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ARE 5.0 > PPD > Flashcards

PPD Flashcards

1
Q

Rule of thumb for estimating parking count

A

400sf per car
includes drive aisles, drives, parking spaces, and minimal landscaping

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2
Q

What is the drainage slope for parking lots

A

2% or 3%

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3
Q

definition of a fire partition

A

a wall assembly with a 1hr fire resistance rating

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4
Q

Where must fire partitions be used

A

walls separating dwelling units
wall separating guest rooms in group R-2
walls separating tenant spaces in covered and open mall buildings
corridor walls
elevator lobbies

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5
Q

Which assembly must be continuous from floor to floor or floor to roof? Fire partition or fire barrier?

A

fire barrier

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6
Q

What is the maximum opening size in a fire barrier?

A

25% the length of the wall
however, any single opening can not exceed 156sf in area

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7
Q

What does glazing assembly rating W stand for

A

wall assembly

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8
Q

What does glazing assembly rating D stand for

A

fire door assembly

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9
Q

What does glazing assembly rating OH stand for

A

Fire window or hose stream test

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10
Q

What does glazing assembly rating H stand for

A

Hose stream test

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11
Q

What does glazing assembly rating T stand for

A

Temperature
450F for 30 min

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12
Q

What is a fire wall

A

a rated wall that is used to separate construction types or to provide more allowable area by creating separate buildings

Must extend from foundation to roof

One structure must be allowed to fail without affecting the structural stability of the adjacent building.

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13
Q

What is a smoke barrier

A

a continuous vertical or horizontal membrane with minimum fire resistant rating of 1hr constructed to restrict the movement of smoke

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14
Q

Class I vs Class II materials

A

Class I is more resistant to flame spread than Class II

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15
Q

Define accessory occupancy

A

a space or room that is ancillary to the main occupancy but does not exceed more than 10% of total area.

Does not need to be separated from main occupancy with a fire barrier.

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16
Q

Define incidental use

A

is ancillary to main occupancy and has same classification, but poses a greater level of risk than that occupancy .

Must be separated by a fire barrier, equipped with automatic sprinkler, or both.

Can not excess 10% of total area

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17
Q

What is the minimum rating for a door in a 1hr wall assembly

A

20 min

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18
Q

What defines a high rise building

A

75 ft
fire department apparatus may not be able to reach above 75ft

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19
Q

What is a bulk plane restriction

A

a zoning technique that establishes an imaginary inclined plane at beginning of lot line and slopes at a prescribed angle toward and over the lot. Building cannot intersect this plane

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20
Q

What is the minimum clear floor space to accommodate a stationary wheel chair

A

30in x 48in

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21
Q

ADA unobstructed forward reach range

A

15in-48in

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22
Q

What is the max opening force required to push or pull open an interior door

A

5lb-ft

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23
Q

Name the factors that affect human comfort

A

temperature
humidity
air movement
temperature radiation from objects
air quality
sound
vibration
light

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24
Q

Name the three ways the body loses heat

A

convection
evaporation
radiation

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25
Q

What factors does thermal comfort rely on

A

air temp
humidity
air movement
surface temp
clothing
ventilation

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26
Q

What is the general temperature range for comfort

A

69F - 80F

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27
Q

What is effective temperature

A

value that combines the effects of air temp, humidity, and air movement

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28
Q

What is operative temperature

A

an average of the air temp and MRT (mean radiant temperature) of a space

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29
Q

What is mean radiant temperature

A

an average of various surface temps in a room

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30
Q

What is heat loss through infiltration

A

transfer of air through open doors, cracks, flues, vents, and other gaps in construction

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31
Q

How many grades of oil are there?

A

six
#1, #2, #4, #5, #5 heavy, #6
lower numbers are more refined and more expensive

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32
Q

What are three fundamental components of a compressive refrigeration system

A

compressor, condensor, and evaporator

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33
Q

What are the 4 main types of all-air systems

A

VAV
Dual-duct system
Reheat (constant volume)
Multizone

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34
Q

Describe VAV system

A

Variable air volume
Air is heated or cooled in a central plant and distributed to the building at a constant temp through a single duct

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35
Q

Describe dual-duct system

A

Two parallel ducts run to each space; one carries hot air and the other cool air

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36
Q

Describe reheat systems

A

(constant volume)
Mixes return and fresh air - cools and dehumidifies mixture and then distributes at a constant volume at low temp throughout building

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37
Q

Describe multizone system

A

supplies air to central mixing unit where separate hot and cold airstreams are distributed

Can simultaneously heat and cool different zones

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38
Q

Ohm’s law for DC circuits equation

A

I = V/R

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39
Q

Power equation

A

P = (V)(I)

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40
Q

Ohm’s law for AC circuits equation

A

I = V/Z

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41
Q

Two types of underfloor raceways

A

underfloor ducts
Cellular metal floors

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42
Q

What is the most common form or electrical energy used in buildings?

A

Alternating current (AC)

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43
Q

(solar heating)
describe batch system

A

heats water directly in a black-painted tank inside a glazed box

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44
Q

(solar heating)
describe thermosiphon system

A

Relies on natural movement of heated water to circulate the water in a passive, open loop system

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45
Q

(solar heating)
describe closed-loop active system

A

one of most common types for residential and commercial applications - a nonfreezing fluid is circulated by pumps through the solar collectors and into a heat exchanger where hot water is heated.

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46
Q

(solar heating)
describe drain-down system

A

direct, active system that drains the water from the collectors when outside temp is near freezing

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47
Q

what is considered “long span”

A

over 60ft in length

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48
Q

practical span of steel girders

A

72ft

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49
Q

Rigid frame system

A

vertical and horizontal members resist loads by flexure - moment and loads are transferred from beams to columns

used for industrial facilities, warehouses, and manufacturing plants

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50
Q

Three groups of joists

A

K-series
LH-series
DLH-series

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51
Q

K-series

A

joists that can span up to 60ft

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52
Q

LH and DLH-series

A

considered long span joist systems

LH - supports floor and roofs
up to 96ft

DLH - supports roofs
up to 144ft

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53
Q

What is camber

A

the rise in a beam to compensate for deflection when load is applied

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54
Q

Glued-laminate beam span

A

rarely exceeds 60ft

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55
Q

Six general considerations that affect the cost of any structure

A

structural system
material
labor
equipment
construction time
integration with other bldg systems

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56
Q

what are maximum shipment lengths

A

60ft for trucks
80ft for railroad

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57
Q

Are one-way or two-way structural systems more efficient

A

two-way

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58
Q

Types of two-way long span systems

A

space frames
domes
thin-shell structures
air-supported structures
membrane structures

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59
Q

Types of one-way long span systems

A

steel girders
rigid frames
Trusses
Vierendeel trusses
glued-laminate beams
prestressed concrete
post-tensioned concrete
arches

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60
Q

what is the transmittance of clear glass?
frosted glass?

A

85%
70%-85%

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61
Q

Define candlepower

A

unit of luminous intensity approximately equal to the horizontal lifer output from an ordinary wax candle

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62
Q

Define illuminance

A

density of luminous flux incident on a surface, expressed in lumens per unit area

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63
Q

Define lumen

A

the amount of light at the bulb or source

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64
Q

name the two types of glare

A

direct and reflected

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65
Q

name the four types of primary light sources

A

incandescent lamps
fluorescent lamps
high-intensity discharge (HID)
light-emitting diodes (LED)

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66
Q

Define efficacy

A

ratio of luminous flux emitted to the total power input to the source and is measured in lumens per watt

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67
Q

Describe incandescent lamp properties

A

a tungsten filament with sealed glass bulb containing inert gas
Operate at high temperatures

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68
Q

Describe fluorescent lamp properties

A

contain a mixture of an inert gas and low-pressure mercury vapor
high efficacy (80lm/W)

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69
Q

Name the three types of fluorescent lights

A

preheat lamps
rapid-start lamps
instant-start lamps

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70
Q

Describe HID lamp properties

A

Includes mercury vapor, metal halide, high and low pressure sodium

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71
Q

Describe LED properties

A

a semiconductor device that uses solid-state electronics to create light

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72
Q

Name the three basic qualities of sound

A

velocity, frequency, and power

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73
Q

what is the threshold for human hearing? for pain?

A

0db
130db

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74
Q

What should the average absorption coefficient of a room be?

A

at least 0.20

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75
Q

Hydraulic elevator vs electric elevator

A

hydraulic - lifted by plunger set in ground
only used in buildings less than 50ft in verticality

electric - a cab system suspended by cables over a sheave and attached to counterweight (traction elevators)

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76
Q

What are the two types of electric elevators

A

geared traction - slow speeds

gearless traction - high speed, DC power

77
Q

What is the max number of elevators in a hoistway enclosure

A

4

78
Q

What is the angle of an escalator

A

30 degrees

79
Q

Minimum stair widths

A

36in
or 44in when occupant load exceeds 50
handrails may project a max of 4 1/2” on both sides of stairway

80
Q

Maximum distance between stair landings

A

12ft

81
Q

4 types of soil

A

gravel
silt
clay
organics

82
Q

What is the minimum number of borings for a site

A

4
one at each corner of the building

83
Q

What is a test pit

A

a common type of subsurface exploration
trenches dug on site to allow visual inspection of soil strata
depth about 10ft

84
Q

What is karst

A

landscape in which soluble rocks such as limestone, dolomite, and gypsum have dissolved, forming caves and other voids below surface

Can cause sink holes

85
Q

Soil properties tested from field samples

A

grain size and shape
liquid and plastic limits
specific gravity
unconfined compression
water content

86
Q

What is surcharging

A

preloading of the ground with fill material to cause consolidation and settlement of underlying soil before building

87
Q

What are geotextiles

A

permeable, flexible fabrics and mattings

88
Q

What happens if a building is below the water table

A

it is subject to hydrostatic pressure, putting additional loads on the structural elements of the foundation

make waterproofing difficult

89
Q

How often should expansion joint happen in concrete paving

A

20ft with a 1/2” remolded joint filler

90
Q

What is a deadman

A

a timber, plate, or similar object placed perpendicular to the face of the retaining wall and serves to anchor the wall by means of earth friction or pressure

91
Q

What are insulating concrete forms (ICFs)

A

polystyrene foam forms that provide formwork for poured concrete and remain in place after concrete cures

92
Q

What are the three types of ICFs

A

block systems
panel systems
plank systems

93
Q

What is the F-number system

A

a way to specify and measure the flatness and levelness tolerance of a concrete floor

94
Q

What are the two common grades of rebar

A

40 and 60

95
Q

Type I cement

A

standard cement or normal cement
used for general construction

96
Q

Type II cement

A

modified cement
used where sulfate resistance is needed and heat of hydration needs to be controlled

97
Q

Type III cement

A

high early strength cement - aka quick set

98
Q

Type IV cement

A

low heat cement - used in massive structures to minimize cracking

99
Q

Type V cement

A

sulfate-resisting cement for structures exposed to water or soil with high alkaline

100
Q

Name types of concrete admixtures

A

air-entraining agent
accelerator
plasticizer
retarder
waterproofing agent

101
Q

What does a cylinder test identify

A

compressive strength

102
Q

When is a core cylinder test used

A

when a portion of the structure is in place and cured but needs to be tested

103
Q

What is a kelly ball test

A

aka ball penetration test
hemispheric mass of steel with a calibrated stem is dropped onto a slab of fresh concrete
Penetration of the ball is measured and compared to slump test

104
Q

Define control joint

A

a weak section in concrete intentionally created in the slab so that normal temperature and stress cracking will occur along the joint

105
Q

Define construction joint

A

occurs where there are two successive pours

106
Q

Define expansion joint

A

allows entire sections of a concrete structure to move independently of one another

107
Q

Define isolation joint

A

Allows to adjacent sections to move independently, but is not as complex as expansion joint

108
Q

Type N mortar

A

most commonly used for exterior, above-grade wall exposed to severe weather

109
Q

Type S mortar

A

suitable for at or below-grade applications

110
Q

Type M mortar

A

has the highest compressive strength and is recommended for harder stone and walls with heavier loads

111
Q

Type O mortar

A

limited to interior non-load bearing walls and tuck pointing

112
Q

Two basic types of brick

A

facing brick
building brick

113
Q

Nominal dimensions of modular brick

A

3 5/8” wide
2 1/4” tall
7 5/8” long
3/8” mortar

114
Q

What is a ferrous metal

A

metals that contain a substantial amount of iron

115
Q

What does it mean to bonderize steel

A

to coat it with an anticorrosive phosphate solution in preparation for application of paint or enamel

116
Q

what % of carbon does standard structural steel contain

A

0.2-0.5%

117
Q

what is the most common yield point for structural steel

A

36ksi

118
Q

Letter designation for wide-flange sections

A

W

119
Q

Letter designation for I-beams

A

S

120
Q

Letter designation for channel sections

A

C

121
Q

Letter designation for structural tees

A

wide flange tee - WT
I-beam tee - ST

122
Q

Letter designation for steel angles

A

L

123
Q

What is the height and weight of a W12x30 beam

A

12” tall
30 lb/ft

124
Q

1hr rated wall construction

A

3-1/2” metal stud
5/8” gyp on both sided

125
Q

2hr rated wall construction

A

3-5/8” metal stud
(2) layers of 5/8” gyp on both sides

126
Q

What is the required floor space for an idle wheelchair user

A

30”x48”

127
Q

What is the minimum required width of a door

A

32”

128
Q

What is the required clearance in front of a door when approaching a door you push open

A

48”

129
Q

What is the required clearance in front of a door when approaching a door you pull open

A

60”
18” side

130
Q

What is U-factor

A

the heat flow coefficient of a material
(how much heat a material conducts)

131
Q

What is R-value

A

Measure of resistance to heat flow
(insulating properties)

132
Q

What is the relationship between R-value and U-factor

A

they are inverse

133
Q

Components of a simple refrigeration cycle

A

refrigerant lines, compressor, condensor coils, and expansion valve (evaporator)

134
Q

Where is the refrigerant the hottest in a refrigeration cycle

A

just after the compressor

135
Q

Where is the refrigerant the coolest in a refrigeration cycle

A

Just after the evaporator (or expansion valve)

136
Q

Are double skin facades a sustainable strategy for summer or winter?

A

Both
Air gap allows for ventilation in the summer and insulation in the winter

137
Q

What is the minimum required width of a stair

A

44”

138
Q

What is the size of AOR

A

30x48

139
Q

What is the rule for doors into a stair

A

Cannot impede on more than half the width of the landing / cannot project more than 7” into landing when fully open

140
Q

Name the three kinds of fire detectors

A

ionization
photoelectric
heat detector

141
Q

When is it best to use a heat detector

A

When a fire is already burning hot and assumes other detection systems have been used

142
Q

When is it best to use an ionization smoke detector

A

indoors with low air movement where smoke is NOT expected - do not use in kitchens

143
Q

When is it best to use a photoelectric smoke detector

A

when detecting slow smoldering fires

144
Q

Name what is in each class of fire:
Class A
Class B
Class C

A

A) Anything that leaves ash - wood, blankets, paper, furniture, etc

B) fuels, oils, etc

C) Electrical fire

145
Q

Rigid (moment) frame, braced frame, and shear walls… Which allows the most openings on exterior walls

A

Rigid

146
Q

Rigid (moment) frame, braced frame, and shear walls… Which allows the least openings on exterior walls

A

Shear walls

147
Q

Rigid (moment) frame, braced frame, and shear walls… Which is most expensive to construct

A

Rigid

148
Q

Rigid (moment) frame, braced frame, and shear walls… Which is the most efficient

A

Braced

149
Q

Rigid (moment) frame, braced frame, and shear walls… Which would be ideal for a glazed facade?

A

Rigid or braced

150
Q

How do you differentiate a moment / shear beam and column connection?

A

moment - web and flange of beam are attached to column

shear - only web is attached

151
Q

Is a shear connection the same as a shear wall?

A

no

152
Q

What is the minimum corridor width?

Door swing clearance in a 44” corridor?

A

44”

22”

153
Q

What is the max dead end corridor length?

A

20’

154
Q

What is tributary area?

A

the area supported by a beam - half the distance between beam support by the length of the member

155
Q

How do you calculate weight supported by a beam?

A

(tributary area) x (lb/sf)

156
Q

How do you calculate lbs/linear foot supported by a beam?

A

(width of tributary area) x (lb/sf)

157
Q

What are things that can be done to reduces the amount of deflection in a beam?

A
  • reduce span
  • heavier beam
  • taller beam
  • closer spacing of members
  • reduce weight of system being supported by beam
158
Q

What are advantages and disadvantages to an all-water mechanical system with fan-coil units

A

advantages:
- low install cost
- no fan room
- no ductwork
- individual space control

disadvantages:
- maintenance in occupied space
- noise
- no humidity control

159
Q

What are typical project types that use all-water mechanical systems?

A

Dorms, apartments, hotel/motel, nursing homes, schools

160
Q

Define a FIRE WALL and construction requirements

A

separates one structure into TWO buildings - FIRE WALL extends from exterior wall to exterior wall and through roof

161
Q

Define FIRE BARRIER and construction requirements

A

used in exit enclosures and to separate occupancy types - FIRE BARRIERS extend up to roof deck

162
Q

Define FIRE PARTITION and construction requirements

A

Used to separate spaces in same occupancy - FIRE PARTITIONS stop at rated ceilings

163
Q

Define SMOKE BARRIER and construction requirements

A

Same as FIRE BARRIER but have different finish requirements to trap smoke

164
Q

What are the three types of traction elevators

A
  • machine room-less
  • geared
  • gearless
165
Q

define foot-candle

A

measure of light on a work surface

166
Q

Color temperature of incandescent light

A

2500K

167
Q

Color temperature of daylight

A

5500K

168
Q

Color temperature of fluorescent light

A

3500-4500K

169
Q

Color temperature of high pressure sodium light

A

2000K

170
Q

Difference between contraction, construction, and expansion joints

A

contraction - have a saw cut and can see a thin crack going thru slab

construction - subsequent pours

expansion - pronounced gaps with caulk, backer rod, or compressible material

170
Q

What is K-value?
What is U-Factor?
What is R-value?
What is the relationship between them?

A

K: conductivity of a material
U: conductivity of an entire assembly
R: Inverse of K

R= x/k
U=1/R (total)

171
Q

What is the rule of thumb for mezzanine area

A

1/3 of are below if not equipped with sprinkler AND voice alarm

Up to 1/2 area if meets exceptions above

172
Q

Does a mezzanine typically need two means of egress?

A

No - only if it is enclosed

173
Q

Name spec divisions
1 & 2

A

1 - General Req
2 - Existing conditions

174
Q

Name spec divisions
3-6

A

3 - Conc
4 - Masonry
5 - Metal
6 - Wood / Composites

175
Q

Name spec divisions
7-10

A

7 - Thermal & Moisture
8 - Openings
9 -Finishes
10 - Specialities

176
Q

Name spec divisions
11-14

A

11 - Equipment
12 - Furnishings
13 - Special construction
14 - Conveying Equip.

177
Q

Name spec divisions
21-23

A

21 - Fire Suppression
22 - Plumbing
23- HVAC

178
Q

Name spec divisions
25-27

A

25 - Int. Automation
26 - Electrical
27 - Communications

179
Q

Name spec divisions
31-34

A

31 - Earthwork
32 - Ext. Improvements
33 - Utilities
34 - Transportation

180
Q

Rule of thumb for placing vapor barrier in wall construction

A

Located on warm side of wall

181
Q

What are 5 goals of stormwater management

A

1 - delay runoff
2 - replenish groundwater
3 - increase evotranspiration
4 - clean water
5 - prevent heat pollution

182
Q

Name 4 site strategies for stormwater management

A

1 - pervious pavement
2 - storage tanks
3 - wetland / rain gardens
4 - detention ponds

183
Q

What code section covers atriums

A

IBC 2018 Section 404

184
Q

Ratio for ADA parking spaces

A

1 per 25 spaces up to 200

185
Q

Reducing sound by 10db increments does what?

A

Reduces the sound by half

186
Q

1 ton of cooling = ____ BTU

A

12,000 BTU

187
Q
A

ARE 5.0 (6 decks)

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