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02LMR_RANDOM DECKS > POPCORN 4 > Flashcards

POPCORN 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Sampling for ACTH determination:
A. Prechilled heparin tube
B. Prewarmed heparin tube
C. Prechilled EDTA tube
D. Prewarmed EDTA tube

A

C. Prechilled EDTA tube

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2
Q

A complete deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase results in which disease?
A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
B. Modification of diet in renal disease
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Reye’s syndrome
E. Megaloblastic anemia

A

A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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3
Q

Select the coupling enzyme used in the kinetic AST reaction:
A. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Malate dehydrogenase
C. Glutamate dehydrogenase
D. G-6-PD

A

B. Malate dehydrogenase

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4
Q

The first intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum is:
A. Copepod
B. Snail
C. Fish
D. Crab

A

A. Copepod

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5
Q

What is the infective stage of the broad tapeworm to humans?
A. Plerocercoid
B. Coracidium
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Cysticercus

A

A. Plerocercoid

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6
Q

All are components of CLINITEST, except:
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose

A

D. Lactose

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7
Q

Which of the following is a component of ACETEST?
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose

A

D. Lactose

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8
Q

What type of leukocyte actively participates in acute inflammatory processes and contains myeloperoxidase within its primary (azurophilic) granules and alkaline phosphatase in its secondary (specific) granules?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Monocytes
D. Lymphocytes
E. Plasma cells

A

A. Neutrophils

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9
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable time in which a unit of whole blood is collected?
A. 33 minutes
B. 25 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 13 minutes

A

D. 13 minutes

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10
Q

A unit tests positive for syphilis using the rapid plasma reagin test (RPR). The microhemagglutinin assay-Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP) on the same unit is negative. What is the disposition of the unit?
A. The unit may be used to prepare components
B. The donor must be contacted and questioned further; if the RPR result is most likely a falsepositive, then the unit may be used
C. The unit must be discarded
D. Cellular components may be prepared but must be irradiated before issue

A

A. The unit may be used to prepare components

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11
Q

The earliest antibody response and development of IgM is in response to the OspC membrane protein, the flagellar antigens (FlaA and FlaB), or the fibronectin binding protein (BBK32):
A. AIDS
B. Lyme disease
C. Scarlet fever
D. Syphilis

A

B. Lyme disease

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12
Q

Which technique is used to detect DNA containing a specific base sequence by applying a labeled probe to DNA bands immobilized onto nitrocellulose paper following electrophoresis?
A. Southern blot
B. Northern blot
C. Dot blot
D. Western blot

A

A. Southern blot

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13
Q

Which of the following could be a broad cast?
A. Hyaline cast
B. Granular cast
C. Waxy cast
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

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14
Q

Most commonly seen broad casts:
A. Hyaline and granular casts
B. Hyaline and waxy casts
C. Granular and waxy casts
D. RBC and WBC casts

A

C. Granular and waxy casts

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15
Q

Bone marrow cellularity refers to the ratio of:
A. Red cell precursors to white cell precursors
B. Hematopoietic tissue to adipose tissue
C. Granulocytic cells to erythrocytic cells
D. Extravascular tissue to intravascular tissue

A

B. Hematopoietic tissue to adipose tissue

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16
Q

What percentage of tissue located in the bone marrow cavities of adults is fat?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%

A

C. 50%

17
Q

Yellow ground-glass colonies on cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA):
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium perfringens

A

C. Clostridium difficile

18
Q

Laser is an acronym for:
A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
B. Light augmentation by stimulated emission of radiation
C. Light amplification of stimulated energy radiation
D. Large-angle stimulated emission of radiation

A

A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

19
Q

Which of the following types of leukemia is most associated with children ages 2 to 10 years?
A. Acute lymphoblastic
B. Acute myelogenous
C. Chronic lymphocytic
D. Chronic myelogenous

A

A. Acute lymphoblastic

20
Q

Waxy cast in KOVA STAIN: STERNHEIMER-MALBIN
A. Blue-green
B. Pale blue
C. Pale purple or pale pink
D. Red-brown

A

C. Pale purple or pale pink

21
Q

The most severe state of erythrocytic abnormality, with the abnormality prevalent throughout each microscopic field; comparable terms are marked or marked increase.
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+

A

D. 4+

22
Q

Albumin reagent strips utilizing the dye ________ has a higher sensitivity and specificity for albumin:
A. DIDNTB
B. TMB
C. DBDH
D. Tetrabromphenol blue

A

A. DIDNTB

23
Q

Which of the following is contained in the primary granules of the neutrophil?
A. Lactoferrin
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Histamine
D. Alkaline phosphatase

A

B. Myeloperoxidase

24
Q

Blood vessel that supply blood to the kidney:
A. Renal artery
B. Renal vein
C. Peritubular capillaries
D. None of these

A

A. Renal artery

25
Q

On a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear, stress or shift reticulocytes are:
A. Smaller than normal reticulocytes
B. About the same size as normal reticulocytes
C. Larger than normal reticulocytes
D. Noticeable because of a decreased blue tint

A

C. Larger than normal reticulocytes

26
Q

You receive a blood gas sample on a patient who is in the emergency room for assessment of unexplained vomiting for the past 4 days and abnormal respirations. Which of the following interpretations best describes the patient’s blood gas results?
* pH: 7.50
* pO2: 85 mm Hg
* pCO2: 55 mm Hg
* HCO3-: 35 mmol/L

A. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis
B. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis
C. Compensated metabolic alkalosis
D. Compensated metabolic acidosis

A

B. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

27
Q

Lyophilization:
A. 4 C
B. 40 C
C. -4 C
D. -40 C

A

D. -40 C

28
Q

An example of a pre-analytical (preexamination) error is:
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
B. Incorrect identification of a patient
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report
D. Verbally reporting a laboratory result over the telephone

A

B. Incorrect identification of a patient

29
Q

An example of an analytical (examination) error is:
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
B. Incorrect patient identification
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report
D. Use of the wrong anticoagulant in the patient sample tube

A

A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing

30
Q

An example of a post-analytical (post-examination)error is:
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
B. Incorrect patient identification
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report
D. Use of the wrong anticoagulant in the patient sample tube

A

C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report

31
Q

Blood from the wrong patient is an example of a/an:
A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error
B. Analytical (examination) error
C. Postanalytical (postexamination) error
D. Either A or B

A

A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error

32
Q

Specimen collected in the wrong tube is an example of a/ an:
A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error
B. Analytical (examination) error
C. Postanalytical (postexamination) error
D. Either A or B

A

A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error

33
Q

Quality control outside of acceptable limits is an example of a/an:
A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error
B. Analytical (examination) error
C. Postanalytical (postexamination) error
D. Either A or C

A

B. Analytical (examination) error

34
Q

Standards are defined as:
A. How close a test result is to the true value
B. Specimens that are similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent
C. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
D. Highly purified substances of known composition

A

D. Highly purified substances of known composition

35
Q

A control is defined as:
A. How close a test result is to the true value
B. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent
C. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
D. Measurement of a highly purified substance of known composition

A

B. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent

36
Q

Calibration is defined as:
A. How close results are to one another
B. How close a test result is to the true value
C. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent
D. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant

A

D. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant

37
Q

Sensitivity is:
A. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result
B. Cases without a specific disease or condition that produce a negative result
C. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a negative result
D. Cases without a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result

A

A. Cases with a specific disease or condition that produce a positive result

38
Q

These cells are increased in effusions resulting from PANCREATITIS:
A. Lymphocytes
B. Mesothelial cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophils

A

C. Neutrophils

39
Q

Decreased mesothelial cells and increased plasma cells in pleural fluid:
A. Pancreatitis
B. Pulmonary infarction
C. Tuberculosis
D. Pneumonia not responding to antibiotics

A

C. Tuberculosis

02LMR_RANDOM DECKS (6 decks)

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