Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATC Basic > Law > Flashcards

Law Flashcards

1
Q

What are SARPS?

A

Standards and recommended practices.

Standard Practice- a specification, the uniform application of which is NECESSARY for the safety of regularity of international air navigation.
Contracting states WILL conform to standards.
If impossible to comply, it is COMPULSORY to notify the council.
U.K. Law differences published in UK AIP, Gen 1.7

Recommended Practice- a specification, the uniform application of which is DESIRABLE in the interests of safety, regularity or efficiency.
Contracting states will ENDEAVOUR to conform.
States are INVITED to inform the council of non- compliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are PANS?

A

Procedures for Air Navigation Services.
Do not have the same status as SARPS.
Contain operating practices and material too detailed for SARPS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are SUPPS?

A

Regional Supplementary Procedures.
Considered necessary to supplement PANS.
9 geographical regions to cater for different types of flying operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is EASA?

A

European Aviation Safety Agency.
Established in 2002 by EU.
Based on the LEGAL framework of the European Community.
Creates draft regulations to be adopted into law.
31 signatories, 650 aviation experts and administrators.
Aims to promote common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is EUROCONTROL?

A

European Organisation for the Safety of Air Navigation.
Founded in 1960- civil-military organisation.
40 member states.
Aims: restructure European airspace, build a single European sky, implement economic measures.
Operates: the Maastricht Upper Control Centre, CMFU, Central Route Charges Office.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is ECAC?

A

European Civil Aviation Conference.
Think tank to provide expertise to EASA and EUROCONTROL.
Does not have regulatory powers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the CAA?

A

Civil Aviation Authority.
Public corporation, established by Parliament as Uk specialist aviation regulator.
Responsibilities include:
Air Safety, Economic Regulation, Airspace Regulation, Consumer Protection, Environmental Research.
Split into 3 main groups:
Regulatory Policy Group- economic regulation.
Consumer Protection Group- manages ATOL
Safety and Airspace Management (SARG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is SARG?

A 
Safety and Airspace Regulation Group.
To ensure that UK civil aviation standards are set and achieved. 
Responsibilities:
Harmonising European Standards
Air traffic control services
Medicals
Training
Incident reporting
Also responsible for planning and regulating uk airspace.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the purpose and function of ICAO?

A
  • specialised agency of the UN
  • HQ in Montreal, 7 regional offices.
  • 191 contracting states.
  • aim: To develop the principals and techniques of international air navigation.
    To foster the planning and development of international civil air transport.
  • 96 articles, 18 annexes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the parameters for issue of a Student ATC license?

A
  • Be at least 18 years old.
  • Meet minimum specified educational qualifications.
  • Successfully complete approved initial training relevant to the rating
  • Hold a valid medical certificate
  • English language level 4+

NB No expiry for student license, but must exercise privileges within one year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a ceiling?

A

1) Cloud Ceiling: In relation to an aerodrome the vertical distance from the elevation of the aerodrome to the lowest part of any cloud visible from the aerodrome which is sufficient to cover more than one half of the sky.
2) Ceiling: The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20000ft covering more than half the sky.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is visibility for aeronautical purposes?

A

The greater of:

1) The greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions, situated near the ground, can be seen and recognised when observed against a bright background.
2) The greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1000 candelas can be seen and identified against an unlit black background.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Ground Visibility?

A

The visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Flight Visibility?

A

The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is meant by Night?

A

The time from half an hour after sunset until half an hour before sunrise inclusive, with both sunrise and sunset determined at surface level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are Visual Meteorological Conditions?

A

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, equal to or better than specified minima.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are Instrument Meteorological Conditions?

A

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, less than the minima specified for Visual Meteorological Conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What factors might affect VMC minima?

A
  • Type of airspace.
  • Type of aircraft.
  • Height aircraft is flying.
  • Speed of aircraft.
  • Day or night.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the requirements for VFR flights at night?

A
  • If the aircraft leaves the vicinity of the aerodrome it must file a flight plan.
  • The cloud ceiling must be at least 1500ft amsl, and visibility must be at least 5km (3km for helicopters).
  • Flying at 3000ft or below, the surface must be in sight at all times.
  • Aircraft flown with at least 1000ft clearance above the highest fixed object within 8km of the aircraft, or 2000ft when flying over high or mountainous terrain.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

To what provisions of SERA shall VFR flights comply?

A
  • Type of service available.
  • Air traffic clearance adherence.
  • Flight plan adherence.
  • Position reports.
  • Two-way communications.
  • Shall fly at cruising levels allocated in SERA appendix 3, unless specified by competent authority.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is SERA appendix 3?

A

Cruising flight levels for VFR flights in airspace categorised as B, C, D:

  • Westbound traffic: Even flight levels + 500ft (2000ft apart)
  • Eastbound traffic: Odd flight levels + 500ft (2000ft apart).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the rule regarding Proximity?

A

Aircraft shall not be in such proximity to other aircraft as to create a collision hazard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the parameters for Formation Flight?

A

Aircraft shall not be flown in formation except by prearrangement among the pilots in command and, for formation flight in controlled airspace, in accordance with the conditions prescribed by the competent authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the basic rights of way?

A

Flying machines shall give way to airships, balloons and gliders; Airships shall give way to gliders and balloons; and Gliders shall give way to balloons.

Aircraft overtaking:
Aircraft being overtaken has right of way, but must maintain heading and altitude until clear.
Aircraft overtaking always overtakes on the right (gliders left or right).
NB. This is opposite from on the ground.

Converging aircraft at the same altitude: one with the other on its right gives way by turning to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What rights of way and rules apply to traffic in the vicinity of an aerodrome? (6 points)

A

Flying machine, glider or airship shall conform to traffic pattern or keep clear, and make all turns to LEFT unless authorised otherwise (ground signals or ATC).

Aircraft landing or on final approach has right of way over other aircraft in flight or on the ground.

Lower aircraft on final approach has right of way, other aircraft shall not cut in front unless ATC say so or in emergency. At night aircraft in front cleared on final will go around if there is an aircraft in emergency behind unless ATC clears to land AGAIN.

No land after unless ATC authorises.

If no runway, land and take off with other aircraft to left (includes gliders).

Aircraft must clear the landing area asap unless ATC say otherwise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What separate rules apply to gliders?

A

When under tow, considered to be one machine with, and under command of, towing aircraft.

Mechanically driven aircraft must give way to a towing aircraft.

Gliders may overtake on either side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are Aerobatics and what are the rules surrounding them?

A

Aerobatic Manoeuvres include: Loops, Spins, Bunts (inverted loop), Stall turns, Inverted flying and any similar.

Can never be performed over congested area of city, town or settlement (congested means any area which is substantially see for residential, industrial, commercial or recreational purposes).

In CAS only with the consent of appropriate ATCU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What aircraft do Articles 163-168 of the ANO refer to?

A

Captive and Tethered Balloons, Kites, Airships, Gliders, Parascending parachutes, Small unmanned aircraft (drones), Rockets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What rule governs the use of navigation aids at aerodromes outside of controlled airspace? Why is this important?

A

Aircraft using any radio navigation aid must comply with notified procedure, unless authorised by ATC or aircraft is required to comply with an ATC clearance.

Negates potential conflict between en-route IFR flights using these beacons and VFR aircraft using holding and approach procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What speed limit is in force below FL100, and what exceptions exist?

A

Aircraft below FL100 to fly 250kts or less.

Except:
Flights in Class A and B airspace.
IFR flights in Class C airspace.
VFR flights in Class C airspace when approved in MATS Part 2 and authorised by ATC.
Aircraft subject to written permission granted by the CAA, eg. Flying displays, test flying
State aircraft such as military aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What conditions must be applied by by the pilot and ATC to qualify for a Special VFR flight?

A

Pilot:
Clear of cloud and WSIS (With surface in sight), flight visibility not less than 1500m (helicopters 800m), IAS of 140 kts or less.

ATC:
During the day only (unless permitted by CAA), ground visibility not less than 1500m (helicopters 800m), ceiling not less than 600ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What rules apply to changing from IFR to VFR?

A
  • Must notify the appropriate ATSU specifically of cancellation (and communicate changes to flight plan).
  • Aircraft shall not cancel its IFR flight if it encounters VMC, unless it is anticipated the flight will continue in uninterrupted VMC for a reasonable period.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When might an IFR flight be exempted from following the Semi-circular cruising rule? (5 points)

A
  • When following ATSU instructions.
  • When allocated levels to join, cross or leave controlled airspace.
  • In accordance with holding procedures notified with relation to an aerodrome.
  • Provided with level and/or heading allocations for positioning and sequencing.
  • As otherwise specified by the CAA.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What rules apply to IFR flight rules outside controlled airspace?

A
  • Shall be flown at cruising level appropriate to its track as per the semi-circular rule.
  • Within or into areas, or along routes, designated by the competent authority… shall maintain an air-ground voice communication watch on the appropriate channel and establish two-way communication with the air traffic services unit.
  • Shall report time and level of passing compulsory reporting points, or as requested by the ATCU. (solid or hollow purple triangle).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What rule governs the use of navigation aids at aerodromes outside of controlled airspace? Why is this important?

A

Aircraft using any radio navigation aid must comply with notified procedure, unless authorised by ATC or aircraft is required to comply with an ATC clearance.

Negates potential conflict between en-route IFR flights using these beacons and VFR aircraft using holding and approach procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a Special VFR? What conditions are applied by the controller and pilot?

A

A SVFR is a VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTZ in meteorological conditions below VMC.

A SVFR clearance is issued when requested by a pilot or when notified in the UK AIP for a particular type of operation.

Before issuing such a clearance, a controller must consider the prevailing traffic conditions, the extent of the proposed flight and the availability of air-ground communications. Special VFR flight are not to hinder normal IFR flights.

The following conditions shall be applied by the pilot:

  • Clear of cloud and WSIS (with surface in sight)
  • Flight Visibility not less than 1500m (helicopters 800m)
  • IAS of 140kts or less

The following conditions shall be applied by ATC:

  • During the day only (unless permitted by CAA)
  • Ground Visibility not less than 1500m (helicopters 800m)
  • Ceiling not less than 600ft.
37
Q

What rules govern Minimum Levels for all IFR flights?

A

1) Over high terrain or in mountainous areas (5000ft +), at a level which is at least 2000ft above the highest obstacle located within 8km of aircraft. (None in UK)
2) Other than specified in 1), at a level which is at least 1000ft above the highest obstacle located within 8km of the aircraft.

Exceptions:
For taking off and landing
When specifically authorised by the competent authority.

38
Q

What rules govern changing from IFR to VFR?

A

Pilot must notify the appropriate ATSU specifically of cancellation of IFR, and communicate changes to flight plan.
Aircraft shall not cancel its IFR flight if it encounters VMC, unless it is anticipated the flight will continue in uninterrupted VMC for a reasonable period.

(Less regulation for VFR flight, pilot might want?)

39
Q

What rules apply to IFR within CAS?

A
  • Type of service available
  • Air traffic clearance adherence
  • Flight Plan adherence
  • Position reports
  • Two-way communication.

(NB Same as VFR in CAS)

40
Q

What Cruising Levels apply to IFR flights in CAS? When might exemptions apply?

A

Westbound:
3000ft- FL400: Even Flight Levels 2000ft apart.
FL400- FL590+: ODD Flight Levels 4000ft apart.

Eastbound:
3000ft- FL410: Odd Flight Levels 2000ft apart.
FL410- FL570+: Odd Flight Levels 4000ft apart.

Exemptions when aircraft are:

  • in conformity with the instructions of the appropriate ATSU.
  • allocated levels to join, cross or leave CAS.
  • in accordance with holding procedures notified in relation to an aerodrome.
  • provided with level and/or heading allocations for positioning and sequencing.
  • as otherwise specified by the CAA.
41
Q

What cruising levels apply to IFR flight OCAS?

A

An IFR flight in level flight outside of controlled airspace shall conform to the semi-circular rule,except:

  • when otherwise specified by the competent authority, or
  • when flying at or below 3000ft.
42
Q

What communications shall an IFR flight operating outside controlled airspace but within or into areas, or along routes, designated by the competent authority maintain? When shall they report?

A

Air-ground voice communication watch on the appropriate communication channel and establish two-way communication with the ATSU.
They shall report position at the time and level of passing compulsory reporting points, or at points as requested by the ATCU.

43
Q

What must any aircraft using any navigational aid do?

A

Must comply with notified procedures unless:

  • authorised by an ATCU, or
  • required to comply with an ATC clearance.

This means most en-route flights talk to APC (approach control) and cooperate with their advice.

44
Q

What may the Secretary of State make regulations prescribing?

A
  • The manner in which aircraft move or fly including military priority.
  • Lights and signals to be shown by aircraft or persons.
  • Lighting and marking of aerodromes.
  • Provision for the security and safety or aircraft in flight and in movement, and safety of persons/property on the surface.
45
Q

When may the Rules of the Air be departed from?

A
  • Avoiding imminent danger.
  • Complying with the law of any other country within which the aircraft is flying.
  • Complying with MOD Flying Regulations or orders for military aircraft, or acting as a member of HM Naval, Military or Air Forces.
46
Q

What is an Air Traffic Control Unit?

A

A unit established by a person appointed by a person maintaining an aerodrome or place to provide air traffic control service.

A generic term meaning variously, area control centre, approach control unit or aerodrome control tower.

47
Q

When shall an aircraft be deemed to be in flight?

A

In the case of a Piloted Flying Machine, from the moment when, after the Embarkation of its Crew for the Purpose of Taking Off, it first moves under its own power until the moment when it next comes to rest after landing.

48
Q

What are the definitions of Aircraft, Aeroplane and Helicopter?

A

Aircraft- A machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air, other than the reactions of the air against the earths surface.

Aeroplane- An engine-driven fixed-wing aircraft heavier than air that is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its wings.

Helicopter- A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes.

49
Q

What is Commercial Air Transport (CAT)? What license must a CAT operator hold, and when would this not apply?

A

An aircraft operation to transport passengers, cargo or mail for renumeration or other valuable consideration.

CAT operators must hold an EU-OPS air operator certificate. This does not apply to some other categories of aircraft, such as helicopters, balloons, airships or AIRCRAFT OF 5700KG OR LESS.

50
Q

What is Public Transport and what are some examples of it?

A

A flight which carries passengers or cargo where valuable consideration has been given or promised. Examples could be TV or Police flights, or power line surveys. The term captures flights not covered by CAT wherever there is payment for the carriage of a person who is not a member of the crew.

51
Q

What exemptions are there to the rule that all public transport and CAT flights must only land or take off at an appropriately licensed aerodrome?

A

Certain flights by helicopters or aircraft below specified weight limits.
Some training flights operated at training aerodromes.

52
Q

What are the laws regarding Endangering the safety of an aircraft, and Endangering the safety of any person or property?

A

A person shall not recklessly or negligently act in a manner likely to endanger an aircraft, or person therein (eg lasers, fireworks).

A person shall not recklessly or negligently cause or permit an aircraft to endanger any person or property.

53
Q

What law governs the Misuse of Signals and Markings?

A

A person in an aircraft or on an aerodrome or at any place at which an aircraft is taking off or landing must not:

1) make a signal which may be confused with those specified in SERA, or
2) shall not knowingly make any military signal unless authorised.

54
Q

What are the three Phases of Emergency?

A

Uncertainty Phase- A situation wherein doubt exists as to the safety of an aircraft or a marine vessel, and of the persons on board.

Alert Phase- A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft or marine vessel, and of the persons on board.

Distress Phase- A situation wherein there is a reasonable certainty that a vessel or other craft, including an aircraft, or a person, is threatened by grave and immediate danger and requires immediate assistance.

55
Q

How may a pilot signal grave and immediate danger?

A

RT “Mayday, Mayday, Mayday”,
SOS sound signalling or continuos sounding,
Red parachute flare or pyrotechnic lights.

56
Q

How may a pilot signal an Urgency message and for what reasons?

A

Concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft, vehicle or property, or of a person on board or within sight of an aircraft.

RT “Pan pan, Pan pan, Pan pan”, or XXX morse code sound signalling.

57
Q

How might a pilot signal that his aircraft has difficulties which compel it to land but immediate assistance is not required?

A

Repeated switching on and off of landing lights, or navigation lights in such a manner as to be distinct from flashing navigation lights.

58
Q

What rules govern the use of Aerodrome Signals?

A

Upon observing or receiving any of the signals… aircraft shall take such action as may be required by the interpretation of the signal.

The signals of Appendix 1 shall, when used, have the meaning indicated therein. They shall be used only for the purpose indicated and no other signals likely to be confused with them shall be used.

59
Q

What signals might be seen at an aerodrome?

A

From an aircraft in flight to an aerodrome:

  • Red flare: Immediate assistance is requested.
  • Green light (continuos or flashing) or flare: By day- May I land? By Night- May I land in different direction from T?
  • White flares, or switching on and off of navigation or landing lights: I am compelled to land.

To an aircraft in flight:

  • Red continuous light: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
  • Red flashing light: Do not land, aerodrome not available for landing.
  • Red flare: Do not land, wait for permission.
  • Green flashing light: Return to aerodrome, wait for permission to land.
  • Green continuos light: You may land.
  • White light: Land after continuos green light and then, after green flashes proceed to apron.

To an aircraft on the aerodrome:

  • Green flashing light: You may move on the manoeuvring area and apron.
  • Green continuos light: You may take off.
  • White flashing light: Return to starting point on aerodrome.

To a vehicle on the aerodrome:

  • Green flashing light: You may move on the manoeuvring area.
  • White flashing light: Return to starting point on the aerodrome.

To an aircraft OR vehicle on the aerodrome:

  • Red continuos light: STOP
  • Red flashing light: Move clear of landing area.
60
Q

How would an aircraft acknowledge a visual signal at an aerodrome?

A

In flight:
Daylight- rocking aircraft wings,
Night- Flashing on and off twice landing or navigation lights.

On the ground:
Daylight- moving ailerons or rudder,
Night- Flashing on and off twice landing or navigation lights.

61
Q

What lights must an aircraft display, and when must this be obeyed?

A

Red or White- Port wing, and above fuselage.
Green- Starboard wing
White- Underneath fuselage, and rear of tail.

In flight:
By day, an anti collision light, and
By night, lights as specified in the rules and no other lights which might obscure, impair the visibility or be mistaken for such lights.

On a UK aerodrome:
By day or night, when aircraft is stationary on apron with engines running.
By night, same lights as in flight unless the aircraft is stationary on an apron or maintainable area.

62
Q

What happens if an aircrafts lights fail? When may an ATCU authorise continued flight?

A

In the UK by day- If an anti collision light fails the aircraft may continue to fly provided that the light is repaired at the earliest practicable opportunity.

In the UK at night:
On the ground- the aircraft shall not depart.
In flight- the aircraft shall land as soon as it is safe to do so, unless authorised to continue flight by appropriate ATCU if:

  • flight is wholly within UK CAS, outside UK not authorised unless permission obtained from adjacent controlling authority.
  • flight outside CAS pilot should be instructed to land at nearest suitable aerodrome.
  • choice is responsibility of pilot, may ask for information to assist, may decide that original destination is nearest suitable (!).
63
Q

What classes as the Misuse of Lights?

A

A person shall not exhibit a light that, by reason of its glare, is liable to endanger aircraft taking off or landing, or that could be mistaken for an aeronautical ground light.
A person shall not direct or shine any light at any aircraft in flight, so as to dazzle or distract the pilot.

64
Q

What is the Malicious Use of Lasers against Aircraft and ATS facilities?

A

Reported incidents increasing significantly.
Can cause distraction, glare, temporary blindness, afterimage or eye injury.
Distractions to aircrew or ATS personnel may threaten aircraft safety.
Unit instructions should include guidance for staff subjected to laser attacks.
MATS Part 1, Appendix 1, Aviation Laser Exposure Self Assessment (ALESA) should be filled out.

65
Q

What is an Aerodrome?

A

A defined area( including buildings, installations and equipment) on land or water or on a fixed, fixed off-shore or floating structure intended to be used wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.

66
Q

What is an Apron?

A

The part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the embarkation and disembarkation of passengers, or the loading and unloading of cargo, and parking.

67
Q

What is a Manoeuvring Area?

A

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons.

68
Q

What is a Runway?

A

A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.

69
Q

What rules govern the Movement of Aircraft at an aerodrome?

A

An aircraft shall not taxi on the apron or the manoeuvring area of the aerodrome without permission of the person in charge of the aerodrome, or, where the aerodrome has an ATCU for the time being notified as being on watch, without permission of this unit.

70
Q

What rules govern access to and movement of persons and vehicles on the aerodrome?

A

Unless there is public right of way over it, a person or vehicle must:

a) not go onto any part of an aerodrome without the permission of the person in charge of that part of the aerodrome, and
b) comply with any conditions subject to which that permission may be granted.

A person or vehicle must:

a) not go onto or move on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome which has an ATC unit or an AFISO unit without permission of that unit, and
b) comply with any conditions subject to which that permission may be granted.

71
Q

What rules cover Right of Way on the Ground at an aerodrome?

A

The movement of persons or vehicles, including towed aircraft, on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall be controlled by the aerodrome control tower as necessary to avoid hazard to them or to an aircraft landing, taxiing or taking off.

Flying machines and vehicles give way to aircraft taking off or landing.
Flying machines which are not taking off or landing and vehicles give way to vehicles towing aircraft.
Vehicles not towing aircraft give way to aircraft.

72
Q

What is an Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ)?

A

Airspace of defined dimensions established around an aerodrome for the protection or aerodrome traffic.
(Always takes on the airspace classification of the airspace in which it is located).

73
Q

What rules govern flights within ATZs?

A

An aircraft shall not fly, take off or land within an ATZ without either:

  • Permission of ATC, or
  • Information from the AFISO, or from air-ground radio to allow the flight to be conducted in safety.

Whilst in the zone, a pilot must:

  • Maintain a continuos watch on the appropriate radio frequency (or if non radio watch out for visual signals), and
  • Report position and height on entering the zone and immediately prior to leaving it.

(These rules only apply during notified hours of watch).

74
Q

What is the purpose of the MATS Part 1?

A

The Manual of Air Traffic Services contains procedures, instructions and information, which are intended to inform the basis of ATS within the UK. It is published for use by civil ATCs and may also be of general interest to others associated with with civil aviation.

75
Q

What should the provision of ATS be based upon?

A

Expedition consistent with safety. Any deviation from basic procedures should be carefully considered against the extent of coordination required and the attendant risk of error.

The controller should only deviate from the basic procedures when he is quite sure that the resultant coordination can be carried out without excessive workload and without detriment to the safety of traffic under his control.

76
Q

What are a Supplementary Instructions issued for?

A

To introduce an entirely new subject or radical change to existing instructions, or to re-emphasise an existing instruction.

77
Q

What is a NOTAM?

A

Notice To Airmen- aimed at pilots and operational aerodromes. These are law and inform of any changes in the AIP (shortening of runway length due to WIP). Must have an expiry date and must be not longer than 3 months.

78
Q

Where are the differences between ICAO guidelines and UK law notified?

A

UK AIP GEN 1.7

79
Q

What is an Aerodrome?

A

A defined area (including buildings, installations and equipment) on land or water or on a fixed, floating or offshore structure intended to be used wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.

80
Q

How are runways configured and designated?

A

Orientation to the nearest Deca degrees (multiples of 10) used to describe runway take off direction (opposite to wind). In degrees magnetic.
Eg. Runway taking off due east would be 09, due south west (225°) rounded up to 23.

81
Q

What is the Runway in Use?

A

The term used to indicate the particular runway or landing direction selected by Aerodrome control as the most suitable at any particular time.

82
Q

What is an Air Traffic Service?

A

A generic term meaning variously flight information service, alerting service, air traffic advisory service, air traffic control service (area control service, approach control service or aerodrome control service).

83
Q

What facilities might be available at airports?

A

ATS, Rescue and Fire fighting services, Meteorological, HM Revenue and Customs, Police, Engineering (ground and aircraft), Ground Handling (marshalling, baggage, refuelling, catering), airline operations, flying school.

84
Q

What are the rules governing minimum heights for VFR flights over and outside of congested areas, or at any other time?

A

Except with the written permission of the CAA, aircraft flying over congested areas of a city, town or settlement shall not fly below the height of 1000ft above the highest fixed obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 meters of the aircraft.

Except with the written permission of the CAA, aircraft flying outside of congested areas shall not fly below a height of 500ft above the ground or water, or above the highest fixed obstacle within a horizontal radius of 150m of the aircraft.

Except with the written permission of the CAA, aircraft shall not fly closer than 500ft to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

85
Q

What are the rules governing the minimum heights for IFR flights?

A

Except with the written permission of the CAA, aircraft flying over high terrain or mountainous areas (5000ft- none in the UK) shall not fly below a height of 2000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

Except with the written permission of the CAA, aircraft flying outside of high terrain or mountainous areas shall not fly below a height of 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

86
Q

How and why can a competent authority increase the minimum heights specified in SERA, and what steps should be taken to promulgate this information?

A

In cases where it is considered that the minimum heights specified in SERA are not sufficient, a competent authority may establish appropriate structures, such as controlled, restricted or prohibited airspace, and define specific conditions through national arrangements.
In all cases the related AIP and charts should be made easy to comprehend for airspace users.

87
Q

What rules govern landing and taking off near, and flying over, open air assemblies?

A

Aircraft shall not land or take off within 1000m of an organised open-air assembly of more than 1000 persons, except:

  • at an aerodrome, in accordance with procedures notified by the CAA, or,
  • at a landing site other than an aerodrome, in accordance with procedures notified by the CAA and with the written permission of the organiser of the assembly.

Except with the written permission of the CAA, aircraft shall not fly over an organised open-air assembly of more than 1000 persons below a height of 1000ft, or such height as will permit, in the event of a power unit failure, the aircraft to alight clear of the assembly.

NB- Police flights with Police Air Operator Certificate exempt.

88
Q

What are the exemptions to the rules regarding minimum heights?

A

Approaches to landings or forced landings:

  • 500’ rule exempt for all landing, taking off and air taxiing.
  • All low flying prohibitions exempt at Government or licensed aerodromes for landing, taking off, practising approaches or checking NAVAIDS or procedures.

Training aerodromes:
- Exempt for training aircraft or helicopters below specific weight limits whilst landing, taking off or practicing approaches.

Flying displays:
- Aircraft in a flying display, air race or contest are exempt from the 500’ rule if within a horizontal distance of 1000m of the gathering of persons assembled to witness the event.

Gliders hill soaring- exempt from 500’ rule.

Picking up and dropping at an aerodrome:
- Any aircraft picking up or dropping tow ropes, banners or similar articles at an aerodrome is exempt from the 500’ rule.

Manoeuvring helicopters:
- Exempt from 500’ rule if at licensed or government aerodromes, or at other sites with CAA permission provided that the helicopter is not operated closer than 60m to persons, vessels, vehicles or structures located outside the aerodrome or site.

Police Air Operators Certificate:
- An aircraft flying in accordance with a police air operators certificate is exempt from the 500’ and 1000’ rules, and the prohibition on landing and taking off near and flying over open air assemblies.

Dropping Articles with the permission of the CAA:

  • Aircraft are exempt from the 500’ rule when dropping articles for the purposes of public health, as measures against weather, surface icing or pollution, or when training to drop articles, and
  • When flying in accordance with an aerial application certificate issued by the CAA.

Captive balloons and kites:
- None of the low flying prohibitions or minimum heights shall apply to any captive balloon or height.

Balloons and helicopters over congested areas:

  • A balloon is exempt from the 1000’ rule if it is landing because it is becalmed.
  • Any helicopter flying over a congested area is exempt from the land clear rule (except some specific areas, eg London, where a helicopter must be able to alight clear if an engine fails).

SVFR and notified routes:

  • Any SVFR aircraft, or aircraft operating iaw procedures notified for the route is exempt from the 1000’ rule.
  • Landings may only be made at a government or licensed aerodrome unless with permission of the CAA.

ATC Basic (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions