IFR Flashcards

1
Q

List six parts of the approach plate.

A
  1. Margin Identification
  2. Briefing Strip
  3. Planview
  4. Profile
  5. Airport Sketch
  6. Landing Minimums
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2
Q

7xxx squawk codes, as well as the two 1xxx squawk codes

A

7500 is the transponder code for hijacking.
7600 is the transponder code for communication failure.
7700 is the transponder code for emergencies.
1000 is the default IFR transponder code in low level airspace, should no specific transponder have been assigned.
1200 vfr

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3
Q

NDB

A

Nondirectional radio Beacon. This is a very poor accuracy device and it’s being phased out

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4
Q

IFR Applicant Hours Minimums

A

An applicant shall have completed a minimum of:

50 hours of cross-country flight as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which 10 hours must be in the appropriate category; and
40 hours of instrument time of which a maximum of 20 hours may be instrument ground time. The 40 hours instrument time shall include a minimum of:
5 hours of dual instrument flight time acquired from the holder of a flight instructor rating ,
5 hours in aeroplanes where the applicant is applying for a Group 1, 2 or 3 instrument rating or in helicopters where the applicant is applying for a Group 4 instrument rating,
Fifteen (15) hours of dual instrument flight time provided by a qualified person as specified in section 425.21(9); and
one dual cross-country flight under simulated or actual IMC conditions of a minimum of 100 nautical miles, the flight to be conducted in accordance with an IFR flight plan to include at, two different locations, an instrument approach to minima.

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5
Q

VFR OTT Weather Minima

A

CAR 602.116 specifies the weather minima for VFR OTT. A summary of the minima follows:

  • VFR OTT is allowed during the cruise portion of the flight in day only,.
  • The aircraft must be operated at a vertical distance from cloud of at least 1 000 ft.
  • Where the aircraft is operated between two cloud layers, those layers must be at least 5 000 ft apart.
  • The flight visibility at the cruising altitude of the aircraft must be at least 5 mi.
  • The weather at the destination aerodrome must have a sky condition of scattered cloud or clear, and a ground visibility of 5 mi. or more, with no forecast of precipitation, fog, thunderstorms, or blowing snow, and these conditions must be forecast to exist
    in the case of an aerodrome forecast (TAF), for the period from 1 hr before to 2 hr after the ETA; and
  • in the case of an area forecast (GFA) because a TAF is not available, for the period from 1 hr before to 3 hr after the ETA.
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6
Q

Runway distances

A
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7
Q

• One-engine-inoperative take-off distance

A

means the distance from the start of the take-off roll to the point at which the aeroplane reaches 35 feet above the runway elevation, where failure of the critical engine is recognized at V1.

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8
Q

• One-engine-inoperative take-off run

A

means the distance from the start of the take-off roll to the point midway between the lift-off point and the point at which the aeroplane reaches 35 feet above the runway elevation, where failure of the critical engine is recognized at V1.

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9
Q

Required take-off distance

A

means the one-engine-inoperative take-off distance or 115 per cent of the all-engines-operating take-off distance, whichever is greater.

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10
Q

Required take-off run

A

means the one-engine-inoperative take-off run or 115 per cent of the all-engines-operating take-off run, whichever is greater.

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11
Q

Indicated altitude

A

is read directly from the altimeter when set to current barometric pressure

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12
Q

Pressure altitude

A

Pressure altitude is read from the altimeter when set to the standard barometric pressure of 29.92 in. Hg;

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13
Q

Density altitude

A

Density altitude is the pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature;

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14
Q

True altitude

A

True altitude is the exact height above mean sea level;

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15
Q

Absolute altitude

A

Absolute altitude is the actual height above the earth’s surface.

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16
Q

A Standard Rate Turn takes ___ minutes and moves through ___ degrees per second.

A

2, 3

17
Q

When flying East or West, turning to the North will cause the compass to ______ and turning South will cause the compass to _____.

A

Lag, Lead

18
Q

Compass Error when flying East or West the compass will _____ when you accelerate, and _____ when you decelerate.

A

ANDS: accelerate north, decelerate south.

19
Q

HSI

A

Horizontal Situation Indicator

20
Q

TCAS

A

Traffic Alert & Collision Avoidance System

21
Q

AHRS

A

Attitude & Heading Reference System (AHRS)

22
Q

Attenuation definition and two primary causes

A

The progressive weakening of radar signal due to the signal being scattered and diffused.
Two primary causes are DISTANCE and PRECIPITATION

23
Q

Contour lines will be shown when terrain exceeds _____ feet above airport elevation or when terrain within ___ nm of the Aérodrome Reference Point rises to exceed ___ feet above aérodrome.

A

4000’ / 6 nm / 2000’

24
Q

Contour lines begin at ____ feet above aérodrome elevation and have intervals of ____ feet.

A

500’ / 1,000’