Airspace and Separation Flashcards
1
Q
What are the three categories of flight plans and how can they be submitted?
A
Categories:
Full flight plan- full information on form CA48
Repetitive flight plan- regularly occurring flights, usually operated by companies, no need to file full flight plan each time just relevant information.
Abbreviated flight plan- limited info required to obtain clearance for a portion of the flight.
Submitted by:
Direct filing, processed by originator.
Completed CA48 handed in to ATS who check, address and transmit.
Via Parent unit- if no ATSU or AFTN.
2
Q
For which flights MUST a pilot file a flight plan? (6 points)
A
- Any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an ATC service.
- Any IFR flight within advisory airspace (F)
- Any flight within or into areas, or along routes, designated by the authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services.
- Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority, to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with air traffic service units in adjacent States in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification prescribed by the States concerned.
- Any flight across international boundaries.
- Any flight planned to operate at night, if leaving the vicinity of an aerodrome.
3
Q
When is a pilot ADVISED to file a flight plan?
A
- If the flight involves flying over the sea more than 10 miles from the coast,VOR flying over sparsely populated areas where SAR operations would be difficult.
- If the pilot intends to fly into an area in which SAR operations are in progress.
4
Q
When MAY a pilot file a flight plan?
A
For any flight.
5
Q
How far in advance must flight plans be filed?
A
- North Atlantic and flights subject to air traffic management (ATFM) at least 3 hours notice is required.
- On the ground at least 60 minutes before clearance to start/taxi is requested.
- In the air at least 10 minutes prior warning must be given of intention to enter controlled airspace.
6
Q
What is a Repetitive Flight Plan (RPL)?
A
A flight plan related to a series of frequently recurring, regularly operated individual flights with identical basic features. (Not available for Trans-Atlantic flights because the track system changes every day with the position of the Jet Stream).
7
Q
What is a Flight Plan, and what information does it contain?
A
Specified information provided to air traffic service units relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight in an aircraft.
Divided into three parts:
Addressing- departure aerodrome, en-route sector control units, arrival aerodrome, alternate aerodromes, etc.
Flight Details- aircraft identification and type, flight rules (IFR or VFR), cruising speed and level, intended route, expected time, departure and arrival aerodromes, other notes.
Supplementary Info.- (not sent to ATC except in emergency) endurance limit, persons on board, safety equipment, colour and markings, pilot etc.
8
Q
To which flights must standard separation be applied?
A
Class A- ALL
Class C, D and E- IFR
Class C- IFR & VFR (not VFR from VFR)
As appropriate- SVFR (CTZ clearance), IFR & SVFR
Class F ADR (advisory route)- as far as possible between IFR (none in the UK)
Class G- No standard separation, Deconfliction or Procedural Service provides information AIMED at achieving deconfliction minima. However still pilots responsibility.
9
Q
When shall separation be increased, and for what reasons?
A
When requested by the pilot- reasons may include turbulence, aircraft malfunction, crew incapacitation, doubts about ability to maintain course and/or level.
When a controller considers it necessary- loss of a navigational aid, reported turbulence, emergency, pilot not complying with (or unable to comply with) instructions.
When directed by the CAA- notified in MATS Parts 1 & 2.
10
Q
When may separation be reduced?
A
When authorised in MATS Part 2 by the CAA.
When escort is provided by search and rescue aircraft to aircraft in emergency (no minima, may be reduced to visual separation).
In the vicinity of an aerodrome.
11
Q
When may separation be reduced in the vicinity of an aerodrome?
A
When either:
- The controller has each aircraft in sight, or
- Pilots have each other in sight and report they can maintain own separation, or
- the following pilot can see the aircraft ahead and can maintain separation.
12
Q
What is loss of separation? What must the ATCO do in the event?
A
When aircraft are separated by less than the required minima.
The controller is to use every means to obtain the required minimum with the least possible delay, and when practicable pass traffic information (if ATS surveillance is being provided), otherwise pass essential traffic information.
13
Q
What is Traffic Information?
A
Information issued by a controller to alert a pilot or controller to other known or observed traffic which may be in proximity to the position or intended route of flight.
14
Q
What is Essential Traffic Information? What does it contain?
A
Where traffic is separated for any period by less than standard separation, Essential Traffic is passed when ATS surveillance systems are NOT available.
It includes: direction and cruising level of conflicting flight, and ETA for reporting point (or ETA for RP nearest to where levels will cross), type of conflicting aircraft, any alternative clearance.
15
Q
What separation responsibilities do Aerodrome Control have?
A
1) Prevent collisions between:
- aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ.
- aircraft taking off and landing.
- aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area.
2) Assist in the prevention of collisions between aircraft on the apron.
16
Q
How do we separate aircraft in the ATZ and traffic circuit?
A
Requirements dictated by type of airspace (eg no VFR in Class A). IFR must have standard separation from other IFR, and traffic info on VFR flights must be passed as necessary. VFR flights are passed Traffic Information positive instructions on how to integrate their flight with other aircraft.
17
Q
How do we guarantee separation on the manoeuvring area?
A
The movements of aircraft, persons or vehicles on the manoeuvring area and the movement of aircraft on the apron are at all times subject to permission from Aerodrome Control.
Clearances shall contain concise instructions and adequate information so as to avoid collisions with other aircraft or objects.
18
Q
What separation rules govern aircraft taking off and landing?
A
An aircraft shall not be permitted to begin take-off until the preceding departing aircraft is seen to be airborne or has reported airborne by RFT AND all preceding landing aircraft have vacated the runway in use.
Unless specific procedures have been approved by the CAA, a landing aircraft shall not be permitted to cross the threshold of the runway on its final approach until a preceding aircraft, departing from the same runway, is airborne.
19
Q
When might a landing aircraft using the same runway be permitted to touch down before a preceding landing aircraft has vacated the runway? (5 points)
A
When aircraft are using the same runway, a landing aircraft may be permitted to touch down before a preceding landing aircraft which has landed is clear of the runway provided that:
1) The runway is long enough to allow safe separation between the two aircraft and there is no evidence to indicate that braking may be adversely affected,
2) It is during daylight hours,
3) the preceding landing aircraft is not required to backtrack in order to vacate the runway,
4) the controller is satisfied that the landing aircraft will be able to see the preceding aircraft which has landed, clearly and continuously, until it has vacated the runway, and
5) The pilot of the following aircraft is warned.
Responsibility for ensuring adequate separation rests with the pilot of the following aircraft.
20
Q
What are standard separations for departing and en route aircraft in the vicinity of an aerodrome?
A
Departure following departure-
1) 10 minutes, or
2) 5 minutes if:
- The preceding aircraft has a filed TAS of +20kts, or
- Vertical separation will be at least 1000ft over an RP, or
- The angle of divergence at an RP will be at least 30°, or
3) 2 minutes if:
- The preceding aircraft has a filed TAS of +40 kts and neither aircraft execute a manoeuvre that would decrease separation, or
4) 1 minute if:
- Departures diverge by at least 45° (this may be reduced if independent diverging or parallel runways are utilised, and authorised by the CAA).
NB- Wake turbulence requirements may require more spacing to be applied.
Departure vs En-route aircraft over RP:
1) 10 minutes, or
2) 5 minutes if:
- En-route aircraft has a filed TAS of +20kts, or
- En-route aircraft has reported over an ERP (Exact Routing Point) at which the departing aircraft will join the same route, or
- Departing aircraft will arrive at the same ERP 5 minutes behind an en-route aircraft.
21
Q
What is Airspace Management (ASM)?
A
Objective- Maximising the utilisation of available airspace.
Combined function:
- Categorising, legislating and regulating airspace
- Licensing Air Traffic Services
- Determining the capacity for Air Traffic Flow Management.
22
Q
What are the 3 levels of ASM activity?
A
Strategic ASM- Level 1: (Yearly) National HLAPB (High Level Airspace Policy Body) formulates ASM policy, taking into account national and international airspace users and ATS providers requirements. (Includes FUA procedures).
Pre-Tactical ASM- Level 2: (Daily- day before operations)
Day-to-day management and temporary allocation of airspace.
Tactical ASM- Level 3: (Daily- on the day)
Consists of real time activation, deactivation or reallocation of airspace allocated at Level 2.
23
Q
What is FUA?
A
Based on the fundamental principle that airspace is one continuum to be allocated for use on a day to day basis.
Airspace is no longer designated as purely ‘military’ or ‘civil’.
Any necessary airspace segregation is temporary, based in real time usage within a specific time period.
Contiguous volumes of airspace are not restricted by national boundaries.
24
Q
What is a Temporary Segregated Area (TSA)?
A
Airspace of pre-defined dimensions within which activities require reservation of airspace for the exclusive use of specific users during a determined period of time. (More generic than TRAs).
25
What is a Conditional Route? And what are the 3 categories available for flight planing?
A Conditional Route (CDR) is a non-permanent ATS route or a portion thereof, which can be flight planned under certain specific conditions:
CDR 1- Permanently plannable route: Permanently plannable during the times published in ENR 3. Additional availability outside these hours will be notified by NOTAM.
CDR 2- Non-permanently plannable: Only plannable in accordance with the conditions stated in the daily AUP issued by the Directorate Network Management (DNM).
CDR 3- Not plannable: A route which is not plannable per se but may be used tactically at the discretion of ATC when available.
26
What rules govern IFR flights in controlled airspace?
A pilot may fly IFR at any time, but must fly IFR if the airspace is notified as Class A and/or the met conditions preclude VFR flight.
27
What are the VMC rules that govern VFR flights in controlled and uncontrolled airspace?
The pilot is responsible for determining whether or not the met conditions permit flight in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules-
By Day and By Night:
At and above FL100, in Class C-G airspace:
1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud- visibility 8km
Below FL100 in Class C-G airspace:
1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud- visibility 5km
At or below 3000ft agl in Class F and G airspace:
Clear of clouds and with surface in sight- visibility 5km
For aircraft other than helicopters flying at 140kts or less:
BY DAY ONLY
Class C-E airspace: Clear of cloud and WSIS- visibility 5km
Class F and G airspace: Clear of Cloud and WSIS- visibility 1500m
For helicopters:
BY DAY
Class C-E airspace: Clear of cloud and WSIS- visibility 1500m
Class F and G airspace: Clear of cloud and WSIS and at a speed which having regard to visibility is reasonable- visibility 1500m
BY NIGHT
Class F and G airspace: Clear of cloud and WSIS and at a speed which having regard to visibility is reasonable- visibility 3km
28
What are the 7 Classes of airspace and what rules govern them?
Class A:
IFR flights only, ATC clearance required, standard separation from all traffic, known traffic environment. Aircraft must comply with ATC.
Class B:
IFR and VFR flights, ATC clearance required, standard separation from all traffic, known traffic environment. Aircraft must comply with ATC. No Class B in UK.
Class C:
IFR and VFR flights, ATC clearance required, IFR separated from IFR and VFR, VFR separated from IFR, VFR passed traffic info on other VFR and avoidance advice if requested. Aircraft must comply with ATC, known traffic environment, no VFR in Class C in the UK, all airspace between FL195-660 in the UK is Class C.
Class D:
IFR and VFR flights, ATC clearance required, IFR separated from IFR, traffic info passed to IFR on VFR, traffic info passed to VFR on IFR and VFR, avoidance advice if requested. Aircraft must comply with ATC, known traffic environment.
Class E:
IFR and VFR flights, ATC clearance for IFR only, IFR flights separated, traffic info passed to IFR on known VFR, traffic info passed to VFR flights in contact with ATC. Aircraft must comply with ATC.
Class F:
IFR and VFR flights, participating IFR flights must comply with ATC clearance, participating IFR flights separated from other known IFR flights, VFR flights provided with Basic Service only.
Class G:
IFR and VFR flights, no standard ATC provision, advisory service may be available. Includes all airspace above FL660 and that not covered by Classes A-F.
29
What is an Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ)?
An airspace of defined dimensions established around an aerodrome for the protection of aerodrome traffic.
Established at military and civil aerodromes.
Unlicensed and licensed aerodromes may have an ATZ- they must prove to the CAA that they need one.
Dimensions: 2 (runway 185m) Nm radius circle centred on mid point of longest runway. Surface to 2000ft aal. (Excludes any airspace which is within the ATZ of another aerodrome notified as being the controlling aerodrome).
ATZ for Offshore Installation (oil rig): 1.5nm from installation, MSL-2000ft.
Military ATZ: 5nm radius and 3000ft aal. May have a 'stub'- 2nm either side of and horizontally aligned with main runway, 5nm in length and from 1000ft-3000ft aal.
30
What is a a Control Area (CTA)?
Controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth to a specified upper limit.
To provide extra protection where necessary to arriving and departing aircraft.
31
What is a Terminal Control Area (TMA)?
A control area normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes. This is controlled airspace.
32
What is an Air Traffic Service (ATS) Route?
A specified route designed for channeling the flow of traffic as necessary for the provision of air traffic services.
Used variously to mean airway, advisory route, controlled or uncontrolled route, arrival or departure route etc.
Defined by route specifications which include an ATS route designator, the track too or from significant points (waypoints), distance between significant points, reporting requirements and lowest safe altitude.
33
What is an Airway?
A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor.
5nm either side of centre line, from height as specified up to FL195.
34
What is an Advisory Route (ADR)?
A designated route along which air traffic advisory service is available to participating aircraft.
The service is delivered in the same way as an air traffic control service and pilots are expected to comply unless they state otherwise.
This is NOT controlled airspace.
35
What is a Temporary Reserved Area (TRA)?
Established between FL195-245 to accommodate the various VFR UK airspace users including military requirements above FL195.
May be used simultaneously by both civil and military aircraft.
Class C airspace.
ATS provided in accordance with rules for UK FIS.
Operational hours published, or may be activated by NOTAM.
36
What is an Upper Air Traffic Services Route?
A specified route above FL245 designed for channeling the flow of traffic as necessary for the provision of air traffic services.
Routes designed with a centre-line only and aircraft will generally fly within 5 miles either side of this centre line.
37
What is a Military Mandatory Radar Service Area (MRSA)?
An area within which military aircraft flying between FL245-660 are required to operate under a radar control/procedural control service.
38
What is a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) Route?
A designated IFR departure route linking the aerodrome or specified runway of an aerodrome with a specified significant point, normally on a designated ATS route, at which the en route phase of a flight commences.
39
What is a Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR)?
A designated IFR arrival route linking a significant point, normally on an ATS route, with a point from which a published instrument approach procedure can be commenced.
40
What is a Noise Preferential Route?
A specified routing in or out of an aerodrome that complies with noise abatement restrictions.
41
What factors might affect the selection of the runway in use?
Surface wind (most important!), adjacent airfields, 2000ft wind (if surface calm), traffic pattern, length of runway, approach aids, taxiway system, noise sensitive areas, runway/approach lighting, work in progress.
42
What is the Traffic Circuit and what does it look like?
For a left hand circuit:
Climb out (into wind)- left 90 degree turn onto Crosswind leg- left 90 degree turn onto Downwind leg (report 'late downwind' when level with end of runway)- left 90 degree turn onto Base leg- left 90 degree turn onto Final approach (4 miles or less)/Long Final (beyond 4 miles).
Left side of aerodrome known as Live side, right as Dead for left circuit (and vice versa).
43
What is Air Traffic Flow Management (ATFM)?
A service established with the objective of contributing to a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic by ensuring that air traffic control capacity is utilised to the maximum extent possible, and that the traffic volume is compatible with the capacities declared by the appropriate air traffic services authority.
44
What is Air Traffic Flow and Capacity Management (ATFCM)?
ATFM extended to include the optimisation of traffic patterns and capacity management. Through managing the balance of capacity and demand the aim of ATFCM is to enable flight punctuality and efficiency according to the available resources with the emphasis on optimising the network capacity through the collaborative decision making process.
45
Who is responsible for the provision of ATFCM?
Initially and ICAO concept.
CMFU in Brussels, centralised organisation.
Local Flow Management position in each control centre.
46
How can airspace capacity be added by flow management techniques?
FUA (Flexible use airspace)- permits reserved airspace not being utilised to be available to other airspace users.
FAB (Functional Airspace Blocks)- eg between UK and Ireland, crosses national boundaries to ease traffic flow where possible.
CDRs (Conditional Routes)- Routes occasionally available for planning or tactical use through otherwise reserved airspace.
47
What are the 3 stages of ATCFM?
Strategic phase- One year in advance to a week before real time. Capacity predicted based on prior experience, plus knowledge of large scale events.
Pre-tactical Planning- From 6 days before to the day before real time. Takes into account any new information, such as predicted weather.
Tactical- Monitor and update real time traffic based on demand, and offer alternative solutions to minimise delay.
48
What methods can CFMU use to regulate the flow of traffic?
Slot Allocation Process- Take of slots allocated based on calculation of flight time to air space in need of flow management. -5/+10 minute from time slot.
Level Cap- Cruising altitude not above a specified level. Spreads traffic across all levels.
Minimum Departure Interval- Requires departures from aerodromes to be regulated by a specified time gap, to control flow of aircraft entering a sector requiring flow management.
Re-route- Aircraft routed through relatively quieter airspace to avoid busy sector.
49
How does the process of Flow Management work, and what is the end result?
Individual Flow Management Positions submit Airspace Utilisation Plan (AUP) to Network Operations Management Centre (NOMC) by 16:00 the day before.
NOMC collate all data received and transmit Daily Plan to ACCs and ATSUs- gives details of airspace restrictions, availability and CDRs etc.
Crew or aircraft operator submits flight plan to IFPS based on preferred route and availability- if it conforms to IFPS criteria an ACK message is sent.
FPL processed by ETFMS (Enhanced Tactical Flow Management System), flight analysed for flow regulations that may apply.
Flow restrictions communicated to AO and Aerodrome of Departure as CTOT. Aircraft departs within tolerance slot of CTOT -5/+10 minutes.
If NOT subject to slot- -15/+15 minutes of EOBT.
50
When do we start counting Wake Turbulence?
From the moment the nose-wheel lifts until it touches down again.
51
What is the objective of the AIS (Aeronautical Information Service)?
To ensure the flow of information necessary for the safety, regularity and efficiency of international air navigation.
Each contracting State of ICAO SHALL provide an aeronautical information service.
52
What is the function of the AIS? Why is it necessary?
To receive and/or originate, collate, edit and publish aeronautical information concerning the entire territory of the state, as well as areas in which the state is responsible for air traffic services outside its territory.
It is necessary to meet the operational requirements of flight operations personnel including flight crews and flight planning officers, and of Air Traffic Service Units and the services responsible for pre-fight information.
53
How is the AIS organised within the UK? What are the UK publications of this organisation?
UK AIS contains the Static Data Office, which is responsible for UK Publications and Foreign Library (Foreign Integrated Packages, flight guides, maps and charts) departments, and the International NOTAM Office (INO).
UK Publications promulgate the Integrated Package, which includes the UK AIP (plus amendments), the AIP SUPPS and the AICs, and the INO promulgates NOTAMS, PIBs (Pre-flight Information Bulletins) and where necessary Foreign NOTAMS.
54
What does the AIP (Aeronautical Information Package) consist of? What information does each section contain?
The AIP consists of static information, updated every 28 days, containing information of lasting character essential to Air Navigation. It is a source of permanent information and long term temporary changes.
UK AIP GEN (Yellow)- contains information of a general nature such as:
- Difference between UK and ICAO procedures.
- National regulations and requirements (eg customs)
- Tables (eg sunrise/sunset).
- ICAO location indicators.
- Description of services (eg AIS, ATS, Met, SAR).
- Airport and Air Navigation Service Charges.
En Route (Red)- contains among other things:
- VFR and IFR procedures.
- Radio fail procedures.
- En route charts.
- Navigation warnings.
- Descriptions of airspace in UK FIR/UIRs.
- Description of ATS routes.
- List of en route navigation aids.
Aerodrome (Green)- 2 volumes due to size.
- Contains airfields listed in alphabetical order.
- Contains detailed information about all aerodromes in the UK, including maps and charts. Eg:
SIDS, STARS, NPRS, Instrument Approaches, Runway dimensions, Comm and Nav frequencies, opening times, phone numbers etc etc etc.....
55
What is the AIRAC Cycle?
Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control.
Significant changes timed to take place to pre-determined schedule (unless impractical due to operational requirements).
AIRAC changes become effective on set dates 28 days apart.
Recipients receive 28 days notice of forthcoming changes- allows time for planning, flight crew briefing, FMS updates etc.
For BIG changes 56 days notice given wherever possible.
56
What are AIP supplements?
Temporary AIP changes of long duration (3 months or more) and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP Supplements.
(May be to trial changes)
57
What is an AIC (Aeronautical Information Circular), and what do the different colours of paper indicate about the subject matter?
An AIC shall be originated when it is desirable to promulgate explanatory or advisory information of a technical, navigational, legislative, administrative or flight safety matter.
```
White- Administration matters.
Yellow- Operational matters.
Pink- Safety related topics.
Mauve- Airspace restrictions.
Green- Maps and Charts.
```
58
What is a NOTAM, what are the three categories and how is a NOTAM code structured?
A notice distributed by means of telecommunications containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard.
Examples include flying displays, sky diving, military, temporary closure of runway/aerodrome etc.
NOTAMN- New information
NOTAMR- Replaces a previous
NOTAMC- Cancels a previous
All NOTAM code groups contain 5 letters:
First letter always Q, second and third identify subject, fourth and fifth denote status.
59
What are PIBs (Pre-flight Information Bulletins)?
At aerodromes normally used for international air operations, aeronautical information essential for the safety, efficiency and regularity of air navigation relating to the route stages originating at that aerodrome shall be made available.
A more user-friendly edited version of NOTAMs in plain language. Placed on summary lists applicable to specific regions or route specific bulletin lists.
60
Where might UK AIP, amendments and supplements, AICs, NOTAMs, PIBs and foreign AIPs and charts be found?
Within AIS Central Office, on the Internet or by phone, at Airports, Aircraft operators and ATSU Briefing Units.
61
What is a Level Change?
That portion of the climb and descent during which the vertical separation in relate to another aircraft is less than the minima.
62
What is an Exact Reporting Point (ERP)?
A position established by a navigational facility which is:
- Overhead a VOR
- Overhead an NDB
- A position notified as a reporting point
- An intersection of VOR radials
- A VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB
- A position established by a VOR radial and a co-located/associated DME range.
63
What is meant by the terms Same Track, Reciprocal Track and Crossing Track?
Same Track- when the track of one aircraft is separated from the track of the other by less than 45°.
Reciprocal Track- when the track of one aircraft is separated from the reciprocal track of the other by less than 45°.
Crossing Track- intersecting tracks which are not classed as Same or Reciprocal.
64
On what is Longitudinal Separation based and how is it achieved?
Based on either time or distance so that the spacing between the estimated positions of the aircraft being separated is never less than the prescribed minima.
Achieved by requiring aircraft to depart at a specific time, lose or gain time to arrive at a geographical location at a specified time or hold over a geographical location until a specified time.
65
What are the Longitudinal Separations based on Time for aircraft at the same cruising level and on the same track?
10 minutes, or
5 minutes if the preceding aircraft has filed an airspeed of 20kts+ faster than the following aircraft, or
5 minutes when authorised by the CAA, both aircraft are equipped with functioning transponders and are continuously monitored by radar, and the actual distance is never less than 30 miles, or
3 minutes when authorised by the CAA, both aircraft are equipped with functioning transponders and are continuously monitored by radar, and the actual distance between them is never less than 20 miles, or
2 minutes where the preceding aircraft has filed an airspeed of 40kts+ faster than the following aircraft.
66
What are the Longitudinal Separations based on Time for aircraft on the same track wishing to climb and/or descend?
10 minutes, or
5 minutes at the time the levels are crossed, provided that the level change is commenced within 10 minutes of the same time the second aircraft reports over the same ERP as the first.
67
What is the Longitudinal Separation based on Time for aircraft on crossing tracks?
10 minutes.
68
What is the Longitudinal Separation based on Time for aircraft on reciprocal tracks?
Vertical separation must be provided for at least 10 minutes prior to and after the estimated time of passing, unless it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other by ATS surveillance derived information, visual sighting report from both pilots, or aircraft position reports over the same ERP.
69
What is the Longitudinal Separation based on Time between en route aircraft and aircraft holding?
Vertical separation must be maintained whilst en route aircraft are within 5 minutes flying time of a holding aircrafts flight path or holding area (where published).
70
How can longitudinal separation based on distance be achieved?
- DME or TACAN
- Maintain not less than specified distances between aircraft positions as reported.
- Aircraft must use the same 'on track' facility.
- Not to be used within 15 miles of overhead (slant range)
- Communication maintained throughout
- Simultaneous readings obtained.
71
What are the Longitudinal Separations based on Distance for aircraft at the same cruising level and on the same track?
- 25 miles, or
- 20 miles if either both within 100 miles of DME, OR preceding aircraft files TAS of 20kts+ faster than the following aircraft, or
- 15 miles if both within 100 miles of DME AND preceding aircraft files TAS of 20kts+ faster than following aircraft.
72
What is the Longitudinal Separation based on Distance for aircraft climbing or descending on the same track?
15 miles at the time the levels are crossed, provided one aircraft maintains level flight while vertical separation does not exist.
73
What is the Longitudinal Separation based on Distance for aircraft flying reciprocal tracks?
Vertical separation to be provided by the time aircraft are within 40 miles of each other.
Once passed and 10 miles apart level changes can commence, reduced to 5 miles if both within 100 miles of DME.
74
Why is Lateral Separation applied and how is it achieved?
Lateral separation shall be applied so that the distance between aircraft is never less than a specified amount.
It is achieved by requiring aircraft to fly on different tracks or in different geographical locations as determined by visual observations or by the use of navigational aids.
75
What is the Geographical method of Lateral Separation?
Geographical separation must be positively indicated by position reports over different geographical locations, specified in MATS Part 2 as being separated, and must be constant or increasing.
76
How is Lateral Track Separation established?
By requiring aircraft to fly on specified tracks which are separated by a minimum amount appropriate to the navigational aid employed. These tracks must be within the DOC (Designated Operational Coverage) of VOR and/or the protected range of NDB.
77
What are the criteria for Lateral Track Separation?
- Aircraft must be using the same VOR/DME/TACAN.
- Continuous communication must be maintained, no more than 10 minutes between simultaneous range checks.
- The VOR and associated DME/TACAN must be within 5 miles (unless published otherwise).
78
When is Lateral Track Separations for aircraft diverging from a point considered to have been achieved?
- Both aircraft established on VOR radials which diverge by 20° or more and one aircraft is 15 miles from the DME/TACAN.
- Where no DME is available, both aircraft established on VOR radials which diverge by 20° or more and the time equivalent of 15 miles or 4 minutes, whichever is greater, has been flown by both aircraft.
- Both aircraft established on tracks that diverge by 45° or more, separation achieved as soon as both reported passed VOR.
- Using an NDB: Both aircraft established on tracks which diverge by 30° or more and the time equivalent of 15 miles or 4 minutes, whichever is greater, has been flown by both aircraft. If a pilot reports that he suspects the accuracy of the NDB this separation shall not be used.
79
When is Lateral Track Separation using a VOR/DME/TACAN considered to have been achieved when one aircraft is inbound and one outbound from a point?
Both aircraft established on radials which diverge by 20° or more and either the outbound aircraft is at least 20 miles from the DME OR the inbound aircraft is at least 30 miles from the DME.
80
Why do aircraft hold?
Weather, runway blocked, traffic density/congestion, emergency (themselves or other aircraft), ground equipment unserviceable, awaiting diversion.
81
What is a holding point?
A specified location, identified by visual or other means, in the vicinity of which, the position of an aircraft in flight is maintained in accordance with ATC procedures.
82
What are holds defined by?
Overhead a VOR, VOR/DME, NDB.
A defined distance on a defined VOR radial.
An intersection of VOR radials or NDB bearings.
83
What is the basic geography of a hold?
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Holding fix, hold axis, holding side, non-holding side.
Fix end (rate 1 turn= 1 minute), Outbound leg (1 minute at or below FL140/1.5 minutes above FL140), Outbound end, Inbound leg.
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NB an extended hold is where the outbound and inbound legs are longer than the minimum prescribed amount (measured in time or distance from a DME).
84
What is a non-published hold?
Created by an ATCO ad-hoc
Holding shall be accomplished in accordance with notified procedures.
If the notified entry an holding procedures are not known to the pilot, the appropriate ATC unit shall describe the procedures to be followed.
85
What are the three sectors of the hold, what is the angle that separates each from the hold axis, and how do aircraft join from each?
Sector 1 - North West of holding fix, 110° from west holding axis. Parallel entry- through fix, half reverse circuit, through fix again and follow hold pattern.
Sector 2- South West of holding fix, 70° from west holding axis. Offset entry- through fix heading 30° left of hold axis, join hold pattern on outbound leg/end.
Sector 3- East of holding fix (110° south/70° north). Direct entry- through fix and join hold pattern.
86
How are holds defined?
Holding fix- distance/radial from VOR/DME.
Limiting outbound distance- distance from VOR/DME.
NB VOR/DME may be located either side of the holding fix on the holding axis.
87
What is the Obstacle clearance criteria for holds, and therefor the minimum holding level?
1000ft within the holding pattern, this may be increased where necessary to provide clearance over obstacles in the buffer area (5nm around holding area- protection for hold).
Therefor minimum holding level if building/other obstacle of 1960ft within holding area is 1960+1000= 2960ft always rounded up to nearest 1000ft so= 3000ft.
88
What are the holding speeds for Approach Cat A-E aircraft, at different heights and in normal or turbulent conditions?
FL340+: Normal conditions M.83, Turbulence M.83
FL200-340: NC 265kts, T Lower of 280/M.8
FL140-200: NC 240kts, T Lower of 280/M.8
SFC-FL140: NC 230 (CAT A and B 170), T 280 (CAT A and B)
NB Wherever possible 280kts should be used for airways holding.
NB Higher speeds for turbulence generally require prior ATC approval.
89
What is an Expected Approach Time (EAT) and Onward Clearance Time?
An estimate when an aircraft will leave the hold, after delay, to commence approach.
Based on landing rate and calculated according to the traffic situation.
Onward clearance time is when an aircraft can expect to leave a fix, but not associated with commencing approach, ie en route holding.
Pilots will adjust their holding pattern to depart at these times.
If an aircraft is squawking 7600, it will depart at the last acknowledged time of clearance.
90
What rules apply to VFR holding?
Reasons for VFR holding are similar to those for general holding, although they are generally less likely to be affected by serviceability of ground equipment.
The pilot will retain responsibility for collision and terrain clearance.
Patterns likely to be less regular than IFR flights.
Highly unlikely that VFR will 'stack'.
Military aircraft often hold in the vicinity of DAs.
91
What is a Visual Reference Point (VRP)?
Established to assist ATC in routing VFR traffic and, at the same time, integrate it with IFR flights. There are numerous VRPs in the UK, which are features easily identifiable, eg Hurst Castle, the Needles. ATCOs should not instruct aircraft to hold over VRP outside controlled airspace.
VFR flights can be held within controlled airspace where a known traffic environment exists, although controllers should not direct VFR flights to hold over VRPs unless the IFR traffic situation specifically demands this (!).
92
What is the purpose of SIDS and STARS? (6 points)
- To segregate traffic operating along different routes and traffic in holding patterns.
- To be compatible with Radio Communication Failure procedures.
- To be compatible with NPRs (all jet aircraft and aircraft with a MTOW of 5700kgs or more are subject to Noise Preferential Routings).
- To allow for uninterrupted climb and descent.
- To allow for the performance of different aircraft.
- To reduce RTF loading for ATC and pilots.
93
What is the composition of the name of a STAR and what information is included in a STAR chart?
Composition:
- Basic indicator: name or name code of the point where the STAR ends (usually a hold)
- Validity Indicator: number from 1-9 (indicates which iteration)
- Route Indicator: A letter of the alphabet (not I or O), used to indicate the particular STAR route within the group.
Charts contain:
Routes, frequency and identity codes of Nav AIDS used, descent gradients, level restrictions, speed limitations, holding pattern, transition altitudes.
94
What is the composition of the name of a SID and what information is included in a SID chart?
Composition:
- Basic Indicator: Name or name in code of the point where the SID route ends (usually a Nav aid).
- Validity Indicator: Number from 1-9 to indicate up to date SID.
- Route Indicator: One letter of the alphabet (not I or O). Indicates particular runway the SID commences from.
Charts contain: Routes, Frequency and coding of Nav AIDS, climb gradients, altitude restrictions, speed limitations, transitional altitude.
95
When does vertical separation exist?
When the vertical distance between aircraft is never less than the prescribed minima.
96
What are the standard vertical separation minima?
Between two subsonic aircraft-
Up to FL290= 1000ft
Above FL290= 2000ft, unless
RVSM airspace between FL290-FL410= 1000ft
When either or both aircraft are flying supersonically-
Up to FL450= 2000ft
Above FL450= 4000ft
Mode C on some military aircraft only accurate to nearest 400ft, therefor military controllers may have to apply 4000ft at all levels.
97
What is RVSM, and to what conditions must an aircraft comply to qualify for entry to RVSM airspace?
Reduced Vertical Separation Minima.
From FL290-410 separation can be 1000ft, provided altimeter equipment must be RVSM compliant (multiple redundancy, 2 pitot tubes etc.).
Compliance conditions are set by MASPS (Minimum Aircraft Systems Performance Specification).
Non-compliant aircraft require 2000ft separation above FL290, but may only transition through RVSM airspace.
Approval must be gained from the state in which the operator is based, or in which the aircraft is registered.
Aircraft must prove RVSM compliance by overflying an HMU (Height Monitoring Unit)- STRUMBLE for North Atlantic traffic, NATTENHEIM, GENEVA and LINZ for European traffic (including UK domestic).
98
What levels are assigned in RVSM airspace?
Levels allocated according to Single Alternate FLOS (Flight Level Orientation System), between FL290 and FL410, with East bound tracks at odd levels and westbound tracks at even levels.
Pilots of aircraft intending to fly within within RVSM airspace shall request a Single Alternate FLOS level and show RVSM status on the flight plan.
99
What are RVSM status qualifiers, and why are they necessary?
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RVA = RVSM approved
RVN = Not RVSM compliant
RVU = RVSM compliance Unknown
RVX = RVSM exempt (state flight, military, police, SAR etc.)
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A symbol that looks like a burger will appear next to the Callsign on the radar as the aircraft approaches FL280.
On flight strips, a W indicates that the aircraft IS equipped with RVSM, a C means it ISN'T.
Status qualifiers assist controllers in identifying the RVSM status of flights and negate the need to ask pilots of their RVSM status.
100
What should a controller do if a pilot declares loss of RVSM or MASPS compliance?
The controller must provide 2000ft of airspace and climb or descend the aircraft out of RVSM airspace as soon as possible in a safe manner.
The only exceptions to this would be if the aircraft was in an e,wrench or if such clearance of airspace would endanger the safety of the aircraft.
101
When climbing or descending an aircraft to a vacated level, what rules apply regarding vertical separation?
Vertical separation must already exist.
The vacating aircraft must be proceeding to a level that maintains vertical separation.
The controller must observe that the vacating aircraft has left the level, or the pilot must have reported doing so.
It shouldn't be done in the event of severe turbulence.
102
What rules apply to changing level?
Aircraft may be instructed to change level at a specified time, place or rate.
Consideration must be taken of the markedly different climb/descent rates of different aircraft.
If necessary, additional measures may be taken so that required separation is maintained- eg. specifying max/min climb/descent rates.
Pilots in direct communication with each other may, with their concurrence, be instructed to maintain a specified vertical separation between aircraft during climb or descent.
103
What rules apply to VMC climbs or descents?
In Classes D,E,F and G airspace at or below FL100.
During daylight hours.
Aircraft must be in VMC.
Pilots must agree to maintain his own separation from other aircraft, whose pilot must also agree to the movement.
Essential traffic information must be given.
VMC climb/descent may trigger TCAS RA, so in Class D airspace when surveillance services are provided, VMC climb/descent shall only be used where authorised and in accordance with conditions specified in MATS Part 2.
104
What are the criteria for separation using ATS surveillance system information?
Horizontal separation based on ATS surveillance system information shall be justified by the ANSP, approved by the CAA and detailed in MATS part 2.
Separation based on ATS surveillance system information shall not be used between aircraft holding over the same point.
105
When may aircraft taking off be separated using ATC surveillance system information?
When approved by the CAA, provided there is reasonable assurance that the departing aircraft will be identified within one mile from the end of the runway and at that time the required separation will exist.
106
What rules govern the use of SSR alone?
Pilots must always be informed of this limitation.
May be used to overcome temporary deficiencies within PSR coverage, provided PSR and SSR situation displays are correctly aligned.
May only be used immediately after PSR failure for the minimum time necessary to establish procedural separation, which must then be maintained until services normally provided using radar may be resumed when the PSR is serviceable.
In any case, SSR must not be used to provide horizontal separation if there is any doubt about the radar accuracy of the position symbol due to malfunction, reflections or any other reasons.
107
What rule governs the use of Mode C SSR to provide vertical separation?
Minimum vertical separation may be applied between verified Mode C transponding aircraft provided the intentions of both aircraft are known to a controller because either:
- They are under his control,
- They have been coordinated, or
- They are operating in accordance with established agreements.
The vertical separation must be constantly monitored to ensure that the vertical distance is never less than the prescribed minima.
108
When may vertical separation using Mode C responses have to be increased? When can a Mode C response not be used for vertical separation?
Under Radar Control Service:
- If the intentions of the Mode C transponding aircraft are not know, the minimum separation must be increased to 5000ft.
- Unverified Mode C data may be used for separation purposes provided a minimum vertical separation of 5000ft is maintained and radar returns are not allowed to merge.
Under Deconfliction Service:
- If the intentions of the Mode C transponding aircraft are not known, the vertical deconfliction minima must be increased to 3000ft and, unless the SSR Mode 3A indicates that the Mode C data has been verified, the surveillance returns should not merge.
Vertical separation using Mode C is not applied against aircraft transponding Mode A0000.
109
What criteria apply when assessing the vertical position of a Mode C transponding aircraft? (4 points)
- An aircraft may be considered to be at an assigned level provided that the Mode C readout indicates 200ft or less from that level.
- An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be considered to have left a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of 400ft or more from that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction.
- An aircraft climbing or descending may be considered to have passed through a level when the Mode C readout indicates that the level has been passed by 400ft or more and continuing in the required direction.
- An aircraft may be considered to have reached an assigned level when three successive Mode C read outs indicate 200ft or less from that level.
110
How is Mode C data usually displayed?
As a flight level, but on some ground equipment the vertical position of an aircraft flying below a pre-determined datum is displayed as an altitude.
111
What is an ATC clearance, and what does one contain?
Authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by and ATCU.
Clearances are based solely on known traffic conditions and are required for any flight, or portion of a flight, which is provided with an air traffic control or advisory service.
Contents:
A/c identification, clearance limit, route, levels of flight and changes of level, additional items (ATFM slot, time restrictions, comms instructions or any special restrictions).
112
What is an ATC instruction?
A directive issued by an air traffic control unit for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action.
113
What is a clearance limit?
The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance.
Specified by naming an aerodrome, reporting point, or controlled or advisory airspace boundary.
114
If requested an allocation for clearance by a pilot, what must the controller do?
- Make every effort to clear a flight according to its requested route.
- In unable to do so, explain the reasons.
- Never say "Cleared flight plan route" (controller may not have the most up to date flight plan).
- Tell pilot if the route will take him outside controlled airspace.
- Must check that aircraft are suitably RNAV equipped to fly inside specified airspace.
115
What levels should be allocated to aircraft by a controller?
Normally allocate the requested level, otherwise allocate the nearest appropriate vacant level.
First come, first served.
Aircraft already at a level have priority.
Never allocate FL195.
Semi-circular rule applies in all airspace.
116
When might it not be possible to apply the semi-circular rule?
- Under Deconfliction Service
- Allocated levels to join, cross or leave controlled airspace.
- Being held
- Provided with advisory levels or headings for positioning or sequencing.
- Within certain areas specified by the CAA.
(- On an ADR in the vicinity of CAS, at a level to separate from traffic within CAS).
117
What rules apply to issuing amendments to clearances?
- The new clearance must be read to the pilot in full.
- It cancels any previous clearance.
- It also cancels any previous restrictions.
118
When will an aircraft be cleared for its entire route?
If it is planned to remain within CAS or advisory airspace for the entire flight, and there is reasonable assurance that co-ordination can be effected ahead of the flight.
Otherwise the clearance limit is the boundary of controlled or advisory airspace.
119
What are the Categories of flight priorities?
- Clearance requests are usually dealt with in the order that they are received, and issued according to traffic clearances.
Certain flights take priority over others:
Cat A- Aircraft in emergency (eg. engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill passenger). Aircraft which have declared a 'Police emergency'. Ambulance/medical aircraft when the safety of live is involved.
Cat B- Flights operating for SAR or other humanitarian reasons. Post accident flight checks. Other flights, including Open Skies flights, authorised by the CAA. Police flights under normal operational priority.
Cat C- Royal flights and flights carrying visiting Heads of States, which have been notified by NOTAM/Temporary Supplement.
Cat D- Flights notified by the CAA carrying Heads of Government or very senior government ministers.
Cat E- Flight check aircraft engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights. Other flights authorised by the CAA.
Normal flights- Flights that have filed a flight plan in the normal way and are conforming with normal routing procedures. Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit (Callsign EXAM).
Cat Z- Training, non-standard and other flights.
NB Flight Cat should be marked in box M of the flight progress strip, showing a letter within a circle. These categories are for tactical handling and not as flow control priorities.
120
Who is empowered to withhold clearance to aircraft?
Aerodrome authorities and certain other persons are empowered to prohibit flight and may instruct a controller to withhold clearance.
These persons are listed in unit instructions together with procedures to be adopted.
A controller must establish the power and authenticity of the person giving the instructions before withholding clearance.
Under certain circumstances a controller may withhold clearance.
121
Why may clearance to take-off be withheld?
If a controller believes a planned flight in liable to endanger life or involve a breach of legislation they must:
- Warn the pilot and obtain acknowledgement.
- Inform the pilot that the appropriate authority will be informed.
- Use the phraseology "there are no traffic reasons to restrict take off", rather than issuing clearance if the pilot still intends to depart.
- File a report and/or 939 if appropriate, record in the watch log.
A controller CANNOT withhold take-off clearance if it is known that the pilot does not have prior permission to land at the destination aircraft, or if information is received that the destination airport if closed (information should be relayed to aircraft bound for that aerodrome, until 30 minutes after the information has been received).
In the case of a Mareva Injuction (a court order preventing the removal of assets from the UK). This will probably be served at the aerodrome where the aircraft is located, but may be in relation to an aircraft in flight. However a controller is not authorised to prevent the flight, phraseology as above should be used.
122
Who is responsible for vectoring aircraft?
A controller may instruct an aircraft to turn in any direction as dictated by circumstances, but when avoiding unknown aircraft the rules of the air should be observed if practicable.
Aircraft flying outside controlled airspace are not obliged to follow instructions given by ATC, but where the pilot of an aircraft accepts a Traffic Service or Deconfliction Service, the controller can expect that his instructions will be followed.
123
When may aircraft that are NOT planned to leave controlled airspace b e vectored outside the vertical limits?
- When an emergency situation arises requiring the aircraft to be vectored OCAS.
- When avoiding severe weather; the circumstances must be explained to the pilot before the aircraft leaves controlled airspace.
- When specifically requested by the pilot.
124
What guidelines govern separation at the boundary of controlled and uncontrolled airspace?
Although aircraft operating in controlled airspace are deemed to be separated from unknown traffic flying in adjoining uncontrolled airspace, controlled should aim to keep aircraft at least 2 miles within the boundary.
Controllers should be aware of the operation of aircraft in adjacent uncontrolled airspace, particularly if circumstances have made it necessary to vector an aircraft to be less than two miles from the boundary. If need be coordination should be achieved with the controlling agency.
Unpredictable manoeuvres by unknown aircraft can easily erode separation and controllers should take appropriate action with respect to the safety of the aircraft.
125
Who is responsible for terrain clearance in any airspace?
Ultimately, regardless of the service being provided, pilots are responsible for terrain clearance. However controllers have a duty of care to aircraft.
126
What are the guidelines for terrain clearance?
Within 30nm of the radar antenna:
- 1000ft above any obstacle which is within 5nm of the aircraft, OR
- 1000ft above any observed which is situated in the area 15nm ahead and 20° either side of the aircrafts track.
These distances may be reduced to 3nm and 10nm respectively st the discretion of the CAA.
Outside 30nm from the antenna:
- 1000ft above any fixed obstacle within 15nm of the airway or advisory centre line, OR
- 1000ft above any fixed obstacle within 30nm of the aircraft.
127
What rules govern terrain clearance under Traffic Service and Deconfliction Service?
Traffic Service:
Subject to radar coverage, a TS may be provided below an ATCUs terrain safe levels, however levels provided shall be terrain safe unless agreed with the pilot.
Radar headings will only be allocated at or above the unit terrain safe level, however if the pilot requests a heading below the terrain safe level it may be provided but the pilot must be reminded that he remains responsible for terrain clearance.
Deconfliction Service:
Shall only be provided to aircraft at or above the ATCUs terrain safe level, unless on departure from an airfield and climbing to the ATCU terrain safe level.
128
When are radar controllers responsible for terrain clearance for VFR/SVFR flights?
Never. Radar controllers have no responsibility for the terrain clearance of, and will not assign levels to, aircraft operating under SVFR/VFR within CAS which accept radar vectors.
Where the airway base is defined as a flight level, the lowest useable level normally provides not less than 1500ft terrain clearance.
129
When must controllers ensure at least minimum terrain clearance?
When allocating levels to IFR flights in receipt of Radar Control Service.
