than 500 feet above the ground unless taking off or landing

The above requirements may be relaxed if requested by the pilot. If that’s allowed, then you may operate in terms of special VFr or SVFR

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19
Q

What are the conditions of a special VFR

A

Must have a radio on board

Flight visibility and reported ground visibility is 1 mile or greater

Flight must be conducted clear of clouds and within sight of the ground at all times

Any other restrictions which ATC might impose

At night there is greater risk, and so SVFR will only be allowed for landing aircraft and not for departing aircraft

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20
Q

Minimum visibility requirements when flying and uncontrolled air space at or above 1000 AGL

A

Flight visibility is 1 mile by day or 3 miles by night

Horizontal distance from cloud is 2000 feet by day and by night

Vertical distance from cloud is 500 feet by day and by night

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21
Q

Minimum Vizza Bility requirements for VFR flight when flying in uncontrolled airspace below 1000 feet AGL

A

Flight visibility is 2 miles by day and 3 miles by night

Distance from cloud: clear of cloud by day and by night

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22
Q

What are the aircraft equipment requirements for Day VFR flight?

A

An altimeter, or a sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure if the aircraft is operated in controlled airspace

And airspeed indicator

A magnetic compass

A tachometer for each engine

Oil pressure indicator

A coolant temperature indicator for each liquid cooled engine

And oil temperature indicator for each air cooled engine having a separate oil system

A manifold pressure gauge if required

Fuel gauge

Landing gear position indicator

A radio communication system adequate for class B class C or class D airspace or an MF area

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23
Q

Minimum survival equipment for flights Overland

A

Starting a fire
Providing shelter
Providing or purifying water
Visually signalling distress

Must have equipment for each person on board, and it must be appropriate for the geography and the season

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24
Q

Exceptions to the minimum survival equipment requirements

A

Not required on:

balloons, gliders, hang gliders, etc.

Aircraft that are operated within 25 nautical miles of the air drum of departure and have radio

Multi engine operators south of 66° and 30 minutes north latitude in IFR within controlled airspace or long designated routes

Aircraft that are operated by an air operator and specified equipment in the air operators operations manual

Aircraft that are operated in a geographic area where and at a time of year were the survival of the person is not jeopardized

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25
Q

Seatbelt requirements

A

Seatbelts for every person on board except infants

Each front seat has shoulder harness Unless the plane was manufactured before July 1978

Every seat on small airplanes manufactured after December 12, 1986 is required to have shoulder harnesses

Seatbelts must be fastened during taxi, takeoff and landing in any other time considered necessary for safety

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26
Q

Oxygen requirements above 10,000 feet below 13,000 feet ASL

A

If for more than 30 minutes, we are required to carry oxygen for the flight crew and at least 10% of the passengers for the period exceeding 30 minutes.

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27
Q

Oxygen requirements above 13,000 feet ASL

A

I’ll people on board are required to be using oxygen at all times

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28
Q

Documents required on board

A

Crew licenses and ratings

Medical certificates

Certificate of airworthiness

Certificate of registration

Journey logbook

Proof of liability insurance

Aircraft flight manual

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29
Q

Passenger briefing checklist

A

Exit

Seatbelts

ELT

Survival equipment and first aid kit

Flotation equipment as required

Oxygen equipment as required

Storage of luggage

Seats and tables

Smoking no smoking

Don’t touch the controls

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30
Q

Equipment required over water

A

Within gliding distance: no equipment is required

Within 50 nautical miles of shoreline: life preserver for every person on board

Within 100 nautical miles or the distance which can be flowing in 30 minutes: life preserver for each person

Within 200 nautical miles of shoreline or the distance which can be flown in 60 minutes: both a life preserver per person and a life raft

Multi engine aircraft able to maintain flight with one engine required to carry life Ralphs in addition to a life preserver for each person

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31
Q

What’s the difference between southern and northern domestic air spaces?

A

In the northern domestic airspace, runway headings and tracks are referenced to true north, while in the south there a reference to magnetic north

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32
Q

Flight information regions FIRs in Canada

A

There are seven: Vancouver, Edmonton, Winnipeg, Toronto, Montreal, Monkton, gander domestic and gander oceanic

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33
Q

Describe the operations in a standard pressure region for your altimeter

A

Prior to takeoff, set the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome, or the elevation setting of the eardrum

Prior to levelling off the desired flight level set the alternator to standard pressure (29.92)

Prior to convincing your final descent to land The altimeter should be set to the altimeter setting of the destinations aerodrome

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34
Q

Describe the altimeter operations in the altimeter setting region

A

Prior to take off, set the current alternator setting of the air drum

During the flight set is to the nearest stations along the route

When approaching the aerodrome of intended landing, set the altimeter to the Aerodrome altimeter setting

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35
Q

Altimeter reporting transponders are required in the following class airspace

A

A, B, C, and designated D & E airspace

36
Q

Standard squawk code at or below 12,500 feet

A

1200 unless specified by ATC

37
Q

Standard squawk code above 12,500

A

1400 unless specified by ATC

38
Q

What are the three 7XXX squawk codes

A

7500 – hijacking

7600 – communication failure

7700 – emergency

39
Q

What happens when ATC services are not operating in a class C airspace?

A

DCFS states that the class C airspace will revert to a class E status when ATC services are not available BUT it is still considered controlled, so use MF procedures

40
Q

Light signal – series of green flashes

A

Cleared to taxi / return for landing

41
Q

Light signal - steady red light

A

Ground: Stop / air: give way to other aircraft and continue circling

42
Q

Light signal to Aircraft on the ground – flashing white light

A

Return to starting point

43
Q

Light signal – steady green light

A

On the ground – cleared for takeoff

In the air end cleared to land

44
Q

Light signals - series of red flashes

A

Taxi clear of runway / airport unsafe; do not land

45
Q

Blinking runway lights

A

All vehicles and pedestrians must vacate the runways immediately

46
Q

The firing of a red pyrotechnical light or flare

A

Do not land for the time being

47
Q

How much fuel do we need for non-pressurized, single-engine, propeller

A

VFR Day: destination + 30 min at cruise

VFR Night: destination + 45 min at cruise

In addition, sufficient fuel for taxi and foreseeable delays

Cannot start a flight or change destinations without confirming.

48
Q

When can you test an ELT?

A

The first 5 min of any UTC hour for a max of 5 seconds

49
Q

En-route monitoring frequency

A

126.7Mhz

50
Q

When en-route in VFR in uncontrolled airspace what is the requirement for position reporting?

A

ID, Position, Time, Altitude, VFR or VFR OTT, Destination

51
Q

At what altitude does VFR mandatory directions start?

A

3,000 AGL

52
Q

Altitude for a track of 000 - 179

A

VFR: Odd thousand of feet ASL +500

CVFR (over 12,500 ASL): odd thousand of feet ASL

53
Q

Mandatory altitude for a track of 180-359

A

VFR: even thousand of feet ASL +500

CVFR (over 12,500 ASL): even thousand of feet ASL

54
Q

Class F Airspace

A

Need to create this answer

55
Q

Immediate action to take if intercepted by military aircraft

A

Take retaliatory action. Fly straight and level and do the following:

Follow the instructions from the intersecting aircraft, interpreting and responding to their visual signals

If possible, notify the appropriate air traffic services unit

Try to establish radio communication by making a general call on 121.5 MHz, giving aircraft identification, position, and nature of the flight

Select transponder mode a code 7700 unless otherwise instructed by the air traffic services unit

56
Q

Interception signals initiated by the intercepting aircraft

A

Series 1: you have been intercepted. Follow me

Series 2: you may proceed

Series 3: land at this aerodrome

57
Q

Intercepting signals initiated by the intercepted aircraft

A

Series 4: aerodrome you have selected it is inadequate

Series 5: cannot comply

Series 6: in distress

58
Q

Communication failure procedure in class B, C, or D airspace

A

you must:
1. If in a control zone, leave the controlled airspace by landing at the aerodrome within the control zone.

2
If the airspace is not a control zone, leave the controlled airspace by the shortest route possible

3.
Set your transponder to code 7600

4
Maintain a listening watch on the appropriate frequencies

5.
Attempt to contact any other ATC unit or other aircraft on appropriate frequencies and request a relay of information to the appropriate ATC unit

  1. If none of the attempts above succeed, attempt to contact the ATC unit via cell phone
  2. After landin, inform the air traffic control unit as soon as possible of the situation - usually by calling them after you have landed.
    If you need to get to an aerodrome so that repairs can be effected then you should call and make arrangements with the air traffic control unit to allow you to enter the
    controlled airspace. They will then be able to issue instructions via light signals.
59
Q

Minimum altitude/obstacle clearance regulations

A

If you were flying over a built up area or an open air assembly of people, you must fly at an altitude which allows you to execute a safe landing in the event of an emergency but never lower than 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius of 2000 feet

Elsewhere, you may not fly closer than 500 feet from any person, Vehicle, or structure

60
Q

Minimum altitude to overfly and aerodrome while en route

A

You may not fly lower than 2000 feet above aerodrome elevation (AAE)

61
Q

Hand starting an airplane

A

Land plane: competent person seated at the controls and precautions taken to prevent aircraft movement

See plan: aircraft is in a location which will not endanger persons or property

62
Q

CYR ###

A

Class F Restricted

May only enter with prior permission from the operator

63
Q

CYA ###

A

Class F Advisory

VFR may enter, but must keep alert and are encouraged not to enter.

64
Q

Can IFR enter Class F Airspace

A

They will not be permitted or cleared by ATC, unless the pilot has obtained prior permission from the user agency.

65
Q

Do all class of restricted areas show up on maps?

A

No, they can be created by NOTAMS

66
Q

Unless otherwise specified in a class F air space, what radio frequency should you use?

A

126.7 MHz

67
Q

What does CYA ###(T) indicate / CYA ###(M)

A

The T indicates Training

M indicates military

68
Q

What are the area activity codes in the class F advisory airspace?

A 
A - Aerobatic
H - Hang Gliders
S - Soaring
T - Flight Training
P - Parachute
M - Military
F - Flight Test Area
69
Q

What happens if a forest fire starts?

A

It, from the surface to 3000 AGL in a 5 nm radius INSTANTLY becomes a Class F Airspace

70
Q

Define L route

A

An L route is a GPS navigation route that is not controlled.

71
Q

Class G Airspace extends up to, but not including

A

18,000’ ASL in the southern domestic airspace (because there may be overlying Class A)

23,000’ in northern domestic airspace

Higher in arctic region

72
Q

What class airspace is required transponder?

A

All Class A, B, C airspace REQUIRE a transponder.

Class D & E MAY require a transponder as specified in the DAH.

73
Q

Low Level Air Routes

A

In Class G. Similar to airways, but are uncontrolled. They start at the surface and are designated by two letters and a number. E.g., AR34

74
Q

L-Routes

A

Uncontrolled RNAV Routes

75
Q

Designated Area Handbook (DEH)

A

A booklet from Transport Canada which describes various Canadian Airspaces.

76
Q

When do you need to file a flight plan or flight itinerary?

A

VFR unless flying less than 25 nautical miles of the departure aerodrome

Any time flying to the US

When flying into or within an ADIZ

77
Q

Who should you file your flight plan with?

A

ATC, a flight service station, or a community aerodrome radio station

78
Q

With whom should you file a flight itinerary?

A

A responsible person, unless you are flying into or within ADIZ. In which case it can only be filed with an air traffic control unit, flight service station, or community aerodrome radio station

79
Q

If you have filed a VF our flight plan and wish to make changes, how soon must you notify ATC?

A

As soon as practicable

80
Q

Closing a flight plan

A

As soon as practicable, but no later than the search and rescue initiation time specified, and if no certain rescue specified, then within one hour after the last reported ETA

81
Q

How soon after landing do you need to close your flight itinerary?

A

As soon as practical, but no later than the search and rescue limit specified, and if no search and rescue time was specified, then within 24 hours after the last reported ETA

82
Q

Minimum altitude for transiting and aerodrome

A

2000 above aerodrome level AAL Unless you have approval from the appropriate air traffic control authority

83
Q

What speed must a flight plan be filed in?

A

TAS

84
Q

Flight plans may be filed up to — hours prior to departure

A

24 hours

85
Q

Cruising altitudes in southern domestic air space is based on the

A

Magnetic track

aviation (22 decks)

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