Possible Written Questions? Flashcards

1
Q

According to MATS Part 1:

a) When may a pilot file a flight plan?
b) When is a pilot required to file a flight plan?
c) When is a pilot advised to file a flight plan? (16)

A

a) A pilot may file a flight plan for any flight.
b) A pilot is required to file a flight plan for:

1) Any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an air traffic control service.
2) Any IFR flight within advisory airspace.
3) Any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated by the Authority, to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services.
4) Any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated by the Authority, to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with air traffic service units in adjacent States in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification prescribed by the States concerned.
5) Any flight across international boundaries. (FIR boundaries)
6) Any flight planned to operate at night, if leaving the vicinity of an aerodrome.

c) A pilot is advised to file a flight plan:

1) If his flight involves flying over the sea more than 10 miles from the UK coast or over sparsely populated areas where SAR operations would be difficult, or
2) If he intends to fly into an area in which SAR operations are in progress. The flight plan should include the expected times of entering and leaving the area and the details must also be passed to the parent ACC. The ACC is to notify the ARCC concerned.

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2
Q

As listed in the AIP, state what the following SSR codes signify:

7500, 7600, 7700, 0000, 0020, 0023, 0030, 0032, 0033, 0037, 1177, 2000, 7000, 7001, 7002, 7003, 7004, 7005, 7006, 7010, 7007.

(15)

A

7500- Hijack, 7600- Radio failure, 7700- Emergency, 0000- SSR data unreliable, 0020- Air ambulance/helicopter emergency/medivac, 0023- A/c engaged in actual SAR operations, 0030- FIR lost , 0032- A/c engaged in police support operations, 0033- Parachute dropping, 0037- Royal flights/helicopters, 1177- LACC FIS, 2000- Proceeding from non SSR environment, 7000- Conspicuity code, 7001- Military fixed wing low level conspicuity/climb out, 7002- Danger areas general, 7003- Red arrows transit/display, 7004- Aerobatics and Displays, 7005- High-Energy Manoeuvres, 7006- Autonomous Operations within TRA or TRA(G), 7010- Aerodrome traffic pattern, 7007- Open Skies observation flight.

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3
Q

As stated in MATS Part 1, describe the different types of mode A codes the controllers are to assign to aircraft, as detailed in the Code Assignment Plan. Include in your answer the actions of controllers at SSR equipped units when allocating such a code. (9)

A

Controllers are to assign Mode A codes to aircraft according to the Code Assignment Plan, which comprises:

a) Discrete codes comprising:
i) domestic codes which are assigned to aircraft flying within the areas of responsibility of the unit;
ii) ORCAM codes which are assigned to international flights and will normally be retained beyond the area of responsibility of the assigning unit.

b) Special Purpose Codes allocated internationally.
c) Conspicuity codes, allocated nationally, or to specific users/units.

When providing a surveillance service to aircraft, controllers operating at SSR equipped units should allocate that flight with a discrete code in accordance with the SSR assignment plan. Unless otherwise directed by an ATC unit, Mode C will be selected in conjunction with Mode A. Controllers must, therefor, verify the accuracy of the Mode C readout when assigning discrete codes to aircraft.

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4
Q

According to the AIP, detail the pilots responsibilities with regard to SSR operating procedures for codes other than special purpose codes 7000, 0033 and 7004. (8)

UNVERIFIED

A

Pilots SHALL:

a) If proceeding from and area where a specific Mode A code has been assigned by an ATS unit, maintain that code setting unless otherwise instructed.
b) Select or reselect Mode A codes, or switch of the equipment when airborne only when instructed by an ATS unit.
c) Acknowledge Mode A code setting instructions by reading back the code to be set.
d) Select Mode C pressure-altitude reporting mode of the transponder simultaneously with Mode A unless otherwise instructed by an ATS unit.
e) When reporting levels under routine procedures or when requested by ATC, state the current altimeter reading to the nearest 100ft. This is to assist in the verification of Mode C pressure-altitude reporting data transmitted by the aircraft.

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5
Q

According to MATS Part 1:

a) What considerations must be taken into account in respect of the Mode A and Mode C of conspicuity codes?
b) When are pilots required to, and advised to, squawk conspicuity code 7000? List the occasions when a suitable equipped aircraft would squawk a different code. (13)

A

a) The Mode A code and associated Mode C data of conspicuity codes must be considered un-validated and un-verified.
b) Pilots are required to squawk conspicuity code 7000 when operating at and above FL100 and are advised to do so when below FL100 unless:

  • they have been assigned a discrete code,
  • they are transponding on one of the special purpose codes or on one of the other specific conspicuity codes assigned in accordance with the Code Assignment Plan,
  • they are flying below 3000 feet in the aerodrome traffic pattern and have been instructed to select the aerodrome traffic pattern conspicuity code 7010, or
  • on grounds of safety the aircraft has been instructed to squawk standby. In view of the associated reduction in protection from ACAS, such circumstances are to be regarded as exceptional. ATSUs shall log the circumstances and duration of any such occurrences. Records are to be made available to the CAA on request.
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6
Q

According to the AIP, what are the pilots responsibilities and actions when an aircraft transponder fails before intended departure and cannot be repaired? Include ATC considerations, but not the temporary failure of Mode C alone. (8)

UNVERIFIED

A

Pilots shall:

a) Plan to proceed as directly as possible to the nearest suitable aerodrome where repair can be made;
b) Inform ATS as soon as possible, preferably before the submission of a flight plan. When granting clearance to such aircraft, ATC will take into account the existing and anticipated traffic situation and may have to modify the time of departure, flight level or route of the the intended flight;
c) Insert in item 10 of the ICAO flight plan under SSR the letter N for complete unserviceability of the transponder or in the case of partial failure, the letter corresponding to the remaining transponder capability, including un-serviceability of any Mode S functionality.

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7
Q

According to the AIP, what are the actions and responsibilities of ATS units when an aircraft transponder fails after departure? Include in your answer the pilots responsibilities where appropriate, but not the temporary failure of Mode C alone. (7)

UNVERIFIED

A

If the transponder fails after departure or en-route, the ATS Units will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight in accordance with the original flight plan.
In certain traffic situations this may not be possible particularly when the failure is detected shortly after take off. The aircraft may then be required to return to the departure aerodrome or to land at another aerodrome acceptable to the operator and to ATC.
After landing, pilots shall make every effort to have the transponder restored to normal operation.
If the transponder cannot be repaired then the provisions for failure before departure apply.

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8
Q

As listed in MATS Part 1 Appendix E, list the 9 items of ‘operationally significant information’ to which controllers must ensure they receive a read back, during telephone and intercom coordination messages. (9)

A
Levels
Headings
Speed restrictions
Airways or route instructions
Runway in use
SSR codes
Pressure settings, including units when the value is below 1000hPa
Frequencies
Release and contact points. 

Let’s Have Sex And Rum Some People Forget Rum

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9
Q

According to MATS Part 1, what are the meanings of the following Standard Speech abbreviations? (8)

Acknowledge, Freecall, Roger, Correction, Negative, Contact

UNVERIFIED

A

Acknowledge- Let me know that you have received and understood this message.

Freecall- Call . Your details have not been passed.

Roger- I have received all of your last instruction. (Note: under no circumstances to be used in reply to a question requiring a direct answer in the affirmative or the negative).

Correction- an error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is…

Negative- No, or Permission not granted, or That is not correct, or Not capable.

Contact- Establish communication with . Your details have been passed.

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10
Q

As detailed in MATS Part 2, what are the frequencies for the following Medway/Fisher sectors? (8)

Fisher High, Fisher Low, Fisher Hayle, Medway Upper, Chiltern Sector, Medway TC, Fens Sector, Peaks Sector, Wight Upper, Wight Lower.

A
Fisher High- 132.050
Fisher Low- 135.650
Fisher Hayle- 129.425
Medway Upper- 130.875
Chiltern Sector- 132.600
Medway TC- 123.900
Fens Sector- 128.050
Peaks Sector- 131.200
Wight Upper- 134.450
Wight Lower- 128.275
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11
Q

As detailed in MATS Part 2, name all of the airfields (including the 4 letter designator) contained within or on the boundary of the Tyne Sector. (6)

A
Longtown- EGXL
Polbrook- EGMP
Seaton- EGGS
Lissett- EGGL
Blyton- EGMB
Metfield- EGVM
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12
Q

As detailed in MATS Part 2, list all the reporting points in the correct order that an aircraft would fly over on the following routes. Include the reporting point immediately preceding the Tyne sector, and the first reporting point after the aircraft has left the Tyne sector. (6)

L17, L17/T45, T45, L173, L17/L173, T45/L173, T45/L17, UY96, UN9/UL173

A

L17: ZEBRA-DAR-TYN-OLIVE-GROVE
L17/T45: ZEBRA- DAR-TYN-SWALO-RYE-WIJIN
T45: CHE-SHARK-PEWSI-TYNE-SWALO-RYE-WIJIN
L173: ALLEY-HAYLE-STONE-PEWSI-CHARD-TAV-LEMUR
L17/L173: ZEBRA-DAR-TYNE-STONE-HAYLE-ALLEY
T45/L173: WIJIN-RYE-SWALLOW-TYNE-PEWSI-CHARD-TAV-LEMUR
T45/L17: CHE-SHARK-PEWSI-TYN-OLIVE-GROVE
UY96: SWIFT-TYN-STONE-HAYLE-ALLEY
UN9/UL173: REDEX-CHERRY-STONE-PEWSI-CHARD-TAV-LEMUR

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13
Q

According to MATS Part 2, what classes of airspace exist in the Tyne sector? Include where these different classes of airspace exist. (4)

A

Class A- Airways below FL195
Class C- All airspace above FL195
Class D- Seaton CTR/CTA
Class G- All airspace below FL195 outside controlled airspace

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14
Q

According to MATS Part 2, state the vertical sectorisation (upper and lower limits) of the following sectors: (7)

Fisher High, Fisher Low, Wight Upper, Wight Lower, Medway TC, Chiltern, Medway Upper.

A
Fisher High- FL305-660
Fisher Low- DB-FL305
Wight Upper- FL255-660
Wight Lower- DB-FL255
Medway TC- DB-FL175
Chiltern- FL175-255
Medway Upper- FL255-660
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15
Q

According to MATS Part 1, between which flights shall standard separation (vertical or horizontal) be provided? Include arrangements for aircraft in Class F and G airspace. (7)

A

Standard separation (vertical or horizontal) shall be provided between:

1) All flights in Class A airspace
2) IFR flights in Class C, D and E airspace
3) IFR flights and VFR flights in Class C airspace
4) IFR flights and SVFR flights.
5) Special VFR flights, except where a reduction is authorised by the CAA.

Standard separation shall be provided, in so far as possible, between aircraft that have flight planned to operate on Class F ADR.

In Class G airspace, separation between aircraft is ultimately the responsibility of the pilot; however in providing a Deconfliction Service or Procedural Service, controllers will provide information and advice aimed at achieving a defined deconfliction minima.

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16
Q

According to MATS Part 1, how is lateral separation applied and how is it achieved? (5)

A

Lateral separation shall be applied so that the distance between aircraft is never less than a specified amount. It is achieved by requiring aircraft to fly on different tracks or in different geographical locations as determined by visual observations or by use of navigational aids.

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17
Q

According to MATS Part 1, how is longitudinal separate applied and how is it achieved? (6)

A

Longitudinal separation based on either time or distance shall be applied so that the spacing between the estimated positions of the aircraft being separated is never less than a prescribed minima. It is achieved by requiring aircraft to:

a) Depart at a specified time;
b) Lose or gain time to arrive at a geographical location at a certain time, or
c) Hold over a geographical location until a specified time.

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18
Q

As stated in MATS Part 1, describe the procedure and methods for the validation of Mode A codes. Include in your answer the procedure to be carried out when validation is not possible. (12)

A

A controller assigning any Mode A code must validate the code by checking as soon as possible, either by direct reference to his display or with the assistance of another controlling agency, that the data displayed corresponds with the code which has been assigned. At units where code Callsign conversion equipment is in use, procedures to ensure the correct correlation of the callsign with the assigned code are to be applied.

The code must be checked by one of the following methods:

1) Instructing the aircraft to squawk the assigned code and observing that the correct numbers appear on the situation display.
2) Instructing the aircraft to ‘squawk IDENT’ and simultaneously checking the code numbers associated with the SSR response.
3) Matching an already identified Position Indication with the assigned code for the flight.

If the code readout does not correspond to that assigned, the pilot is to be instructed to reset the assigned code. Where this fails to achieve display of the assigned code then the pilot is to be instructed to select code 0000. If a corrupt code still exists the pilot should normally be instructed to switch off the transponder. However, the corrupt code may be retained to assist identification and tracking, provided the Mode C has been verified. Associated ATC units are to be informed of the retention of corrupt data.

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19
Q

As stated in MATS Part 1: (9)

a) Describe when, and how, controllers are to verify the accuracy of Mode C data.
b) Detail when a Mode C readout can be assumed to have been verified.
c) What action must a controller take if he observes a discrepancy involving a Mode C readout?

A

a) Controllers are to verify the accuracy of Mode C data, once the aircraft has been identified and the Mode A validated, by checking that the readout indicates 200 feet or less from the level reported by the pilot. If the aircraft is climbing or descending, the pilot is to be instructed to give a precise report as the aircraft passes through a level.

Verification may be achieved with the assistance of an ATSU with which the aircraft is in contact.

b) If it is associated with a deemed validated Mode A code.
c) There is no requirement to monitor level readouts when Mode C information is not being used to provide vertical separation. However, if a controller observes a discrepancy the pilot is to be asked to confirm his altimeter setting and level. If the discrepancy remains, the pilot is to be instructed to switch off Mode C if independent switching off of Mode C is not possible the pilot is to be instructed to select A0000.

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20
Q

As given in MATS Part 1, state the definition of the following, together with an explanation of the term:

a) Transition Altitude
b) Transition Level (7)

A

a) The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is normally controlled by reference to altitude. Wherever possible there is a common transition altitude for aerodromes within a control zone. Unless otherwise notified the transition altitude for civil aerodromes is 3000ft.
b) The lowest Flight Level available above the transition altitude. Within controlled airspace it is determined by the controlling authority and will normally be based on the QNH of the major aerodrome. Outside controlled airspace it is determined by the Aerodrome Operator and based on the aerodrome QNH.

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21
Q

According to MATS Part 1, under what circumstances may a controller consider a Mode A code to be deemed validated? (4)

A

Controllers may deem Mode A codes to be validated when it can be ascertained from the Code Assignment Plan that an observed Mode A code has been assigned by a unit capable of validating the code, unless:

a) The code is promulgated as being unvalidated; or
b) The controller has been notified that the code is corrupt.

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22
Q

According to MATS Part 1, how is level occupancy assessed using Mode C? Include in your answer when an aircraft has reached, left, passed and is maintaining a level, and how this information may be displayed. (14)

A

a) An aircraft may be considered to be at an assigned level provided that the Mode C readout indicates 200 feet or less from that level.
b) An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be considered to have left a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of 400 feet or more from that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction.
c) An aircraft climbing or descending may be considered to have passed through a level when the the Mode C readout indicates that the level has been passed by 400 feet or more and continuing in the required direction.
d) An aircraft may be considered to have reached an assigned level when three successive Mode C readouts indicate 200 feet or less from that level.

Mode C information is normally displayed as a Flight Level, but on some ground equipment the vertical position of an aircraft flying below a pre-determined datum is displayed as an altitude.

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23
Q

According to MATS Part 1: (16)

a) How are Mode C responses used to assess vertical separation?
b) When can Mode C not be used to apply vertical separation?
c) What conditions apply to the use of Mode C for minimum vertical separation?
d) For both aircraft under Radar Control service and aircraft under a Deconfliction service, what are the vertical separation conditions if aircraft intentions are not known and/or if Mode C is unverified?

A

a) When SSR is used to assess vertical separation, the Mode C responses are to be continually monitored to ensure that the vertical distance is never less than the prescribed minimum.
b) Vertical separation using Mode c is not applied against aircraft transponding A0000.
c) Minimum vertical separation may be applied between verified Mode C transponding aircraft provided the intentions of both aircraft are known to the controller because either:

  • they are under his control;
  • they have been coordinated; or
  • they are operating in accordance with established agreements.

d) Aircraft under Radar Control Service. If the intentions of Mode C transponding aircraft are not known:

  • the minimum separation for IFR flights in Class A-D airspace, and VFR flights in Class B/C airspace, must be increased to 5000 feet; and
  • unverified Mode C data may be used for separation purposes, provided a minimum vertical separation of 5000 feet in Class A-D airspace is maintained. Radar returns, however presented, are not allowed to merge.
  • in Class E airspace radar returns, however presented, are not allowed to merge unless the pilot in receipt of traffic information advises that he intends to avoid the other aircraft without ATC assistance.

Aircraft under Deconfliction Service. If the intentions of the Mode c transponding aircraft are not known, the vertical deconfliction minima must be increased to 3000 feet, and unless the SSR Mode 3A indicates that the Mode C data has been verified, the surveillance returns, however presented, should not merge.

24
Q

According to MATS Part 1, when: (9)

a) shall standard separation be increased?
b) May standard separation be reduced? Include in the vicinity of aerodromes.

A

a) Separation standards are minima and shall be increased when:

  • requested by the pilot
  • a controller considers it necessary
  • directed by the CAA.

b) When authorised by the CAA and published in MATS Part 2.

In the vicinity of aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if:

  • adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller; or
  • each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation; or
  • when one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports that he has the other aircraft in sight and can maintain own separation.

Standard separation may be reduced when a SAR aircraft is escorting an aircraft in an emergency. A minimum is not laid down in UK FIRs and separation may be reduced to that which can be maintained visually or with airborne radar.

Reduced vertical separation may be applied during surveillance system failure.

25
Q

As stated in MATS Part 1, what is a loss of separation, and what are controllers actions when faced with this situation? (6)

A

If, for any reason, a controller is faced with a situation in which two or more aircraft are separated by less than the prescribed minima, e.g. ATC errors or difference in the pilots estimated and actual times over reporting points, he is to:

1) Use every means at his disposal to obtain the required minimum with the least possible delay, and
2) When considered practicable, pass traffic information if an ATS surveillance service is being provided, otherwise pass essential traffic information.

26
Q

As specified in MATS Part 1, under what conditions may an aircraft be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by another aircraft? Include any precautions. (12)

A

Provided that:

a) Vertical separation already exists.
b) The vacating aircraft is proceeding to a level that will maintain separation and either:
c) i) the controller observes that the vacating aircraft has left the level; or
ii) the pilot has reported vacating a level.

Precautions:

If severe turbulence is known to exist, instructions shall be delayed until the vacating aircraft is known to be at, or through, another level separated by the required minimum.

Consideration shall be given to the fact that aircraft may climb or descend at markedly different rates and, if necessary, additional measures such as specifying a maximum or minimum climb or descent rate for each aircraft shall be applied to ensure that the required separation is maintained. This is particularly relevant when the aircraft concerned are established in the same holding pattern.

Pilots in direct communication with each other may, with their concurrence, be instructed to maintain a specified vertical separation between aircraft during climb or descent.

27
Q

According to MATS Part 1: (8)

a) Define Essential Traffic Information.
b) When passed to an aircraft, what shall it include?

A

a) Essential Traffic is traffic which separated for any period for less than the specified standard separation. It is normally passed in situations when ATS surveillance systems are not available.

b)

  • Direction of flight of conflicting aircraft.
  • Type of conflicting aircraft.
  • Cruising level of conflicting aircraft and ETA for the reporting point, or for aircraft passing through the level of another with less than the normal separation; the ETA for reporting point nearest to where the aircraft will cross levels, and
  • Any alternative clearance.
28
Q

As detailed in MATS Part 1, describe the Turn Method of establishing identification. Include any conditions and precautions to be taken. (19)

A

An aircraft may be identified by ascertaining it’s heading and, following a period of track observation, correlating the observed movement of a particular Position Indication with:

a) The acknowledged execution of an instruction to alter heading by at least 30°;
b) One or more changes of heading of at least 30°, as instructed by another controller;
c) One or more changes of heading of at least 30° reported by the pilot.

A turn for identification does not constitute the provision of a surveillance service. However, controllers should take into consideration terrain, other surveillance returns, PSR coverage and the RoA before instructing an aircraft to alter heading.

In using the turn method the controller shall:

a) Verify that the movements of not more than one Position Indication correspond with those of the aircraft; and
b) Exercise caution particularly when employing this method in areas where changes of aircraft heading are commonly made as a navigational routine.

29
Q

According to MATS Part 1, what may surveillance systems be used to provide, whether or not the aircraft has been identified? (4)

A

a) information on the position of aircraft likely to constitute a hazard;
b) avoiding action;
c) information about observed weather for pilots and other controllers; and
d) assistance to aircraft in emergency.

30
Q

As stated in MATS Part 1: (8)

a) What do surveillance services comprise of?
b) What shall a controller do before providing any of the above services, and what does this action not imply?

A

a)
- Separation of arriving, departing and en route traffic
- Vectoring
- Position information to assist in the navigation of aircraft
- Monitoring traffic to provide information to the procedural controller
- Assistance to aircraft crossing controlled airspace.

b)
- Identify the aircraft, using a method appropriate to the surveillance system in use; or
- Have had the identity of the aircraft transferred from another controller.

The act of identifying an aircraft does not imply that a service is being given.

31
Q

As detailed in MATS Part 1: (11)

a) Define the term Clearance Limit, and how it can be specified.
b) When shall an aircraft be cleared for its entire route to the aerodrome of first intended landing, and what is the clearance limit when this is not possible?

A

a) A clearance limit is the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance and shall be specified by naming:

  • an aerodrome
  • a reporting point,or
  • a controlled or advisory airspace boundary.

b)

  • It has planned to remain within controlled or advisory airspace throughout the flight, and
  • There is reasonable assurance that prior coordination will be effected ahead of the passage of the aircraft.

The clearance limit for all other flights shall be the boundary of controlled or advisory airspace.

If the clearance for the levels covers only part of the route, it is important to specify that part to enable the pilot to comply with radio failure procedures.

The CAA may issue special instructions concerning the clearance of inbound aircraft to certain aerodromes.

32
Q

According to MATS Part 1, what are the instructions and considerations relating to the amendments of clearances? Do not included references to SID profiles/routes. (5)

A

When an amendment is made to a clearance the new clearance shall be read in full to the pilot and shall automatically cancel any previous clearance. Controllers must be aware therefor that if the original clearance included any restriction, e.g. “Cross ABC FL150 of below”, then the issue of a revised clearance automatically cancels the earlier restriction, unless it is reiterated with the revised clearance.

33
Q

As detailed in MATS Part 1: (12)

a) What is the purpose of an ATC clearance, on what are such clearance based and when are they required? Do not go into detail with regards to the manoeuvring area and vehicular traffic.
b) What items shall be included in an ATC clearance?

A

a) An ATC clearance authorises an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an ATC unit.
Clearances are based solely on known traffic conditions and are required for any flight, or portion of a flight, which is provided with an ATC or advisory service.
A pilot requests a clearance by submitting a flight plan. The clearance can be issued directly to the aircraft or through an approved agency, such as another ATSU.

b) An ATC clearance shall include the following items:

  • Aircraft identification, as shown in the flight plan
  • Clearance limit
  • Route
  • Levels of flight for the entire route or part thereof and changes of levels if required.
  • Any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as approach or departure manoeuvres, communications and the time of expiry of the clearance.
34
Q

According to MATS Part 1: (7)

a) How are cruising levels usually allocated to aircraft, with reference to flight planned levels and priorities? Do not go into detail with actual levels, semi circular rule etc.
b) What level must not be allocated?

A

a) Normally, the cruising level requested in the flight plan is to be allocated. If the flight planned level is not available, the nearest appropriate vacant level is to be allocated.

When two or more aircraft are at the same cruising level, the preceding aircraft shall normally have priority.

An aircraft at a cruising level shall normally have priority over other aircraft requesting that level.

b) FL195.

35
Q

As stated in MATS Part 1, list the various Types of Flight for each Flight Priority (A-E, Normal and Z). (15)

A

A- Aircraft in an emergency (e.g. engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill passenger), Aircraft which have declared a ‘Police Emergency’, Ambulance/Medical aircraft when the safety of life is involved.

B- Flights operating for SAR or other humanitarian reasons, Post-accident flight checks, Other flights (including Open Skies Flights) authorised by the CAA, Police flights under normal operational priority.

C- Royal Flights and Flights carrying visiting Heads of State, which have been notified by NOTAM/Temporary Supplement.

D- Flights notified by the CAA carrying Heads of Government or very senior government ministers.

E- Flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights, Other flights authorised by the CAA.

Normal- Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures, Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit (RTF Callsign “EXAM”).

Z- Training, Non-standard and other flights.

36
Q

What are the vertical separation minima as described in MATS Part 1, between: (9)

a) Aircraft flying subsonic?
b) Aircraft flying supersonic, and between aircraft flying supersonic and aircraft flying subsonic?

A

a) Up to FL290 apply 1000ft. Above FL290 apply 2000ft.

Except that between FL290 and FL410 inclusive, 1000ft may be applied between RVSM approved aircraft operating in airspace designated as being notified for the application of this separation standard.

b) Up to FL450 apply 2000ft. Above FL450 apply 4000ft.

37
Q

Define the term ‘Exact Reporting Point’ according to MATS Part 1. (8)

A

An ‘Exact Reporting Point’ is a position established by a navigational facility which is:

1) Overhead a VOR.
2) Overhead an NDB.
3) A position notified as a reporting point and which is established by the intersection of VOR radials, or of a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB.
4) A position established by a VOR radial combined with a range from a co-located or associated DME.

38
Q

As detailed in MATS Part 1, describe the Departing Aircraft Method of identification. Include in your answer where particular care should be taken. (9)

A

By observing and correlating the Position Indication of a departing aircraft to a known airborne time. Identification is to be achieved within one mile of the end of the runway unless otherwise authorised by the CAA.

Particular care should be taken to avoid confusion with aircraft overflying the aerodrome, making a missed approach, departing from an adjacent runway or holding overhead the aerodrome.

39
Q

As defined in MATS Part 1, describe the Position Report Method of establishing identification, including precautions to be taken. (17)

A

By correlating a particular Position Indication with a report from the pilot that the aircraft is:

a) Over an exact reporting point which is displayed on the situation display; or
b) At a particular distance not exceeding 30 miles on a particular radial from a co-located VOR/DME or TACAN (DME). The source facility must be displayed on the situation display; or
c) Over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display, provided that the flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at a height of 3000ft or less above the surface.

The identification must follow a period of track observation sufficient to enable the controller to compare the movement of the Position Indication with the pilots reported route. The reported position and level of the aircraft must indicate that it is within known PSR cover.

This method must be reinforced by an alternative method if there is any doubt about the identification because of:

i) the close proximity of other returns; or
ii) inaccurate reporting from aircraft at high level or some distance from navigational facilities.

A pilot is to be informed as soon as his aircraft has been identified. When operating inside controlled airspace, the pilot of an aircraft need only be so informed if the identification is achieved by the Turn Method.

40
Q

As stated in MATS Part 1, describe the circumstances when a pilot should, and may, be informed of their position. (6)

A

Pilots should be informed of their position:

1) Following identification of the aircraft using the turn method
2) When the pilot requests the information
3) When the aircraft is flying off the correct track
4) When an aircraft estimate differs significantly from the controllers based on ATS surveillance system observation
5) When the pilot is instructed to resume own navigation following vectoring, if considered necessary by the controller.

(Estimated vectors turn pilots off)

Additionally, controllers may pass position information to aircraft whenever they consider it necessary.

41
Q

As stated in MATS Part 1, fully describe the methods of identification using SSR and when such methods are to be used. Include any precautions to be taken. (9)

A

a) Observing the pilots compliance with the instruction to select a discrete four digit code.
b) Recognising a validated four digit code previously assigned to an aircraft callsign. When code/callsign conversion procedures are in use and the code/callsign pairing can be confirmed, the callsign displayed in the data block may be used to establish and maintain identity.
c) Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested. Caution must be exercised when employing this method because simultaneous requests for SPI transmissions within the same area may result in misidentification. Aircraft displaying the conspicuity code 7000 are not to be identified by this method.

42
Q

As described in MATS Part 1, when is it NOT necessary to inform the pilot of an aircraft that the identification of his aircraft is lost? (6)

A

When using SSR, controllers may be temporarily unable to read the data blocks associated with aircraft due to overlapping or garbling e.g. in holding areas. Although this constitutes a loss of identification, the pilot need not be advised that identification has been lost if the controller anticipates that identification will be re-established immediately the overlapping or garbling ceases.

43
Q

As stated in MATS Part 1, describe the methods a controller may use to transfer the identity of an aircraft to another controller when only PSR is available. (18)

A

a) Direct designation (pointing) of the Position Indication where two situation displays are adjacent or a conference type of display is used. If the information on two situation displays is derived from separate PSR heads (or beams, if using a stack beam system) the transferring controller must ensure that the blips on both displays correlate before using this method. If parallax is likely to cause an error, an alternative method is to be used.
b) Designation of the Position Indication in terms of direction and distance from a common reference point (geographical position or navigational facility) accurately indicated on both displays. The Position Indication, as seen by the accepting controller, must be within 3 miles of the position stated. The distance between the aircraft and the reference point must not exceed:

i) 30 miles, if the aircraft is flying along a published ATS route or direction is given as a bearing in degrees
ii) 15 miles in any other circumstances.

c) Designation of the Position Indication by positioning an electric marker or symbol so that only one Position Indication is thereby indicated and there is no possible doubt of correct identification.

44
Q

As detailed in MATS Part 1, detail how position information shall be passed to aircraft. (10)

A

1) A well known geographical position
2) Bearing (using points of the compass) and distance from a known position
3) Magnetic track and distance to a location displayed on the situation display that is a reporting point, and en-route navigational aid, or an approach aid.
4) Latitude and Longitude (by specific units only when authorised in MATS Part 2), or
5) Distance from touchdown if the aircraft is on final approach.

45
Q

As stated in MATS Part 1, what are the minimum terrain clearance requirements when assigning levels to IFR flights in receipt of a Radar Control Service? Exclude the phases of flight for within the defined final approach area and within the Surveillance Minimum Altitude Area. (11)

a) Within 30 miles of the radar antenna associated with the unit providing the service.
b) Outside the phases above.

A

a) 1000ft above any fixed obstacle within:

i) 5 miles of the aircraft and
ii) 15 miles ahead and 20° either side of the aircrafts track.

When the aircraft is within 15 miles of the antenna, and provided an SMAC or approved procedure has been notified, the 5 miles in i) and the 15 miles in ii) may be reduced to 3 and 10 miles respectively.

b) 1000ft above any fixed obstacle:

i) Which lies within 15 miles of the centreline of any airway or advisory route (for flights on airways or advisory routes); or
ii) Within 30 miles of the aircraft (for all other flights).

In sections of airways where the base is defined as a flight level, the lowest usable level normally provides not less than 1500ft of terrain clearance.

46
Q

As a radar controller, what would be your actions in the event of a surveillance system failure, according to MATS Part 1? Include the procedure to be followed in the event of the return to service of a previously failed system. (7)

A

In the event of a surveillance system failure, the controller shall inform aircraft under control of the failure and apply local contingency procedures, which shall be detailed in MATS Part 2. Reduced vertical separation of half the applicable vertical separation (e.g. 500ft where a controller would normally apply 1000ft separation and 1000ft where a controller would normally apply 2000ft separation) may be employed temporarily if standard separation cannot be provided immediately. When reduced vertical separation is employed, pilots shall be informed and essential traffic information passed as necessary.

When a previously failed surveillance system is notified as being serviceable, before any ATS surveillance service is provided the controller shall re-identify all aircraft by an approved method in accordance with the procedures described in MATS Part 1.

47
Q

State the minimum separations (as specified in MATS Part 1) that may be used between aircraft at the same cruising level and on the same track, and detail any associated provisions. (14)

A

i) 10 minutes, or
ii) 5 minutes- When specifically authorised by the CAA provided both aircraft are equipped with functioning transponders, monitored by radar and the actual distance between them is never less than 30 miles; or
iii) 5 minutes- Provided the preceding aircraft has filed an airspeed of 20 knots or more faster than the following aircraft; or
iv) 3 minutes- When specifically authorised by the CAA provided both aircraft are equipped with functioning transponders, are continuously monitored by radar and the actual distance between them is never less than 20 miles; or
v) 2 minutes- Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 40 knots or more faster than the following, and neither aircraft is cleared to execute any manoeuvre that would decrease the 2 minute separation between them.

48
Q

In the context of applying longitudinal separation, define the following as per MATS Part 1: (3)

a) Same Track
b) Reciprocal Track
c) Crossing Track

A

a) When the track of one aircraft is separated from the track of the other by less than 45°
b) When the track of one aircraft is separated from the reciprocal of the other by less than 45°
c) Intersecting tracks which are not classed as ‘same’ or ‘reciprocal’.

49
Q

According to MATS Part 1: (12)

a) When may a controller use SSR alone to provide horizontal separation?
b) When shall a controller NOT use SSR alone to provide horizontal separation?

A

a) Provided pilots are made aware of the limitations of service, SSR may be used to provide horizontal separation:
1) In accordance with MATS Part 2;
2) To overcome temporary deficiencies within PSR cover, such as fading or clutter, the SSR return only of one aircraft may be used to provide separation from the PSR or SSR return of another aircraft provided the PSR and SSR situation displays are correctly aligned. In this context ‘unavailable due to maintenance’ does not constitute a ‘temporary deficiency’.
3) Immediately after PSR failure for the minimum time necessary to establish procedural separation. Once established, services normally provide using radar may be resumed when the PSR is serviceable.
b) If a controller has any doubt about the accuracy of the position symbol due to equipment malfunction, reflections or any other reason.

50
Q

According to MATS Part 1, what is the standard phraseology for traffic information on known traffic? (4)

A

‘Traffic (number) o’clock (distance) miles opposite direction/crossing left to right/right to left (number) thousand feet above/below.’

51
Q

According to MATS Part 1: (8)

a) When are pilots to make position reports, and what additional information may these reports contain?
b) When are controllers to instruct pilots to make position reports?

A

a) In order to reduce RTF communication, a pilot will make a position report only:

i) on first transfer of communication from another ACC or sector. This report will contain aircraft identification and flight level only. Subsequent reports will contain aircraft identification, position and time;
ii) on reaching the limit of the ATC clearance;
iii) when instructed to by ATC.

b)
i) When the aircraft is outside ATS surveillance cover;
ii) Before identification has been achieved; and
iii) As detailed in MATS Part 2.

52
Q

According to MATS Part 1: (16)

a) Give full details of the methods used to achieve co-ordination.
b) When is co-ordination deemed to have been achieved?

A

a) Tactical Co-ordination:

The coordination of individual aircraft to which the coordinating controllers are providing, or are about to provide, an ATS. It is achieved either verbally (face-to-face or over a landline) or silently using an electronic data communication system. Silent coordination procedures are to be detailed in MATS Part 2 and Unit Military Procedures.

Standing Co-ordination:

Coordination which is implemented automatically, on a permanent basis, without communication between the controllers involved. It is effected in accordance with a written agreement between the units or sectors involved, and is only valid for the aircraft and circumstances specified in MATS Part 2.

b) When approved by the CAA, coordination is deemed to have been achieved if an estimate message has been passed and the accepting ATC unit has raised no objection.

53
Q

According to MATS Part 1: (8)

a) What fundamental coordination requirement between ACCs or sectors is laid down for aircraft receiving an ATC or Advisory Service? Include details of responsibility for initiation of coordination.
b) State when this process must be complete and when it can be said to have been achieved.
c) Which information must be re-coordinated if changes occur and by when?

A

a) Aircraft receiving an ATC or Advisory Service from one ACC or sector must not be permitted to penetrate the airspace of another ACC or sector unless prior coordination has taken place. The responsibility for initiating coordination rests with the controller of the unit or sector transferring control, who shall comply with any conditions specified by the accepting controller.
b) The complete process of coordination, which must proceed transfer of control, has been achieved when:
i) notification, negotiation and agreement has taken place progressively, i.e. step by step;
ii) it has been agreed that aircraft can proceed under specified conditions without the need for individual coordination. The principles of such agreements and controllers positions to which they apply shall be detailed in MATS Part 2;
iii) an estimate message has been passed and no objection has been raised by the accepting ATC unit. This procedure must be approved by the CAA.
c) Subsequent changes in flight level, routing or revisions of 3 minutes or more are to be re-coordinated by the transferring controller and agreement reached before transfer of communication takes place.

54
Q

According to MATS Part 1: (13)

a) What is coordination and when is it effected?
b) What conditions and/or precautions need to be taken into account when agreeing coordination on behalf of another controller?
c) What is the correct phraseology for ‘avoiding action’ in the lateral plane?

A

a) Coordination is the act of negotiation between two or more parties each vested with the authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged. Coordination is effected when the parties concerned, on the basis of known intelligence, agree a course of action. Responsibility for obtaining this agreement and for ensuring implementation of the agreed course of action may be vested in one of the controllers involved.
b) A controller may carry out coordination on behalf of another controller, provided that the traffic situation and time available are uch that the controller being represented can put into effect any agreed action.
c) “(A/c identity) avoiding action, turn left/right immediately heading (three digits) traffic ([left/right] number) o’clock (distance) miles opposite direction/crossing left to right/right to left (level information).”

55
Q

According to CAP413 (Radiotelephone manual), what messages are to be read back by the pilot or driver? (14)

A
Taxi/towing instructions
Level instructions
Heading instructions
Speed instructions
Airways or route clearances
Approach clearances
Runway in Use
Clearance to enter, land on, take off on, backtrack, cross and hold short of any active runway. 
SSR operating instructions
Altimeter settings (including units when the value is below 1000 hPa). 
VDF information
Frequency changes
Type of ATS service
Transition Levels