POPCORN 1 Flashcards
Feather-edged colonies usually surrounded by zone of green discoloration; produces a highly characteristic, fruity odor resembling apples or strawberries:
A. Achromobacter denitrificans
B. Pseudomonas alcaligenes
C. Pseudomonas pseudoalcaligenes
D. Alcaligenes faecalis
D. Alcaligenes faecalis
Convex, smooth, gray, nonhemolytic; rough and mucoid variants can occur; may have a musty or mushroom odor:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Chromobacterium violaceum
C. Pasteurella multocida
Distinct odor that is often referred to as a “chocolate cake” or “burnt chocolate” smell:
A. Burkholderia cepacia
B. Eikenella corrodens
C. Proteus spp.
D. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Proteus spp.
Oxidase positive, urease negative:
A. B. pertussis
B. B. parapertussis
C. B. bronchiseptica
D. None of these
A. B. pertussis
Oxidase and urease positive:
A. B. pertussis
B. B. parapertussis
C. B. bronchiseptica
D. None of these
C. B. bronchiseptica
Oxidase negative, urease positive:
A. B. pertussis
B. B. parapertussis
C. B. bronchiseptica
D. None of these
B. B. parapertussis
Catalase positive, lactose negative, xylose positive:
A. Haemophilus aegypticus
B. Haemophilus ducreyi
C. Haemophilus parainfluenzae
D. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Haemophilus influenzae
Which of the following bacteria is able to hydrolyze urea via urease production, which results in an increase in urine pH that is toxic to kidney cells and stimulates the formation of kidney stones?
A. E. coli
B. Proteus
C. S. aureus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus
Cetrimide medium is primarily used to isolated and purify ______ from contaminated specimens.
A. C. diphtheriae
B. P. aeruginosa
C. S. agalactiae
D. Y. enterocolitica
B. P. aeruginosa
It is a serious pathogen of the eye, causing progressive endophthalmitis:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Bacillus thurigiensis
B. Bacillus cereus
A 55-year-old man who is being treated for adenocarcinoma of the lung is admitted to a hospital because of a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F), chest pain, and a dry cough. Sputum is collected. Gram’s stain of the sputum is unremarkable and culture reveals many small Gram-negative rods able to grow only on a charcoal yeast extract agar. This organism most likely is:
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Legionella pneumophila
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
E. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Legionella pneumophila
A suspension of the test organism for use in broth dilution and disk diffusion testing is adjusted to match the turbidity of a:
A. #0.5 McFarland standard
B. #1.0 McFarland standard
C. #2.0 McFarland standard
D. #3.0 McFarland standard
A. #0.5 McFarland standard
McFarland turbidity standard is prepared by mixing _________ to obtain a solution with a specific optical density.
A. 1% hydrochloric acid and 1.175% barium chloride
B. 2% hydrochoric acid and 2.175% barium chloride
C. 1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride
D. 2% sulfuric acid and 2.175% barium chloride
C. 1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride
Which of the following tests helps identify certain species of Enterobacteriaceae, such as Proteus spp., and other important bacteria such as Corynebacterium urealyticum and Helicobacter pylori?
A. Indole test
B. Hippurate hydrolysis test
C. Oxidase test
D. Urease test
D. Urease test
Which of the following has been recognized in postinfectious complications of a Campylobacter jejuni infection?
A. Guillain-Barré syndrome
B. Chronic pulmonary disease
C. Encephalitis
D. Endocarditis
A. Guillain-Barré syndrome
Most frequently used test in the identification of Gardnerella vaginalis, Streptococcus agalactiae, Campylobacter jejuni, and Listeria monocytogenes:
A. Indole test
B. Hippurate hydrolysis test
C. Oxidase test
D. Urease test
B. Hippurate hydrolysis test
A positive hippurate hydrolysis is a characteristic of:
A. C. coli
B. C. jejuni
C. C. lari
D. C. fetus
B. C. jejuni
Colonies that are said to resemble “droplets of mercury” are characteristic of:
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Burkholderia cepacia
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Yersinia pestis
A. Bordetella pertussis
Most often, ______ are “dead-end” hosts.
A. Ticks
B. Mice
C. Sheep
D. Human
D. Human
A wound (skin lesion) specimen obtained from a newborn grew predominantly β-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci on 5% sheep blood agar. The newborn infant was covered with small skin eruptions that gave the appearance of a “scalding of the skin.” The gram-positive cocci proved to be catalase positive. Which tests should follow for the appropriate identification?
A. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR
B. Coagulase, glucose fermentation, DNase
C. Bacitracin, PYR, 6.5% salt broth
D. CAMP, bile-esculin, 6.5% salt broth
B. Coagulase, glucose fermentation, DNase
Small, gray, glistening; colonies tend to dip down in the center and RESEMBLE A DOUGHNUT(umbilicated) as they age; if organism has a polysaccharide capsule, colony may be mucoid; ALPHA-HEMOLYTIC:
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
The most critical step in obtaining accurate Gram stain results is the application of which of the following?
A. Safranin
B. Crystal violet
C. Gram’s iodine
D. Acetone/ethanol
D. Acetone/ethanol
Sulfur granules in a clinical specimen indicate the presence of:
A. Clostridium spp.
B. Fusobacterium spp.
C. Actinomyces spp.
D. Peptostreptococcus spp.
C. Actinomyces spp.
Which feature distinguishes Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae from other clinically significant non-spore-forming, gram-positive, facultatively anaerobic bacilli?
A. “Tumbling” motility
B. More pronounced motility at 25ºC than 37ºC
C. Beta-hemolysis
D. H2S production
D. H2S production
A sputum culture from a 13-year-old cystic fibrosis patient grew a predominance of short, gram-negative rods that tested oxidase negative. On MacConkey, chocolate, and blood agar plates, the organism appeared to have a lavender-green pigment. Further testing showed:
Motility = +
Glucose = + (oxidative)
Lysine decarboxylase = +
DNase = +
Maltose = + (oxidative)
Esculin hydrolysis = +
What is the most likely identification?
A. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
B. Acinetobacter baumannii
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Burkholderia (P.) cepacia
A. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
The respiratory culture of a patient with cystic fibrosis yielded gram-negative bacilli with the following reactions:
* Oxidase: Positive
* Glucose OF open: Positive
* Pigment: Metallic green
* Growth at 42C: Positive
* MacConkey agar: Positive
* Gelatin hydrolysis: Positive
* Arginine dihydrolase: Positive
Which of the following is the most likely identification of this organism?
A. Burkholderia cepacia
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Acinetobacter baumannii
D. Stenotrophomonas xylosoxidans
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Production of exotoxin A, which kills host cells by inhibiting protein synthesis and production of several proteolytic enzymes and hemolysins that destroy cells and tissue are factors that contribute to pathogenicity of which of the following organisms?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Burkholderia cepacia
C. Ralstonia pickettii
D. Burkholderia mallei
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Which single test best separates Klebsiella oxytoca from Klebsiella pneumoniae?
A. Urease
B. Sucrose
C. Citrate
D. Indole
D. Indole
An 80-year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital with a fever of 102°F. A sputum culture revealed many gram-negative rods on MacConkey agar and blood agar. The patient was diagnosed with pneumonia. The following biochemical results were obtained from the culture:
* H2S = Neg
* Citrate = +
* Motility = Negative
* Lactose = +
* Indole = +
* Resistance to ampicillin and carbenicillin
* Urease = +
* VP = +
What is the most likely identification?
A. Klebsiella oxytoca
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
A. Klebsiella oxytoca
Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved, beaded, red mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored microcolonies with a SERPENTINE PATTERN after 14 days at 37°C. NIACIN AND NITRATE REDUCTION TESTS WERE POSITIVE. What is the most probable presumptive identification?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium ulcerans
C. Mycobacterium kansasii
D. Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
The mycobacterial species that occur in humans and belong to the M. tuberculosis complex include which of the following?
A. M. tuberculosis, nontuberculous Mycobacteria, M. bovis, and M. africanum
B. M. tuberculosis, M. gordonae, M. bovis BCG, and M. africanum
C. M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. avium, and M. intracellulare
D. M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. bovis BCG, and M. africanum
D. M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. bovis BCG, and M. africanum
Noncultivatable nontuberculous Mycobacteria:
A. M. avium
B. M. chelonae
C. M. fortuitum
D. M. leprae
D. M. leprae
In patients who are HIV positive or who have AIDS, chronic pulmonary disease may be associated with infection as a result of:
A. Mycobacterium gordonae
B. Mycobacterium kansasii
C. Mycobacterium avium complex
D. Mycobacterium fortuitum
C. Mycobacterium avium complex
Which nonpathogenic Mycobacterium specie is isolated most often from clinical specimens and is called the “tapwater bacillus”?
A. M. kansasii
B. M. avium–intracellulare complex
C. M. leprae
D. M. gordonae
D. M. gordonae
Black belts dedicate _______ of their time to quality improvement projects, proactively addressing process and quality problems.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 70%
D. 100%
D. 100%
Green belts contribute ______ of their time to improvement projects while delivering their normal job functions.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 70%
D. 100%
B. 20%
If left unprotected from light, bilirubin values may reduce by _____ per hour.
A. 10 to 30%
B. 30 to 50%
C. 50 to 70%
D. 70 to 90%
B. 30 to 50%
Trichophyton rubrum and T. mentagrophytes may be differentiated by the:
A. Consistently different appearance of their colonies
B. Endothrix hair infection produced by T. rubrum
C. Fluorescence of hairs infected with T. rubrum
D. In vitro hair penetration by T. mentagrophytes
D. In vitro hair penetration by T. mentagrophytes
A large, aerobic, beta-hemolytic, gram-positive rod is isolated from an eye culture. Subsequent testing reveals it is motile and produces a wide zone on egg yolk agar. The most likely identification of this organism is:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Clostridium perfringens
C. Bacillus cereus
A vancomycin-resistant gram-positive coccobacillus resembling the Streptococcus viridans group was isolated from the blood of a 42-year-old female patient undergoing a bone marrow transplant. The PYR and leucine aminopeptidase (LAP) tests were negative.
The following results were noted:
* Catalase = Neg
* Esculin hydrolysis = Neg
* Hippurate hydrolysis = Neg
* CAMP = Neg
* Gas from glucose = +
* 6.5% salt broth = Neg
What is the correct identification?
A. Leuconostoc spp.
B. Enterococcus spp.
C. Staphylococcus spp.
D. Micrococcus spp.
A. Leuconostoc spp.
An emergency department physician suspected Corynebacterium diphtheriae when examining the sore throat of an exchange student from South America. What is the appropriate media for the culture of the nasopharyngeal swab obtained from the patient?
A. Chocolate agar
B. Thayer–Martin agar
C. Tinsdale medium
D. MacConkey agar
C. Tinsdale medium
Which of the following amino acids are required for growth of Francisella tularensis?
A. Leucine and ornithine
B. Arginine and lysine
C. Cysteine and cystine
D. Histidine and tryptophan
C. Cysteine and cystine
Smooth gray colonies showing no hemolysis are recovered from an infected cat scratch on blood and chocolate agar but fail to grow on MacConkey agar. The organisms are gram-negative pleomorphic rods that are both catalase and oxidase positiveand strongly indole positive. The most likely organism is:
A. Capnocytophaga spp.
B. Pasteurella spp.
C. Proteus spp.
D. Pseudomonas spp.
B. Pasteurella spp.
Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. would be most likely to grow on a MacConkey agar plate?
A. M. chelonae–fortuitum complex
B. M. ulcerans
C. M. marinum
D. M. avium–intracellulare complex
A. M. chelonae–fortuitum complex
A sputum specimen from an 89-year-old male patient with suspected bacterial pneumonia grew a predominance of gram-positive cocci displaying alpha-hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar. The colonies appeared donut shaped and mucoidy and tested negative for catalase. The most appropriate tests for a final identification are:
A. Coagulase, glucose fermentation, lysostaphin
B. Penicillin, bacitracin, CAMP
C. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR
D. Bile esculin, hippurate hydrolysis
C. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR
Oocysts survive in the environment for several months to more than 1 year and are resistant to disinfectants, freezing, and drying. However, they are killed by heating to 70° C for 10 minutes.
A. Balamuthia mandrillaris
B. Cryptosporidium parvum
C. Isospora belli
D. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Toxoplasma gondii
Speed and time of rotation for serum VDRL test:
A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes
C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
Speed and time of rotation for CSF VDRL test:
A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes
D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes
Speed and time of rotation for RPR:
A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
What is used to zero the spectrophotometer before reading the test sample?
A. Calibrator
B. Sample blank
C. Reagent blank
D. Standard
C. Reagent blank
This is used to zero an instrument during a test procedure:
A. Calibrator
B. Sample blank
C. Reagent blank
D. Standard
B. Sample blank
A stool sample is sent to the laboratory for culture to rule out Clostridium difficile. What media should the microbiologist use and what is the appearance of the organisms on this media?
A. CTBA: black colonies
B. Brucella agar: red pigmented colonies
C. CCFA: yellow, ground glass colonies
D. CNA: double zone hemolytic colonies
C. CCFA: yellow, ground glass colonies
A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least _____ Todd units in an adult.
A. 200 Todd units
B. 240 Todd units
C. 320 Todd units
D. 340 Todd units
B. 240 Todd units
A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least _____ Todd units in a child.
A. 200 Todd units
B. 240 Todd units
C. 320 Todd units
D. 340 Todd units
C. 320 Todd units
Respiratory specimens are best collected with what type of swabs?
A. Calcium alginate swabs
B. Dacron- or polyester-tipped swabs
C. Swabs with cotton tips or wooden shafts
D. All of the above are acceptable
B. Dacron- or polyester-tipped swabs
A patient presents with diarrhea and abdominal cramping. The organism isolated from the stool culture is identified as S. dysenteriae (group A). The TSI reaction would have indicated:
A. K/K
B. K/NC H2S+
C. A/A
D. K/A
D. K/A
Which of the following is the key pathogen that infects the lungs of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A. B. cepacia
B. B. pseudomallei
C. P. fluorescens
D. P. aeruginosa
D. P. aeruginosa
Germ tube formation is seen with which two yeasts?
A. C. albicans, C. neoformans
B. C. albicans, C. parapsilosis
C. C. glabrata, C. parapsilosis
D. C. albicans, C. dubliniensis
E. C. glabrata, C. dubliniensis
D. C. albicans, C. dubliniensis
Which of the following bacteria is able to hydrolyze urea via urease production, which results in an increase in urine pH that is toxic to kidney cells and stimulates the formation of kidney stones?
A. E. coli
B. Proteus
C. S. aureus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus
The filovirus that has a characteristic “shepherd’s hook” morphology when viewed by electron microscopy is:
A. Ebola Zaire virus
B. Ebola Reston virus
C. Ebola Sudan virus
D. Marburg virus
D. Marburg virus
A 65-year-old male with HIV presents to the emergency department with night sweats, a nonproductive cough, and a low-grade fever. PCP is suspected. Which of the following is the best specimen for diagnostic staining for Pneumocystis jiroveci?
A. Urine
B. Sputum
C. Bronchial alveolar lavage fluid
D. Blood
E. Nasopharyngeal swab
C. Bronchial alveolar lavage fluid
What virus traditionally causes viral parotitis?
A. Influenza virus
B. Parainfluenza virus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Mumps virus
D. Mumps virus
Which dimorphic fungus may be contracted by people who clean chicken coops?
A. Blastomyces dermatitidis
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
Which of the following is a fungus known to cause chromoblastomycosis?
A. Curvularia spp.
B. Acremonium spp.
C. Bipolaris spp.
D. Cladosporium spp.
D. Cladosporium spp.
Which family of viruses produces one of the most lethal hemorrhagic fevers?
A. Bunyaviridae
B. Filoviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Arenaviridae
B. Filoviridae
Loeffler’s agar slant is a special culture medium used to recover which organism?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
All of the following are medically dimorphic fungi except:
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Blastomyces dermatitidis
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Aspergillus niger
D. Aspergillus niger
Which fungus is most often acquired by traumatic implantation into the skin?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Sporothrix schenckii
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Penicillium marneffei
B. Sporothrix schenckii
Psittacosis is a lower respiratory infection in humans caused by contact with what animal?
A. Swine
B. Seals
C. Cats
D. Birds
D. Birds
Which triad of symptoms is associated with rickettsial infections?
A. Urethral discharge, fever, and dysuria
B. Coughing, production of sputum, and chest pain
C. Fever, headache, and rash
D. Genital lesion, swollen inguinal lymph nodes, and headache
C. Fever, headache, and rash
A large, aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rod is isolated from a blood culture. It can be further confirmed as B. anthracis if it is:
A. Hemolytic and motile
B. Hemolytic and nonmotile
C. Nonhemolytic and motile
D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile
D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile
Transmission of Orientia tsutsugamushi is associated with what vector?
A. Ticks
B. Fleas
C. Lice
D. Chiggers
D. Chiggers
Which organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
Which serovar of Chlamydia trachomatis causes lymphogranuloma venereum?
A. A
B. C
C. H
D. L1
D. L1
The intestinal nematode considered capable of vertical transmission and the potential cause for congenital infections is:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Ancylostoma duodenale
Seventy (70) percent recirculated to the cabinet work area through HEPA; 30% balance can be exhausted through HEPA back into the room or to outside through a canopy unit:
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2
B. BSC Class II, A1
Thirty (30) percent recirculated, 70% exhausted. Exhaust cabinet air must pass through a dedicated duct to the outside through a HEPA filter.
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2
C. BSC Class II, B1
No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter.
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2
D. BSC Class II, B2
Access to the laboratory is limited or restricted, and there must be a biohazard sign posted at the entrance of the laboratory:
A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4
A. BSL-1
Access to the laboratory is limited when work is being conducted. The laboratory director is ultimately responsible for determining who may enter or work in the laboratory.
A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4
B. BSL-2
Laboratory should be separated from the other parts of the building and be accessed through two self-closing doors. An ANTEROOM may be used for access.
A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4
C. BSL-3
The BSL facility either is located in a separate building or is in an isolated zone within a building.
A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4
D. BSL-4
An ordered sequence of events makes up the cell cycle. Which of the following describes the correct sequence of events starting at G1?
A. G1, G2, S, M
B. G1, S, G2, M
C. G1, M, G2, S
D. G1, S, M, G2
B. G1, S, G2, M
The tetraploid DNA is checked for proper replication and damage, ____ takes approximately 4 hours.
A. G1 (gap 1)
B. S (synthesis)
C. G2 (gap 2)
D. M (mitosis)
C. G2 (gap 2)
DNA Replication (S)
A. 10 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 1 hour
B. 8 hours
In ketoacidosis, the anion gap would most likely to be affected in what way?
A. Unchanged from normal
B. Increased
C. Decreased
D. Balanced
B. Increased
An elevated anion gap may be caused by all of the following except:
A. Uremia/renal failure
B. Ketoacidosis in case of starvation or diabetes
C. Alcohol or salicylate poisoning
D. Hypoalbuminemia
D. Hypoalbuminemia
Calculation of the anion gap is useful for quality control for:
A. Calcium
B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate)
C. Phosphorus
D. Magnesium
B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate)
Which of the following conditions will cause an increased anion gap?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypoaldosteronism
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Renal failure
D. Renal failure
Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
A. Metabolic acidosis
Laboratory examination of a 46-year-old male who presents with decreasing vision and photophobia finds a high anion–gap metabolic acidosis. These findings are most consistent with this individual having ingested:
A. Cadmium
B. Nickel
C. Mercury
D. Cobalt
E. Methanol
E. Methanol
Identify the result that is NOT electrolyte balanced. (compute the anion gap, results are in mmol/L)
A. Na+ 125, K+ 4.5, Cl- 100, CO2 content 10
B. Na+ 135, K+ 3.5, Cl- 95, CO2 content 28
C. Na+ 145, K+ 4.0, Cl- 90, CO2 content 15
D. Na+ 150, K+ 5.0, Cl- 110, CO2 content 30
C. Na+ 145, K+ 4.0, Cl- 90, CO2 content 15
For each degree of fever in the patient, pO2 will ____ and pCO2 will ______.
A. pO2 and pCO2 will fall 7% and 3% respectively
B. pO2 and pCO2 will rise 3% and 7% respectively
C. pO2 will rise 7% and pCO2 will fall 3%
D. pO2 will fall 7% and pCO2 will rise 3%
D. pO2 will fall 7% and pCO2 will rise 3%
ANAEROBES usually cannot grow in the presence of O2, and the atmosphere in anaerobe jars, bags, or chambers is composed of:
A. 5% to 10% H2, 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% O2, and 0% N2
B. 5% to 10% H2, 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% N2, and 0% O2
C. 5% to 10% N2, 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% H2, and 0% O2
D. 5% to 10% H2, 5% to 10% N2, 80% to 90% CO2, and 0% O2
B. 5% to 10% H2, 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% N2, and 0% O2
Precursor cell of oval fat bodies:
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Transitional epithelial cells
D. Renal tubular epithelial cells
D. Renal tubular epithelial cells
Precursor cell of bubble cells:
Bubble cells appear to represent injured cells in which the endoplasmic reticulum has dilated prior to cell death.
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Transitional epithelial cells
D. Renal tubular epithelial cells
D. Renal tubular epithelial cells
Oval fat bodies are associated with:
A. Liver cirrhosis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
Bubble cells are associated with:
A. Liver cirrhosis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Acute tubular necrosis
Nonpathologic pigment associated with red-brown urine in children:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Myoglobin
C. Melanin
D. Fuchsin
D. Fuchsin
RENAL STONE yellow-brown resembling an old soap and feel somewhat greasy:
A. Phosphate
B. Urate
C. Cystine
D. Calcium oxalate
C. Cystine
Yellow to brownish red and are moderately hard stone:
A. Cystine stones
B. Calcium oxalate stones
C. Phosphate stones
D. Uric acid and urate stones
D. Uric acid and urate stones
Florence test:
A. Test for spermine, iodine and potassium iodide reagent
B. Test for spermine, picric acid and trichloroacetic acid reagent
C. Test for choline, iodine and potassium iodide reagent
D. Test for choline, picric acid and trichloroacetic acid reagent
C. Test for choline, iodine and potassium iodide reagent
Barbiero’s test:
A. Test for spermine, iodine and potassium iodide reagent
B. Test for spermine, picric acid and trichloroacetic acid reagent
C. Test for choline, iodine and potassium iodide reagent
D. Test for choline, picric acid and trichloroacetic acid reagent
B. Test for spermine, picric acid and trichloroacetic acid reagent
Location of sperm nucleus:
A. No nucleus
B. Head
C. Neck
D. Tail
B. Head
What is the most common cause of male infertility?
A. Mumps
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Varicocele
D. Malignancy
C. Varicocele
Which of the following is the most common cause of female infertility?
A. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
B. Failure to ovulate
C. Orchitis
D. Menopause
B. Failure to ovulate
Critical to ovum penetration is the enzyme-containing acrosomal cap located at the tip of the sperm head. The acrosomal cap encompasses approximately:
A. Half of the head and cover approximately two-thirds of the sperm nucleus
B. Half of the head and cover approximately one-half of the sperm nucleus
C. Two-thirds of the head and cover approximately one-half of the sperm nucleus
D. Two-thirds of the head and cover approximately two-thirds of the sperm nucleus
A. Half of the head and cover approximately two-thirds of the sperm nucleus
The purpose of the acrosomal cap is to:
A. Penetrate the ovum
B. Protect the the nucleus
C. Create energy for tail movement
D. Protect the neckpiece
A. Penetrate the ovum
Diluted bleach will inactivate HBV in __ minutes and HIV in ___ minutes.
A. 2 minutes, 8 minutes
B. 8 minutes, 4 minutes
C. 10 minutes, 2 minutes
D. 8 minutes, 2 minutes
C. 10 minutes, 2 minutes
Calibration of centrifuge ____; disinfection of centrifuge ____.
A. Monthly, weekly
B. Monthly, daily
C. Every 3 months, weekly
D. Every 3 months, daily
C. Every 3 months, weekly
Increased in pCO2 in a patient most commonly results in which of the following primary acid-base abnormalities?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
A. Respiratory acidosis
Which set of results is consistent with uncompensated respiratory alkalosis?
A. pH 7.70 HCO3- 30 mmol/L pCO2 25 mm Hg
B. pH 7.66 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 20 mm Hg
C. pH 7.46 HCO3- 38 mmol/L pCO2 55 mm Hg
D. pH 7.36 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 38 mm Hg
B. pH 7.66 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 20 mm Hg
Which set of results is consistent with uncompensated metabolic acidosis?
A. pH 7.25 HCO3- 15 mmol/L pCO2 37 mm Hg
B. pH 7.30 HCO3- 16 mmol/L pCO2 28 mm Hg
C. pH 7.45 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 40 mm Hg
D. pH 7.40 HCO3- 25 mmol/L pCO2 40 mm Hg
A. pH 7.25 HCO3- 15 mmol/L pCO2 37 mm Hg
A 24-year-old drug abuser is brought into the emergency department unconscious. He has shallow breaths, looks pale, and is “clammy.” Blood gases show the following results:
* pH = 7.29
* pCO2 = 50 mmHg
* HCO3- = 25 mmol/L
What condition is indicated by these results?
A. Metabolic alkalosis,partially compensated
B. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
C. A dual problem of acidosis
D. An error in one of the blood gas measurements
B. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
Which of the following measurements is necessary to evaluate the cause of hypernatremia?
A. Chloride
B. Glucose
C. Plasma/serum osmolality
D. Urine osmolality
D. Urine osmolality
Hyponatremia can be classified according to:
A. Chloride
B. Glucose
C. Plasma/serum osmolality
D. Urine osmolality
C. Plasma/serum osmolality
Leadership:
A. Planning
B. Directing
C. Organizing
D. Controlling
B. Directing
Which of the following best represents the reference (normal) range for arterial pH?
A. 7.35–7.45
B. 7.42–7.52
C. 7.38–7.68
D. 6.85–7.56
A. 7.35–7.45
Lemon shaped crystals:
A. Calcium phosphate
B. Calcium oxalate
C. Triple phosphate
D. Uric acid
D. Uric acid
LEUKOREDUCED RED CELLS is a product in which the absolute WBC count in the unit is reduced to ____, and contains at least ______ of the original RBC mass.
A. 1 x 10 10th, 85%
B. 3.0 x 10 11th, 85%
C. 5.5 x 10 10th, 85%
D. 5 x 10 6th, 85%
D. 5 x 10 6th, 85%
Convert 9.5 µg/dL thyroxine to SI unit:
A. 123 µmol/L
B. 123 nmol/L
C. 125 nmol/L
D. 145 µmol/L
B. 123 nmol/L
Major structural protein in VLDL and LDL:
A.Apo-A1
B.Apo-A2
C.Apo-B48
D.Apo-B100
D.Apo-B100
Structural protein in chylomicrons:
A.Apo-A1
B.Apo-A2
C.Apo-B48
D. Apo-B100
C.Apo-B48
Glucose is metabolized at room temperature at a rate of ___ mg/dL/hour and at 4C at a rate of ___ mg/dL/hour.
A. 2, 7
B. 7, 2
C. 3, 8
D. 8, 3
B. 7, 2
Ethanol concentration associated with coma and possible death:
A. 0.09 to 0.25%
B. 0.18 to 0.30%
C. 0.27 to 0.40%
D. 0.35 to 0.50%
D. 0.35 to 0.50%
Moderate specificity for the liver, heart and skeletal muscles
A. AST
B. ALT
C. CK
D. ALP
A. AST
Moderate specificity for the heart, skeletal muscles and brain
A. AST
B. ALT
C. CK
D. ALP
C. CK
A trend in QC results is most likely caused by:
A. Deterioration of the reagent
B. Miscalibration of the instrument
C. Improper dilution of standards
D. Electronic noise
A. Deterioration of the reagent
Determines whether there is a significant difference between the standard deviations of two groups of data.
A. Mean
B. Median
C. f-test
D. t-test
C. f-test
SAFEST method to ensure that NO INFECTIVE MATERIALS REMAIN in samples or containers when disposed:
A. Autoclave
B. Incineration
C. Pasteurization
D. Filtration
B. Incineration
Which of the following is associated with GRANULOMATOUS DISEASE IN ANIMALS and have been associated with SOFT TISSUE INFECTION IN HUMANS FOLLOWING ANIMAL BITES?
A. Actinobacillus
B. Cardiobacterium
C. Haemophilus
D. Vibrio
A. Actinobacillus
Entamoeba dispar is most easily confused morphologically with:
A. Entamoeba coli
B. Entamoeba hartmanni
C. Dientamoeba fragilis
D. Entamoeba histolytica
E. Blastocystis hominis
D. Entamoeba histolytica
A patient has been diagnosed as having amebiasis but continues to be asymptomatic. The physician has asked for an explanation and recommendations regarding follow-up. Suggestions should include:
A. Consideration of Entamoeba histolytica versus Entamoeba dispar
B. A request for an additional three stools for culture
C. Initiating therapy, regardless of the patient’s asymptomatic status
D. Performance of barium x-ray studies
A. Consideration of Entamoeba histolytica versus Entamoeba dispar
The worm has a characteristic, thick cuticle and a large uterus that fills the body cavity and contains rhabditoid larvae:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Dracunculus medinensis
D. Dracunculus medinensis
It resembles egg of S. haematobium, but acid-fast positive:
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma intercalatum
D. Schistosoma mekongi
C. Schistosoma intercalatum
In an iodine preparation of feces, an amebic cyst appears to have a BASKET NUCLEUS and a large glycogen mass that stains reddish-brown. The most probable identity of the cyst is:
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Iodamoeba butschlii
C. Naegleria fowleri
D. Entamoeba hartmanni
B. Iodamoeba butschlii
The BAERMANN TECHNIQUE yields a good concentration of the living larvae of:
A. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
B. Brugia malayi
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Ascending loop of Henle
Which part of the renal tubule is HIGHLY PERMEABLE to water and does not reabsorb sodium and chloride?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
This T cell defect is a congenital anomaly that represents faulty embryogenesis, which results in aplasia of the parathyroid and thymus glands:
A. DiGeorge syndrome
B. Ataxia telangiectasia
C. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
A. DiGeorge syndrome
If 0.02 mL of serum is diluted with 0.08 mL of diluent, what dilution of serum does this represent?
A. 1:4
B. 1:5
C. 1:10
D. 1:20
B. 1:5
If 0.4 mL of serum is mixed with 15.6 mL of diluent, what dilution of serum does this represent?
A. 1:4
B. 1:40
C. 2:70
D. 1:80
B. 1:40
A 1:750 dilution of serum is needed to perform a serological test. Which of the following series of dilutions would be correct to use in this situation?
A. 1:5, 1:15, 1:10
B. 1:5, 1:10, 1:5
C. 1:15, 1:10, 1:3
D. 1:15, 1:3, 1:5
A. 1:5, 1:15, 1:10
What is the final dilution of serum obtained from the following serial dilutions: 1:4, 1:4, 1:4, 1:4, 1:4, 1:4?
A. 1:24
B. 1:256
C. 1:1,024
D. 1:4,096
D. 1:4,096
What is the titer in tube No. 8 if tube No. 1 is undiluted and dilutions are doubled?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 256
D. 512
B. 128
SI basic unit for mass:
A. Meter
B. Mole
C. Gram
D. Kilogram
D. Kilogram
The basic unit of temperature in the SI system:
A. Celsius
B. Fahrenheit
C. Kelvin
D. Any of these
C. Kelvin
Basic unit for length:
A. Second
B. Millimeter
C. Meter
D. Kilometer
C. Meter
The standard unit of measurement for the amount of a (chemical) substance in the SI system:
A. Gram
B. Kilogram
C. Mole
D. Millimole
C. Mole
Beer’s law is expressed as A = abc.
A (capital A) in Beer’s law is:
A. Absorbance
B. Absorptivity constant
C. Concentration
D. Length of light path
A. Absorbance
Beer’s law is expressed as A = abc.
A (small a) in Beer’s law is:
A. Absorbance
B. Absorptivity constant
C. Concentration
D. Length of light path
B. Absorptivity constant
Beer’s law is expressed as A = abc.
b (small b) in Beer’s law is:
A. Absorbance
B. Absorptivity constant
C. Concentration
D. Length of light path
D. Length of light path
Beer’s law is expressed as A = abc.
c (small c) in Beer’s law is:
A. Absorbance
B. Absorptivity constant
C. Concentration
D. Length of light path
C. Concentration
A Gaussian distribution is usually:
A. Rectangular
B. Bell-shaped
C. Uniform
D. Skewed
B. Bell-shaped
Which Westgard rule detects random error?
A. 1:3s
B. 4:1s
C. 2:2s
D. 10:x
A. 1:3s
Pre-analytical variables in laboratory testing include:
A. Result accuracy
B. Report delivery to the ordering physician
C. Test turnaround time
D. Specimen acceptability
D. Specimen acceptability
Which of the following is NOT a potential source of post-analytical error?
A. Excessive delay in reporting or retrieving a test result
B. Interpretation of result
C. Verbal notification of test result
D. Labeling the specimen at the nurses’s station
D. Labeling the specimen at the nurses’ station
According to OSHA, what type of warning sign should be posted in an area where an immediate hazard exists and where special precautions are necessary?
A. Red, black and white “DANGER” sign
B. Yellow and black “CAUTION” sign
C. Green and white “SAFETY INSTRUCTION” sign
D. Orange and black “BIOHAZARD” sign
A. Red, black and white “DANGER” sign
Metabolism of glucose molecule to pyruvate or lactate for production of energy
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Glycolysis
D. Glycolysis
Formation of glucose-6-phosphate from noncarbohydrate sources
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Glycolysis
A. Gluconeogenesis
Breakdown of glycogen to glucose for use as energy
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
Conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Glycogenesis
D. Glycolysis
C. Glycogenesis
Which of the biochemical processes below is promoted by insulin?
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Esterification of cholesterol
D. Uptake of glucose by the cells
D. Uptake of glucose by the cells
Class C fires involve:
A. Combustible metals
B. Electrical equipment
C. Flammable liquids
D. Ordinary materials
C. Flammable liquids
A fire occurs in the laboratory. The first course of action is to:
A. Evacuate the entire area
B. Pull the fire alarm box
C. Remove persons from immediate danger
D. Contain the fire by closing doors
C. Remove persons from immediate danger
Which of the following wavelengths is within the ultraviolet range?
A. 340 nm
B. 450 nm
C. 540 nm
D. 690 nm
A. 340 nm
Whole blood fasting glucose level is _________ than in serum or plasma.
A. 10 – 15% lower
B. 10 – 15% higher
C. 5 – 10% lower
D. 5 – 10% higher
A. 10 – 15% lower
Which of the following methods is virtually specific for glucose and employs G6PD as a second coupling step requiring magnesium?
A. Hexokinase
B. Glucose oxidase
C. Glucose dehydrogenase
D. Pyruvate kinase
A. Hexokinase
Which of the following is characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A. Requires an oral glucose tolerance test fordiagnosis
B. Is the most common form of diabetes mellitus
C. Usually occurs after age 40
D. Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis
D. Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis
Which of the following is characteristic of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A. Insulin levels are consistently low
B. Most cases require a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test to diagnose
C. Hyperglycemia is often controlled without insulin replacement
D. The condition is associated with unexplained weight loss
C. Hyperglycemia is often controlled without insulin replacement
Which of the following isolates light within a narrow region of the spectrum?
A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Monochromator
C. Photovoltaic cell
D. Detector
B. Monochromator
Which of the following lamps provides a continuous spectrum of radiant energy in the visible, near IR, and near UV regions of the spectrum?
A. Tungsten-filament
B. Hydrogen
C. Deuterium
D. Mercury vapor
A. Tungsten-filament
Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is:
A. Absorbed by particles in suspension
B. Scattered by particles in suspension
C. Produced by fluorescence
D. Produced by excitation of ground-state atoms
B. Scattered by particles in suspension
When measuring K+ with an ion-selective electrode by means of a liquid ion-exchange membrane, what antibiotic will be incorporated into the membrane?
A. Monactin
B. Nonactin
C. Streptomycin
D. Valinomycin
D. Valinomycin
In serum protein electrophoresis, when a buffer solution of pH 8.6 is used, which of the following characterizes the proteins?
A. Exhibit net negative charge
B. Exhibit net positive charge
C. Exhibit charge neutrality
D. Migrate toward the cathode
A. Exhibit net negative charge
Identification of which of the following is useful in early stages of glomerular dysfunction?
A. Microalbuminuria
B. Ketonuria
C. Hematuria
D. Urinary light chains
A. Microalbuminuria
What is the compound that comprises the majority of the nonprotein-nitrogen fractions in serum?
A. Uric acid
B. Creatinine
C. Ammonia
D. Urea
D. Urea
In the Berthelot reaction, what contaminant will cause the urea level to be falsely elevated?
A. Sodium fluoride
B. Protein
C. Ammonia
D. Bacteria
C. Ammonia
What is the end product of purine catabolism in humans?
A. Urea
B. Uric acid
C. Allantoin
D. Ammonia
B. Uric acid
During chemotherapy for leukemia, which of the following analytes would most likely be elevated in the blood?
A. Uric acid
B. Urea
C. Creatinine
D. Ammonia
A. Uric acid
The normal renal threshold for glucose is:
A. 70–85 mg/dL
B. 100–115 mg/dL
C. 130–145 mg/dL
D. 165–180 mg/dL
D. 165–180 mg/dL
Of the following blood glucose levels, which would you expect to result in glucose in the urine?
A. 60 mg/dL
B. 120 mg/dL
C. 150 mg/dL
D. 225 mg/dL
D. 225 mg/dL
A sample of blood is collected for glucose in a sodium fluoride tube before the patient has had breakfast.
The physician calls 2 hours later and requests that determination of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) be performed on the same sample rather than obtaining another specimen.
The automated analyzer in your laboratory utilizes the urease method to quantify BUN. What should you tell the physician?
A. Will gladly do the test if sufficient specimen remains
B. Could do the test using a micromethod
C. Can do the BUN determination on the automated analyzer
D. Cannot perform the procedure
D. Cannot perform the procedure
A patient’s total cholesterol is 300mg/dL, his HDL cholesterol is 50 mg/dL, and his triglyceride is 200 mg/dL.
What is this patient’s calculated LDL cholesterol?
A. 200
B. 210
C. 290
D. 350
B. 210
Which monochromator specification is required in order to measure the true absorbance of a compound having a natural absorption bandwidth of 30 nm?
A. 50-nm bandpass
B. 25-nm bandpass
C. 15-nm bandpass
D. 5-nm bandpass
D. 5-nm bandpass
Which of the following is considered a lipid?
A. Chylomicrons
B. LDL
C. Cholesterol
D. HDL
C. Cholesterol
Which of the following lipoproteins is the smallest of all the lipoproteins and is composed of 50% protein?
A. HDL
B. Chylomicrons
C. LDL
D. Triglycerides
A. HDL
What is the most appropriate fasting procedure when a lipid study of triglycerides, total cholesterol, HDL, and LDL tests are ordered?
A. 8 hours, nothing but water allowed
B. 10 hours, water, smoking, coffee, tea (no sugar or cream) allowed
C. 12 hours, nothing but water allowed
D. 16 hours, water, smoking, coffee, tea (no sugar or cream) allowed
C. 12 hours, nothing but water allowed
Which disease may be expected to show an IgM spike on an electrophoretic pattern?
A. Hypogammaglobulinemia
B. Multicystic kidney disease
C. Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia
D. Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome
C. Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia
In a person with normal glucose metabolism, the blood glucose level usually increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal level after:
A. 30 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 120 minutes
D. 120 minutes
In a person with impaired glucose metabolism, such as in type 1 diabetes, what is true about the blood glucose level?
A. It increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal level after 120 minutes.
B. It increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested and stays greatly elevated even after 120 minutes.
C. It does not increase after carbohydrates are ingested and stays at a low level until the next meal.
D. It increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal level after 30 minutes.
B. It increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested and stays greatly elevated even after 120 minutes.
Select the order of mobility of lipoproteins electrophoresed on cellulose acetate or agarose at pH 8.6.
A. - Chylomicrons→pre-β →β→α +
B. - β→pre-β→α→chylomicrons +
C. - Chylomicrons →β→pre-β→α +
D. - α→β→pre-β→chylomicrons +
C. - Chylomicrons →β→pre-β→α +
What is the confirmatory method for measuring drugs of abuse?
A. HPLC
B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique(EMIT)
C. Gas chromatography with mass spectroscopy(GC-MS)
D. TLC
C. Gas chromatography with mass spectroscopy(GC-MS)
Which of the following is the most common application of immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)?
A. Identification of the absence of a normal serum protein
B. Structural abnormalities of proteins
C. Screening for circulating immune complexes
D. Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies
D. Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies
Which of the following pairs of concepts are corrrectly matched
A. Sensitivity: prevent false negatives :: specificity:prevent false positives
B. Sensitivity: prevent false positives :: specificity:prevent false negatives
C. Sensitivity: precision :: specificity: accuracy
D. Sensitivity: coefficient of variation :: specificity: standard deviation
A. Sensitivity: prevent false negatives :: specificity:prevent false positives
In an adult, if total bilirubin value is 3.1 mg/dL and conjugated bilirubin is 1.1 mg/dL, what is the unconjugated bilirubin value?
A. 2.0 mg/dL
B. 4.2 mg/dL
C. 1.0 mg/dL
D. 3.4 mg/dL
A. 2.0 mg/dL
The Beer-Lambert (Beer’s) law states that the concentration of a substance is:
____ to the amount of light absorbed or
A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. Not proportional
D. Proportional to half of the concentration of a substance
A. Directly proportional
____ to the logarithm of the transmitted light.
A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. Not proportional
D. Proportional to half of the concentration of a substance
B. Inversely proportional
A characteristic of absorbance is that it:
A. Decreases as the concentration of a colored solution decreases
B. Increases as the concentration of a colored solution increases
C. Contains a known strength
D. Detects amplicons
B. Increases as the concentration of a colored solution increases
A characteristic of percent transmittance is that it:
A. Decreases as the concentration of a colored solution decreases
B. Increases as the concentration of a colored solution increases
C. Contains a known strength
D. Detects amplicons
A. Decreases as the concentration of a colored solution decreases
Which of the following conditions can “physiologically” elevate serum alkaline phosphatase?
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Diabetes
C. Third-trimester pregnancy
D. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Third-trimester pregnancy
In the visible light spectrum, the color red is in what nanometer range?
A. 380-440 nm
B. 500-580 nm
C. 600-620 nm
D. 620-750 nm
D. 620-750 nm
Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure?
A. Chloride
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Bicarbonate
C. Sodium
It is the major extracellular anion. It is involved in maintaining osmolality, blood volume, and electric neutrality.
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride
D. Chloride
Which of the following is a marker for bone resorption?
A. β-trace protein
B. Adiponectin
C. Fibronectin
D. Crosslinked C-telopeptide
D. Crosslinked C-telopeptide
Which of the following is a marker for bone formation?
A. Osteocalcin
B. Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)
C. Urinary pyridinoline and deoxypyridinoline
D. Urinary C-telopeptide and N-telopeptide crosslinks (CTx and NTx)
A. Osteocalcin
Recently, it was established as an accurate marker of CSF leakage:
A. Fibronectin
B. Cystatin C
C. Troponin
D. β-Trace Protein
D. β-Trace Protein
The protein present in vaginal secretions that can identify patients who are at risk for preterm delivery is:
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Estrogen
C. PAMG-1
D. Fetal fibronectin
D. Fetal fibronectin
Variants demonstrate a wide variety of cellular interactions, including roles in cell adhesion, tissue differentiation, growth, and wound healing:
A. Adiponectin
B. Fibronectin
C. Crosslinked C-telopeptide
D β-trace protein
B. Fibronectin
Which of the following values is the threshold critical value (alert or action level) for high plasma sodium?
A. 150 mmol/L
B. 160 mmol/L
C. 170 mmol/L
D. 180 mmol/L
B. 160 mmol/L
Hyponatremia due to increased water retention, EXCEPT:
A. Diuretic use
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Hepatic cirrhosis
D. Congestive heart failure
A. Diuretic use
Neuromuscular irritability, which may become clinically apparent as irregular muscle spasms, called TETANY is associated with:
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypocalcemia
Which of the following can cause cardiac arrest in the absence of warning symptoms or signs?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
C. Hyperkalemia
Which of the following values is the threshold critical value (alert or action level) for low plasma potassium?
A. 1.5 mmol/L
B. 2.0 mmol/L
C. 2.5 mmol/L
D. 3.5 mmol/L
C. 2.5 mmol/L
In the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, the numerator denotes _____ functions.
A. Brain
B. Pituitary
C. Lung
D. Kidney
D. Kidney
In the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, the denominator denotes _____ functions.
A. Brain
B. Pituitary
C. Lung
D. Kidney
C. Lung
What is the best use for potentiometry?
A. Enzymes
B. Proteins
C. Electrolytes
D. Lipids
C. Electrolytes
Electrolytes for acid-base balance:
A. Na+, Cl-, K+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
C. Bicarbonate, Cl-
D. Ca2+ Mg2+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
Electrolytes for coagulation:
A. Na+, Cl-, K+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
C. Bicarbonate, Cl-
D. Ca2+, Mg2+
D. Ca2+, Mg2+
A comatose 27-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room by paramedics, and the strong odor of bitter almonds is present. The differential diagnosis must include the possibility of poisoning by:
A. Ethylene glycol
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Carbon tetrachloride
D. Cyanide
E. Arsenic
D. Cyanide
The most probable explanation for a patient who presents with an elevated osmolal gap, metabolic acidosis, and calcium oxalate crystals in the urine is:
A. Methanol intoxication
B. Ethanol overdose
C. Ethylene glycol intoxication
D. Cyanide poisoning
C. Ethylene glycol intoxication
In the United States, the NGSP, with the Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) _____ method, is used as a PRIMARY REFERENCE METHOD for measuring HbA1c.
A. Immunoassay
B. Electrophoresis
C. Affinity chromatography
D. HPLC
D. HPLC
PREFERRED METHOD of measuring HbA1c:
A. Immunoassay
B. Electrophoresis
C. Affinity chromatography
D. HPLC
C. Affinity chromatography
Urea is only a rough estimate of renal function and will not show any significant level of increased concentration until the GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE IS DECREASED BY AT LEAST ____.
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 80%
B. 50%
A method for the estimation of glucose in body fluids; glucose in the protein-free filtrate reduces cupric ion to cuprous ion. The cuprous ion then reduces PHOSPHOMOLYBDIC ACID to molybdenum blue which can be estimated colorimetrically.
A. Dubowski method
B. Folin-Wu
C. Nelson-Somogyi
D. Neocuproine
B. Folin-Wu
Copper reduction method for glucose that uses arsenomolybdic acid:
A. Folin-Wu
B. Nelson-Somogyi
C. Neocuproine
D. All of these
B. Nelson-Somogyi
VERY LOW OR UNDETECTABLE C-peptide:
A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes
A. Type 1 diabetes
DETECTABLE C-peptide:
A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes
C-peptide is formed during the conversion of pro-insulin to insulin. The amount of circulating C-peptide provides reliable indicators for pancreatic and insulin secretions (β-cell function). It is decreased in:
A. Type 1 DM
B. Type 2 DM
C. Insulinoma
D. Ingestion of hypoglycemic drugs
A. Type 1 DM
The most widely used test of overall renal function is:
A. Urea
B. Creatinine
C. Proteinuria
D. Cystatin C
B. Creatinine
It is a measure of overall glucose homeostasis:
A. Random blood sugar
B. Fasting blood sugar
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. Glycosylated hemoglobin
B. Fasting blood sugar
It is the result of POOR PERFUSION of the kidneys and therefore diminished glomerular filtration. The kidneys are otherwise normal in their functioning capabilities. Poor perfusion can result from dehydration, shock, diminished blood volume, or congestive heart failure.
A. Pre-renal azotemia
B. Renal azotemia
C. Post-renal azotemia
A. Pre-renal azotemia
It is caused primarily by DIMINISHED GLOMERULAR FILTRATION as a consequence of acute or chronic renal disease. Such diseases include acute glomerulonephritis, chronic glomerulonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, and nephrosclerosis.
A. Pre-renal azotemia
B. Renal azotemia
C. Post-renal azotemia
B. Renal azotemia
It is usually the result of any type of OBSTRUCTION in which urea is reabsorbed into the circulation. Obstruction can be caused by stones, an enlarged prostate gland, or tumors.
A. Pre-renal azotemia
B. Renal azotemia
C. Post-renal azotemia
C. Post-renal azotemia
What substance may be measured as an alternative to creatinine for evaluating GFR?
A. Plasma urea
B. Cystatin C
C. Uric acid
D. Potassium
B. Cystatin C
As a cardiac biomarker, ________ has been used in conjunction with troponin to help diagnose or rule out a heart attack.
A. BNP
B. Myoglobin
C. Troponin
D. Adiponectin
B. Myoglobin
Which of the following conditions is characterized by primary HYPERaldosteronism caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma, or hyperplasia?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Addison’s disease
C. Conn’s syndrome
D. Pheochromocytoma
C. Conn’s syndrome
A patient presents with Addison disease. Serum sodium and potassium analyses are performed. What would the results reveal?
A. Normal sodium, low potassium levels
B. Low sodium, low potassium levels
C. Low sodium, high potassium levels
D. High sodium, low potassium levels
C. Low sodium, high potassium levels
Which instrument requires a primary and secondary monochromator?
A. Spectrophotometer
B. Atomic absorption spectrophotometer
C. Fluorometer
D. Nephelometer
C. Fluorometer
Which of the following best represents the reference (normal) range for arterial pH?
A. 7.35–7.45
B. 7.42–7.52
C. 7.38–7.68
D. 6.85–7.56
A. 7.35–7.45
What is the normal ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide (HCO3–:dCO2) in arterial blood?
A. 1:10
B. 10:1
C. 20:1
D. 30:1
C. 20:1
Which formula is most accurate in predicting plasma osmolality?
A. Na + 2(Cl) + BUN + glucose
B. 2(Na) + 2(Cl) + glucose + urea
C. 2(Na) + (glucose ÷ 18) + ( BUN ÷ 2.8 )
D. Na + Cl + K + HCO3
C. 2(Na) + (glucose ÷ 18) + ( BUN ÷ 2.8 )
Identify the enzyme deficiency responsible for type 1 glycogen storage disease (von Gierke’s disease).
A. Glucose-6-phosphatase
B. Glycogen phosphorylase
C. Glycogen synthetase
D. β-Glucosidase
A. Glucose-6-phosphatase
Which of the following abnormal laboratory results is found in von Gierke’s disease?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Increased glucose response to epinephrine administration
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Hyperlipidemia
D. Hyperlipidemia
Which of the following would cause an increase in only the unconjugated bilirubin?
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Hepatitis
D. Hepatic cirrhosis
A. Hemolytic anemia
One of two controls within a run is above +2s and the other control is below –2s from the mean. What do these results indicate?
A. Poor precision has led to random error (RE)
B. A systematic error (SE) is present
C. Proportional error is present
D. QC material is contaminated
A. Poor precision has led to random error (RE)
Which of the following plots is best for detecting all types of QC errors?
A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Linear regression
A. Levy–Jennings
Which of the following plots is best for comparison of precision and accuracy among laboratories?
A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Linear regression
B. Tonks–Youden
Which plot will give the earliest indication of a shift or trend?
A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Histogram
C. Cusum
Select the primary reagent used in the Jaffe method for creatinine.
A. Alkaline copper II sulfate
B. Saturated picric acid and NaOH
C. Sodium nitroprusside and phenol
D. Phosphotungstic acid
B. Saturated picric acid and NaOH
Urea is produced from:
A. The catabolism of proteins and amino acids
B. Oxidation of purines
C. Oxidation of pyrimidines
D. The breakdown of complex carbohydrates
A. The catabolism of proteins and amino acids
Blood ammonia levels are usually measured in order to evaluate:
A. Renal failure
B. Acid–base status
C. Hepatic coma
D. Gastrointestinal malabsorption
C. Hepatic coma
Uric acid is derived from the:
A. Oxidation of proteins
B. Catabolism of purines
C. Oxidation of pyrimidines
D. Reduction of catecholamines
B. Catabolism of purines
Which of the following protein methods has the highest analytical sensitivity?
A. Refractometry
B. Folin–Lowry
C. Turbidimetry
D. Direct ultraviolet absorption
B. Folin–Lowry
Which of the following dyes is the most specific for measurement of albumin?
A. Bromcresol green (BCG)
B. Bromcresol purple (BCP)
C. Tetrabromosulfophthalein
D. Tetrabromphenol blue
B. Bromcresol purple (BCP)
Which of the following mechanisms accounts for the elevated plasma level of β lipoproteins seen in familial hypercholesterolemia (formerly type II hyperlipoproteinemia)?
A. Hyperinsulinemia
B. ApoB-100 receptor defect
C. ApoC-II activated lipase deficiency
D. ApoE3 deficiency
B. ApoB-100 receptor defect
Which enzyme deficiency is most commonly associated with familial hypertriglyceridemia associated with fasting plasma cholomicrons (formerly type I hyperlipoproteinemia)?
A. β Glucocerebrosidase deficiency
B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase deficiency
C. Apo-B deficiency
D. Apo-C-III deficiency
B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase deficiency
Which of the following enzymes is considered most tissue specific?
A. Creatine kinase (CK)
B. Amylase
C. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
D. Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)
D. Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)
Which substrate is used in the Bowers–McComb method for ALP?
A. p-Nitrophenyl phosphate
B. β-Glycerophosphate
C. Phenylphosphate
D. α-Naphthylphosphate
A. p-Nitrophenyl phosphate
Which of the following buffers is used in the IFCC recommended method for ALP?
A. Glycine
B. Phosphate
C. 2-Amino-2-methyl-1-propanol
D. Citrate
C. 2-Amino-2-methyl-1-propanol
Which route of administration is associated with 100% bioavailability?
A. Sublingual
B. Intramuscular
C. Oral
D. Intravenous
D. Intravenous
Which of the following tumor markers is used to monitor persons with breast cancer for recurrence of disease?
A. Cathepsin-D
B. CA-15-3
C. Retinoblastoma gene
D. Estrogen receptor (ER)
B. CA-15-3
Which tumor marker is used to determine the usefulness of TRASTUZUMAB (HERCEPTIN) therapy for breast cancer?
A. PR
B. CEA
C. HER-2/neu
D. Myc
C. HER-2/neu
Which tumor marker is associated with cancer of the urinary bladder?
A. CA-19-9
B. CA-72-4
C. Nuclear matrix protein
D. Cathepsin-D
C. Nuclear matrix protein
Osmolality can be defined as a measure of the concentration of a solution based on:
A. The number of particles present
B. The number and size of particles present
C. The density of particles present
D. The isoelectric point of a particle
A. The number of particles present
An increased osmole gap is most commonly seen in which of the following?
A. Type 2 diabetes
B. Pancreatitis
C. Presence of toxins such as ethanol and ethylene glycol
D. Liver failure
C. Presence of toxins such as ethanol and ethylene glycol
Which of the following is measured using glutamate dehydrogenase and is a measure of advanced stages, poor prognosis, and coma in liver disease?
A. Total bilirubin
B. Ammonia
C. Unconjugated bilirubin
D. Urea
B. Ammonia
Which of the following analytes is the best indicator of hepatobiliary damage?
A. AST
B. ALT
C. ALP
D. Bilirubin
C. ALP
Hepatocellular damage may be best assessed by which of the following parameters?
A. Serum AST and ALT levels
B. GGT and ALP
C. Bilirubin, GGT, and ALP
D. Ammonia and urea
A. Serum AST and ALT levels
Which of the following buffer systems is the most important physiologic buffer system in the body?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Protein
C. Phosphate
D. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid
D. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid
To maintain electrical neutrality in the red blood cell, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with which of the following?
A. TCO2
B. Sodium
C. Chloride
D. Phosphate
C. Chloride
Thyroid hormones are derived from which of the following?
A. Histidine
B. Cholesterol
C. Tyrosine
D. Phenylalanine
C. Tyrosine
In patients with developing subclinical hyperthyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______, and fT4 will likely be ______.
A. Decreased, increased
B. Increased, decreased
C. Decreased, normal
D. Increased, normal
C. Decreased, normal
Which of the following conditions is a result of cat- echolamine excess, includes two classifications (MEN 1 and MEN 2), and may result in death from severe cardiovascular complications?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Conn’s syndrome
C. Addison’s disease
D. Pheochromocytoma
D. Pheochromocytoma
Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of p-nitrophenyl phosphate to a colored p-nitrophenol product?
A. AST
B. ALT
C. ALP
D. GGT
C. ALP
The ETHANOL SHOCK procedure is used to differentiate:
A. Actinomyces and Bifidobacterium spp.
B. Prevotella and Porphyromonas spp.
C. Clostridium and Bacteroides spp.
D. Bacteroides and Actinomyces spp.
C. Clostridium and Bacteroides spp.
Which mycobacterium of the M. tuberculosis complex fails to grow in culture and has a characteristic “croissant-like” morphology in stained smears?
A. M. africanum
B. M. microti
C. M. bovis
D. M. leprae
B. M. microti
Which mycobacterium is associated with Crohn’s disease?
A. M. marinum
B. M. paratuberculosis
C. M. avium
D. M. gordonae
B. M. paratuberculosis
Your inpatient is asleep when you arrive to draw blood. What do you do?
A. Call out the patient’s name softly and shake the bed gently.
B. Cancel the test and ask the nurse to resubmit the requisition.
C. Check back every 15 minutes until the patient has awakened.
D. Fill out a form stating that the specimen was not obtained and why.
A. Call out the patient’s name softly and shake the bed gently.
First step in automated tissue processor:
A. Cold formalin
B. Hot formalin
C. Cold ethanol
D. Hot ethanol
B. Hot formalin
A collective group of injuries involving the musculoskeletal and/or nervous system in response to long-term repetitive twisting, bending, lifting, or assuming static postures for an extended period of time:
A. Biologic hazard
B. Chemical hazard
C. Mechanical hazard
D. Ergonomic hazard
D. Ergonomic hazard
A class ABC fire extinguisher contains:
A. Sand
B. Water
C. Dry chemical
D. Acid
C. Dry chemical
Carbon dioxide for extinguishers are suitable for use with the following hazards:
A. Cloth and electrical
B. Wood and flammable gas
C. Flammable liquids and electrical
D. Paper and natural gas
C. Flammable liquids and electrical
Oldest stain:
A. Orcein
B. Iodine
C. Eosin
D. Hematoxylin
B. Iodine
The phosphotungstic acid hematoxylin (PTAH) is useful for demonstrating:
A. Edema fluid
B. Muscle striations
C. Ground substance
D. Reticulin network
B. Muscle striations
RETICULIN FIBERS IN GOMORI’S silver impregnation stain:
A. Pink
B. Black
C. Blue
D. Red
B. Black
Temperature of the flotation water bath:
A. 35 to 37C
B. 45 to 50C
C. 55 to 60C
D. At boiling point
B. 45 to 50C
Stains the nucleus:
A. Acidified eosin
B. Non-acidified eosin
C. Acidified hematoxylin
D. Non-acidified hematoxylin
D. Non-acidified hematoxylin
The Von Kossa’s stain is used to demonstrate:
A. Calcium
B. Amyloid
C. Glycogen
D. Fats
A. Calcium
Stain for Helicobacter:
A. Masson-Fontana
B. Toluidine blue
C. Wade-Fite
D. Von Kossa
B. Toluidine blue
Stain for Leprosy bacillin and Nocardia:
A. Gomori
B. Van Gieson
C. Wade-Fite
D. Warthin-Starry
C. Wade-Fite
Stain for Spirochete:
A. Feulgen
B. Verhoeff
C. Wade-Fite
D. Warthin-Starry
D. Warthin-Starry
Excess copper deposition can often be demonstrated by:
A. Prussian blue
B. Rhodanine stain
C. Trichrome stain
D. von Kossa stain
B. Rhodanine stain
All of the following are naturally occurring opiates except:
A. Morphine
B. Codeine
C. Heroin
D. Opium
C. Heroin
Which of the following is considered as ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTANTS?
A. Elemental mercury
B. Mercurous mercury
C. Mercuric mercury
D. Alkyl mercury
D. Alkyl mercury
All of the following are immunosuppressive agents, EXCEPT:
A. Cyclosporine
B. Tacrolimus
C. Rapamycin
D. Carbamazepine
E. Leflunomide
D. Carbamazepine
Which of the following conditions is the result of alpha1-antitrypsin level lower than 11 mmol/L?
A. Emphysema
B. Asthma
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Sarcoidosis
A. Emphysema
A patient with emphysema who has fluid accumulation in the alveolar sacs (causing decreased ventilation) is likely to be in which of the following acid-base clinical states?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
The following conditions are all causes of alkalosis. Which condition is associated with respiratory (rather than metabolic) alkalosis?
A. Anxiety
B. Hypovolemia
C. Hyperaldosteronism
D. Hypoparathyroidism
A. Anxiety
Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis?
A. Late stage of salicylate poisoning
B. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
C. Renal failure
D. Excessive vomiting
D. Excessive vomiting
Severe diarrhea causes:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
A. Metabolic acidosis
In salicylate overdose, what is the first acid-base disturbance present?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Drugs given for patients with asthma:
1. Digoxin
2. Procainamide
3. Theobromine
4. Theophylline
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only
C. 3 and 4
In the laboratory, a program that monitors the total testing process with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care:
A. Quality systems
B. Quality control
C. Quality assessment/assurance
C. Quality assessment/assurance
A system that verifies the reliability of analytical test results through the use of standards, controls, and statistical analysis:
A. Quality systems
B. Quality control
C. Quality assessment
D. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
In an institution, a comprehensive program in which all areas of operation are monitored to ensure quality with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care:
A. Quality systems
B. Quality control
C. Quality assessment
D. Quality assurance
A. Quality systems
A procedure with minimal complexity, instrumentation, and personnel requirements so that the results can be quickly determined:
A. Waived test
B. Nonwaived test
C. Definitive test
D. Presumptive test
D. Presumptive test
Highly sensitive and specific test in which results can be used as legal evidence:
A. Waived test
B. Non-waived test
C. Definitive test
D. Presumptive test
C. Definitive test
Nondestructive technique for determining the structure of organic compounds:
A. Scintillation counter
B. Freezing point osmometer
C. Mass spectroscopy
D. Nuclear magnetic resonance
D. Nuclear magnetic resonance
A patient sample is assayed for fasting triglycerides and a triglyceride value of 1036 mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because of its association with which of the following conditions?
A. Coronary heart disease
B. Diabetes
C. Pancreatitis
D. Gout
C. Pancreatitis
Only carbohydrate directly used for energy:
A. Glucose
B. Maltose
C. Fructose
D. Lactose
A. Glucose
Enzyme assay useful in forensic clinical chemistry:
A. CK
B. ACP
C. ALT
D. AST
B. ACP
The largest major nonimmunoglobulin protein in plasma:
A. Alpha1-antitrypsin
B. Alpha1-acid glycoprotein
C. Alpha2-macroglobulin
D. Transferrin
C. Alpha2-macroglobulin
Sodium is a threshold substance, meaning that no sodium will be excreted in the urine until the renal threshold (a plasma sodium concentration of approximately ____ mmol/L) is exceeded.
A. 90 mmol/L
B. 100 mmol/L
C. 105 mmol/L
D. 120 mmol/L
D. 120 mmol/L
1:3S
1. One observation exceeds 3 SD from the target value
2. Three observations exceed 1 SD from the target value
3. Imprecision or systematic bias
4. Not recommended
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4
A. 1 and 3
8:1S
1. Range between two observations exceeds 4 SD
2. Eight sequential observations for the same QC sample exceed 1 SD
3. Imprecision
4. Bias trend
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4
Copper reduction method for glucose that uses arsenomolybdic acid:
A. Folin-Wu
B. Nelson-Somogyi
C. Neocuproine
D. All of these
B. Nelson-Somogyi
A method for the estimation of glucose in body fluids; glucose in the protein-free filtrate reduces cupric ion to cuprous ion. The cuprous ion then reduces PHOSPHOMOLYBDIC ACID to molybdenum blue which can be estimated colorimetrically.
A. Dubowski method
B. Folin-Wu
C. Nelson-Somogyi
D. Neocuproine
B. Folin-Wu
Glucose measurements can be ____ mg/dL erroneously higher by reducing methods than by more accurate enzymatic methods.
A. 1 to 5 mg/dL
B. 5 to 15 mg/dL
C. 20 to 25 mg/dL
D. 30 to 35 mg/dL
B. 5 to 15 mg/dL
It is increased in hemolytic anemias:
A. B1
B. B2
C. Both fractions
D. None of these
A. B1
It is increased in bile duct obstruction:
A. B1
B. B2
C. Both fractions
D. None of these
B. B2
Increased in hepatitis:
A. B1
B. B2
C. Both fractions
D. None of these
C. Both fractions
Errors in LDL-c become noticeable at triglyceride levels:
A. Over 150 mg/dL
B. Over 200 mg/dL
C. Over 350 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL
B. Over 200 mg/dL
Errors in LDL-c become unacceptably large at triglyceride levels:
A. Over 150 mg/dL
B. Over 200 mg/dL
C. Over 350 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL
Friedewald formula is not valid for triglycerides:
A. Over 150 mg/dL
B. Over 200 mg/dL
C. Over 350 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL
Current NCEP guidelines recommend patients be seated for how many minutes before sampling for cholesterol to prevent hemoconcentration:
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
A. 5 minutes
When is the best time to release the tourniquet during venipuncture?
A. After the last tube has been filled completely
B. After the needle is withdrawn and covered
C. As soon as blood begins to flow into the tube
D. As soon as the needle penetrates the skin
C. As soon as blood begins to flow into the tube
Which of the following laboratory values is considered a positive risk factor for the occurrence of coronary heart disease?
A. HDL cholesterol >60 mg/dL
B. HDL cholesterol <35 mg/dL
C. LDL cholesterol <130 mg/dL
D. Total cholesterol <200 mg/dL
B. HDL cholesterol <35 mg/dL
Sensitive early marker for liver disease:
A. Platelet count
B. PT
C. PTT
D. Thrombin time
B. PT
Which of the following is the finger of choice for skin puncture?
A. Middle and ring finger
B. Middle and index finger
C. Ring and index finger
D. None of the above
A. Middle and ring finger
A properly tied tourniquet:
A. Tied like a ribbon
B. Ends pointing towards the shoulder
C. Ends pointing away from the shoulder
D. Loop towards the shoulder
B. Ends pointing towards the shoulder
When encountering a patient with a fistula, the phlebotomist should:
A. Apply the tourniquet below the fistula
B. Use the other arm
C. Collect the blood from the fistula
D. Attach a syringe to the T-tube connector
B. Use the other arm
The ideal site of capillary puncture in infants is the medial or lateral plantar surface of the heel, with a puncture no deeper than ____ mm beneath the plantar heel-skin surface.
A. 2.0 mm
B. 2.4 mm
C. 2.6 mm
D. 3.0 mm
A. 2.0 mm
User passwords should be:
A. Shared with others
B. Kept confidential
C. Posted at each terminal
D. Never changed
B. Kept confidential
During the morning rush, your laboratory manager comes into the laboratory and starts explaining a new policy regarding vacation requests. Word spreads of the change throughout the day, and the message has changed somewhat. Several in the laboratory are upset and complain to the laboratory manager.
Which of the following actions is the most appropriate way to handle such a situation?
A. Nothing should be changed, it was handled appropriately
B. The manager should have posted the change onthe bulletin board in the break room
C. The manager should have announced the policyon each shift
D. The manager should have discussed and distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting, or several laboratory meetings, so that all employees heard the policy from the manager
D. The manager should have discussed and distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting, or several laboratory meetings, so that all employees heard the policy from the manager
During the morning rush, your laboratory manager comes into the laboratory and starts explaining a new policy regarding vacation requests. Word spreads of the change throughout the day, and the message has changed somewhat. Several in the laboratory are upset and complain to the laboratory manager.
What is the most important role of the manager in charge?
A. Independent decision making
B. Communication
C. Informal discussions
D. None of the above
B. Communication
You are the lead chemistry MLS. Your laboratory manager has asked you to evaluate two new methods for cholesterol analysis.
In your evaluation, you found that method A was very accurate and precise and that method B was not very accurate and precise. However, the laboratory will make more money by investing in method B.
Which of the following decisions would exhibit professionalism?
A. Recommend method A to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory produce the most accurate and precise results.
B. Recommend method B to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory make as much money as possible.
C. State that you are unable to make a recommendation, because no difference in the methods was noted.
D. Recommend that you need more time to evaluate both methods.
A. Recommend method A to your laboratory manager. It is important that the laboratory produce the most accurate and precise results.
First clinical laboratory in the Philippines:
A. San Lazaro Hospital
B. Manila Public Health Laboratory
C. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
D. National Reference Laboratory
B. Manila Public Health Laboratory
Introduced medical technology practice in the Philippines after World War II:
A. Dr. Pio de Roda
B. Dr. Mariano Icasiano
C. Dr. Prudencia Sta. Ana
D. 26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army
D. 26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army
An Act Regulating the Collection, Processing and Sale of Human Blood, and the Establishment and Operation of Blood Banks and Blood Processing Laboratories
A. RA 5527
B. RA 1517
C. RA 7719
D. RA 8504
B. RA 1517
AN ACT PROMOTING VOLUNTARY BLOOD DONATION, PROVIDING FOR AN ADEQUATE SUPPLY OF SAFE BLOOD, REGULATING BLOOD BANKS
A. RA 5527
B. RA 1517
C. RA 7719
D. RA 8504
C. RA 7719
Blood vessel that supply blood to the kidney:
A. Renal artery
B. Renal vein
C. Peritubular capillaries
D. None of these
A. Renal artery
Which substrate is used in the Bowers–McComb method for ALP?
A. p-Nitrophenyl phosphate
B. β-Glycerophosphate
C. Phenylphosphate
D. α-Naphthylphosphate
A. p-Nitrophenyl phosphate
Which of the following buffers is used in the IFCC recommended method for ALP?
A. Glycine
B. Phosphate
C. 2-Amino-2-methyl-1-propanol
D. Citrate
C. 2-Amino-2-methyl-1-propanol
All of the following bacterial cell walls contains mycolic acid, EXCEPT:
A. Nocardia
B. Rhodococcus
C. Streptomyces
D. Corynebacterium
C. Streptomyces
The unique chemical structure of the cell wall of Mycobacterium spp. is associated with the presence of:
A. N-glycolylmuramic acid and a decrease in lipid content
B. N-acetylmuramic acid and a decrease in lipid content
C. N-glycolylmuramic acid and an increase in lipid content
D. N-acetylmuramic acid and an increase in lipid content
C. N-glycolylmuramic acid and an increase in lipid content
Blood vessel that supply blood to the kidney:
A. Renal artery
B. Renal vein
C. Peritubular capillaries
D. None of these
A. Renal artery
Which substrate is used in the Bowers–McComb method for ALP?
A. p-Nitrophenyl phosphate
B. β-Glycerophosphate
C. Phenylphosphate
D. α-Naphthylphosphate
A. p-Nitrophenyl phosphate
Which of the following buffers is used in the IFCC recommended method for ALP?
A. Glycine
B. Phosphate
C. 2-Amino-2-methyl-1-propanol
D. Citrate
C. 2-Amino-2-methyl-1-propanol
Thoroughly clean between the fingers and under the fingernails for at least ______ ; include thumbs and wrists in the cleaning.
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 10 seconds
D. 20 seconds
D. 20 seconds
The principle of the protein error of indicators reaction is that:
A. Protein keeps the pH of the urine constant
B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator
C. The indicator accepts hydrogen ions from albumin
D. Albumin changes the pH of the urine
B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator
Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the:
A. Bilirubin
B. pH
C. Leukocyte esterase
D. Glucose
C. Leukocyte esterase
A person submitting a urine specimen following a strenuous exercise routine can normally have all of the following in the sediment EXCEPT:
A. Hyaline casts
B. Granular casts
C. RBC casts
D. WBC casts
D. WBC casts
Which of the following would be least affected in a specimen that has remained unpreserved at room temperature for more than 2 hours?
A. Urobilinogen
B. Ketones
C. Protein
D. Nitrite
C. Protein
5-HIAA is a degradation product of:
A. Heme
B. Indole
C. Serotonin
D. Melanin
C. Serotonin
The most common composition of renal calculi is:
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
C. Cystine
D. Uric acid
A. Calcium oxalate
Crystals associated with severe liver disease include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Bilirubin
B. Leucine
C. Cystine
D. Tyrosine
C. Cystine
The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to:
A. Check for high ascorbic acid levels
B. Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose
C. Check for newborn galactosuria
D. Confirm a negative glucose reading
C. Check for newborn galactosuria
Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is seen with:
A. Wegener granulomatosis
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Goodpasture syndrome
D. Diabetic nephropathy
C. Goodpasture syndrome
A class ABC fire extinguisher contains:
A. Sand
B. Water
C. Dry chemicals
D. Acid
C. Dry chemicals
Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary disorders affecting metabolism of:
A. Porphyrins
B. Purines
C. Mucopolysaccharides
D. Tryptophan
C. Mucopolysaccharides
Black color of Argyrol, an antiseptic, disappears with addition of:
A. Copper sulfate
B. Ferric chloride
C. Sodium nitroprusside
D. Trichloroacetic acid
B. Ferric chloride
The concentration of myoglobin in the urine must be at least ___ before the red pigmentation can be visualized.
A. 10 mg/dL
B. 15 mg/dL
C. 20 mg/dL
D. 25 mg/dL
D. 25 mg/dL
Blood (hemoglobin) casts in Sedi-stain:
A. Pink
B. Pale purple
C. Orange-red
D. Light blue-green
C. Orange-red
Trichomonas in Sedi-stain:
A. Pink
B. Pale purple
C. Orange-red
D. Light blue-green
D. Light blue-green
Specimens from patients receiving treatment for urinary tract infections frequently appear:
A. Clear and red
B. Viscous and orange
C. Dilute and pale yellow
D. Cloudy and red
B. Viscous and orange
Specimens containing _________ produce a yellow foam when shaken, which could be mistaken for bilirubin.
A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
B. Phenindione
C. Methyldopa
D. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
Anticoagulant, orange in alkaline urine, colorless in acid urine.
A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
B. Phenindione
C. Methyldopa
D. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
B. Phenindione
What is the stain that binds to the nucleic acid of organisms but does not discriminate between gram-positive or gram-negative organisms called?
A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
B. Auramine-rhodamine stain
C. Gram stain
D. Acridine orange stain
D. Acridine orange stain
Which of the following is the only catalase-negative, gram-positive, non-spore-forming rod that produces H2S on TSI?
A. Gardnerella sp.
B. Erysipelothrix sp.
C. Lactobacillus sp.
D. Arcanobacterium sp.
B. Erysipelothrix sp.
Which of the following bacteria is able to hydrolyze urea via urease production, which results in an increase in urine pH that is toxic to kidney cells and stimulates the formation of kidney stones?
A. E. coli
B. Proteus
C. S. aureus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus
The ETHANOL SHOCK procedure is used to differentiate:
A. Actinomyces and Bifidobacterium spp.
B. Prevotella and Porphyromonas spp.
C. Clostridium and Bacteroides spp.
D. Bacteroides and Actinomyces spp.
C. Clostridium and Bacteroides spp.
These knives are used to cut block for ELECTRON MICROSCOPY (EM):
A. Disposal blades
B. Steel knives
C. Diamond or glass knives
D. Magnetic blades
C. Diamond or glass knives
Microtome knives for PARAFFIN SECTIONING are usually made of:
A. Carbon steel
B. Diamond
C. Glass
D. Iron
A. Carbon steel
Papanicolaou staining consists of how many stains?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
C. 3
Ratio of nuclear to cytoplasmic stains in Papanicolaou staining:
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 2:1
D. 3:1
A. 1:2
Ratio of cytoplasmic to nuclear stain in Papanicolaou staining:
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 2:1
D. 3:1
C. 2:1
What is the second stain in Papanicolaou staining procedure?
A. Sudan III
B. Harris hematoxylin
C. OG-6
D. Eosin azure
C. OG-6
Turnaround time (TAT) is of value in:
A. Large organs
B. Autopsy
C. Frozen sections
D. None of these
C. Frozen sections
Frozen sections are stained by hand because:
A. Staining is more accurate
B. Prevent overstaining
C. Faster for one or a few individual sections
D. Predictable colors
C. Faster for one or a few individual sections
Ripening of hematoxylin is a process of:
A. Hydrolysis
B. Oxidation
C. Mordanting
D. Reduction
B. Oxidation
CSF tube subject to VDRL test:
A. Tube 1
B. Tube 2
C. Tube 3
D. Any of these
A. Tube 1
Excess CSF should be:
A. Discarded
B. Refrigerated
C. Frozen
D. Maintained at room temperature
C. Frozen
If only a small amount of CSF is obtained, which is the most important procedure to perform first?
A. Cell count
B. Chemistries
C. Immunology
D. Microbiology
D. Microbiology
Guaiac tests for detecting occult blood rely on the:
A. Reaction of hemoglobin with hydrogen peroxide
B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin
C. Reaction of hemoglobin with ortho-toluidine
D. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hydrogen peroxide
B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin
Green peritoneal fluid: (CHECK YOUR STRASINGER)
A. Microbial infection
B. Lymphatic trauma and blockage
C. Malignancy
D. Gallbladder or pancreatic disorders
D. Gallbladder or pancreatic disorders
The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is:
A. Chloride
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Hydrogen
B. Sodium
Seminal fluid are collected following a period of sexual abstinence of:
A. 1 to 3 days
B. 3 to 5 days
C. 2 to 7 days
D. 7 to 10 days
C. 2 to 7 days
Eosinophils may be increased in CSF in fungal infections primarily with:
A. Candida albicans
B. Coccidioides immitis
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Coccidioides immitis
Esterases also are present in which parasite?
A. Enterobius
B. Giardia
C. Schistosoma
D. Trichomonas
Trichomonas
Which of the following conditions is viewed as a risk factor for systemic disease caused by Pasteurella multocida subsp. multocida?
A. Liver cirrhosis
B. End-stage renal disease
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Hereditary hemochromatosis
A. Liver cirrhosis
Germ tube formation is seen with which two yeasts?
A. C. albicans, C. neoformans
B. C. albicans, C. parapsilosis
C. C. glabrata, C. parapsilosis
D. C. albicans, C. dubliniensis
E. C. glabrata, C. dubliniensis
D. C. albicans, C. dubliniensis
Which organism produces the CAMP factor enhancing beta hemolysis in the presence of the S. aureus beta lysin?
A. Group A streptococci
B. Group B streptococci
C. Group C streptococci
D. Group D streptococci
B. Group B streptococci
Necrotizing fasciitis is a serious infection associated with:
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus mitis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
What virus traditionally causes viral parotitis?
A. Influenza virus
B. Parainfluenza virus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Mumps virus
D. Mumps virus
Which of the following is the key pathogen that infects the lungs of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A. B. cepacia
B. B. pseudomallei
C. P. fluorescens
D. P. aeruginosa
D. P. aeruginosa
In patients who are HIV positive or who have AIDS, chronic pulmonary disease may be associated with infection as a result of:
A. Mycobacterium gordonae
B. Mycobacterium kansasii
C. Mycobacterium avium complex
D. Mycobacterium fortuitum
C. Mycobacterium avium complex
Most laboratories use which type of fire extinguisher?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Combination ABC
D. Combination ABC
Which organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
Adding specimen scrapings to 10% KOH to show the presence of sclerotic bodies that resemble copper pennies is useful in the diagnosis of:
A. Chromoblastomycosis
B. Phaeohyphomycosis
C. Mycetomas
D. Zygomycosis
A. Chromoblastomycosis
DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation) is a complication of bloodstream sepsis and is most often caused by:
A. Gram-negative bacteria
B. The virus CMV
C. Gram-positive bacteria
D. Parasites
A. Gram-negative bacteria
Which organism exhibits end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours
A. C. diphtheriae
B. C. jeikeium
C. Arthrobacter sp.
D. L. monocytogenes
D. L. monocytogenes
Loeffler’s agar slant is a special culture medium used to recover which organism?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Dark-field microscopy is used for the microscopic examination of what types of bacteria?
A. Gram-positive cocci such as Staphylococcus aureus
B. Yeast such as Candida tropicalis
C. Gram-negative bacilli such as Escherichia coli
D. Spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum
D. Spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum
Campylobacter are:
A. Small, curved, motile, gram-positive bacilli
B. Small, curved, motile gram-negative bacilli
C. Small, curved, nonmotile, gram-positive bacilli
D. Small, curved, nonmotile, gram-negative bacilli
B. Small, curved, motile gram-negative bacilli
A large, aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rod is isolated from a blood culture. It can be further confirmed as B. anthracis if it is:
A. Hemolytic and motile
B. Hemolytic and nonmotile
C. Nonhemolytic and motile
D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile
D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile
Which family of viruses produces one of the most lethal hemorrhagic fevers?
A. Bunyaviridae
B. Filoviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Arenaviridae
B. Filoviridae
What substance added to the antigen in the RPR test allows for more macroscopically visible flocculation?
A. Latex particles
B. Extracellular antigens
C. Heparin-magnesium chloride particles
D. Charcoal particles
D. Charcoal particles
What step in the Gram stain distinguishes between gram-positive and gram-negative organisms?
A. Fixing of the cells to the slide using heat or methanol
B. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone
C. Counterstain of the Gram stain using safranin
D. Application of the mordant, Gram’s iodine
B. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone
Which triad of symptoms is associated with rickettsial infections?
A. Urethral discharge, fever, and dysuria
B. Coughing, production of sputum, and chest pain
C. Fever, headache, and rash
D. Genital lesion, swollen inguinal lymph nodes, and headache
C. Fever, headache, and rash
Optochin sensitivity is used to differentiate:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci
B. Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus agalactiae from Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Enterococci from non–group D enterococci
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci
The complete clearing of media around bacterial colonies on a blood agar plate is referred to as:
A. Alpha hemolysis
B. Beta hemolysis
C. Gamma hemolysis
D. Delta hemolysis
B. Beta hemolysis
Pregnant women and immunocompromised patients should avoid eating which of the following foods to prevent Listeria infection
A. Feta cheese
B. Peanuts
C. Pickles
D. Ice cream
A. Feta cheese
Aspects of this principle:
* Providing benefits
* Balancing benefits and risks/harms
This principle supports the following moral rules or obligations:
* Protect and defend the rights of others
* Prevent harm from occurring to others
* Remove conditions that will cause harm
* Help persons with disabilities
* Rescue persons in danger
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Non-maleficence
D. Justice
B. Beneficence
This principle holds that there is an obligation not to inflict harm on others. It is closely associated with the maxim primum non nocere (first do no harm). This principle supports the following rules:
* Do not kill
* Do not cause pain or suffering
* Do not incapacitate
* Do not cause offense
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Non-maleficence
D. Justice
C. Non-maleficence
RESPECT the decisions (self-determination) of adults who have decision-making capacity.
* Moral rules or obligations:
* Tell the truth
* Respect the privacy of others
* Protect confidential information
* Obtain consent for interventions with patients
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Non-maleficence
D. Justice
A. Autonomy
Primum non nocere comes from the Hippocratic Oath and means:
A. Do first things first.
B. First do no harm.
C. Quality is foremost.
D. Ready to serve.
B. First do no harm.
Assignment of credit unit shall use the Matrix of CPD Activities as provided in Resolution No. 1032, series of 2017 as reference.
Generally, a maximum of _____ credit unit(s) per hour of activity may be given.
A. 0.5 cu
B. 1 cu
C. 2 cu
D. 3 cu
B. 1 cu
PRC function:
Administers, implements, and enforce the laws and policies with respect to the regulation and licensing of the various professions and occupations, including the enhancement and maintenance of professional and occupational standards and ethics.
A. Quasi-Legislative
B. Quasi-Judicial
C. Executive
D. None of these
C. Executive
PRC function:
Investigates motu proprio or upon the filing of a verified complaint, any registered professional, any member of the professional regulatory boards, officers and employees under the jurisdiction of the Commission; Issues summons, subpoena and subpoena duces tecum; May hold in contempt erring party or person; May revoke or suspend certificates of registration and professional licenses.
A. Quasi-Legislative
B. Quasi-Judicial
C. Executive
D. None of these
B. Quasi-Judicial
PRC function:
Formulates rules and policies on professional regulation. Reviews, revises and approves resolutions embodying policies promulgated by the Professional Regulatory Boards.
A. Quasi-Legislative
B. Quasi-Judicial
C. Executive
D. None of these
A. Quasi-Legislative
The Professional Regulation Commission, otherwise known as the PRC, is a ____-man commission attached to office of the President for general direction and coordination.
A. Two-man
B. Three-man
C. Four-man
D. Five-man
B. Three-man
It refers to the individual from whom a specimen for drug testing is collected.
A. Practitioner
B. Pusher
C. Protector/coddler
D. Donor/client
D. Donor/client
According to RA 9165, a person who knowingly and willfully consents to the unlawful acts and uses his/her influence, power or position in shielding, harboring, screening or facilitating the escape of any person he/she knows, or has reasonable grounds to believe on or suspects:
A. Practitioner
B. Pusher
C. Protector/coddler
D. Donor
C. Protector/coddler
A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
C. One year
The chairman and members of the BOARD OF MT shall hold office for ___ year(s) after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified.
A. 1 year or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
B. 2 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
C. 3 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
D. 5 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
C. 3 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
Qualification of BOARD EXAMINERS (Board of MT) EXCEPT:
A. Filipino citizen, good moral character
B. Qualified pathologist or duly RMTs
C. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment
D. Not a member of the faculty of any medical technology school for at least two years prior to appointment
C. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment
Subject to RANDOM drug test:
A. Applicants for firearm’s license
B. Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcers
C. Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or local government
D. Students of secondary and tertiary schools
D. Students of secondary and tertiary schools
Phenol derivatives found in certain intravenous medications produce ______urine on oxidation.
A. Yellow
B. Orange
C. Green
D. Purple
C. Green
The only tissue in the body that is hypertonic with respect to normal plasma (i.e., its osmolality is greater than 290 mOsm/kg):
A. Glomerulus
B. Convoluted tubules
C. Renal cortex
D. Renal medulla
D. Renal medulla
The modification of diet in renal disease (MDRD) formula for calculating eGFR requires which four parameters?
A. Urine creatinine, serum creatinine, height, weight
B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race
C. Serum creatinine, height, weight, age
D. Urine creatinine, gender, weight, age
B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race
Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated creatinine clearance calculations include all of the following except:
A. Serum creatinine
B. Weight
C. Age
D. Gender
B. Weight
Urine specific gravity by the URINOMETER is 1.032. The urine temperature is 26C and chemical tests indicate presence of 2 g/dL protein. What is the corrected specific gravity?
A. 1.024
B. 1.026
C. 1.028
D. 1.029
C. 1.028
Specific gravity of 1.022 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
C. 5% NaCl
Specific gravity of 1.034 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
D. 9% sucrose
A urine specimen diluted 1:2 with a reading of 1.025, would have an actual specific gravity reading of:
A. 1.012
B. 1.025
C. 1.050
D. 1.075
C. 1.050
Which one has the highest actual urine specific gravity?
A. Undiluted urine with a reading of 1.035
B. Diluted urine 1:2 with a reading of 1.025
C. Diluted urine 1:5 with a reading of 1.008
D. Same specific gravities
B. Diluted urine 1:2 with a reading of 1.025
Positive result in the Ictotest:
A. Green
B. Orange
C. Purple
D. Red
C. Purple
Cyanide-nitroprusside (+):
A. Tryptophan disorders
B. Cystine disorders
C. Purine disorders
D. Mucopolysaccharidoses
B. Cystine disorders
Synovial fluid of high viscosity (i.e., normal fluid) forms a “string” of _____ cm before breaking.
A. 1 to 2 cm
B. 2 to 4 cm
C. 4 to 6 cm
D. 8 to 10 cm
C. 4 to 6 cm
Pleural fluid triglycerides <50 mg/dL:
A. Hemothorax
B. Hemorrhagic effusion
C. Chylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion
Pleural fluid triglycerides >110 mg/dL:
A. Hemothorax
B. Hemorrhagic effusion
C. Chylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion
C. Chylous effusion
Decreased mesothelial cells and increased plasma cells in pleural fluid:
A. Pancreatitis
B. Pulmonary infarction
C. Tuberculosis
D. Pneumonia not responding to antibiotics
C. Tuberculosis
PHASE OF GASTRIC SECRETION that involves VAGUS NERVE STIMULATION caused by stimuli such as taste, smell, or sight:
A. Cephalic phase
B. Gastric phase
C. Intestinal phase
D. None of these
A. Cephalic phase
Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5 or 1.0 pH unit with gastric stimulation:
A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity
A. Achlorhydria
Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5, although it decreases 1.0 pH unit or more upon gastric stimulation:
A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity
B. Hypochlorhydria
Failure of the stomach acidity to fall lower than 6.0 in a stimulation test:
A. Achlorhydria
B. Hypochlorhydria
C. Anacidity
C. Anacidity
Urine volume for urinometry:
A. 1 to 2 drops
B. 1 to 2 mL
C. 10 to 15 drops
D. 10 to 15 mL
D. 10 to 15 mL
Urine volume for refractometry:
A. 1 to 2 drops
B. 1 to 2 mL
C. 10 to 15 drops
D. 10 to 15 mL
A. 1 to 2 drops
Specific gravity of 1.015 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
B. 3% NaCl
Specific gravity of 1.022 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
C. 5% NaCl
Specific gravity of 1.034 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
D. 9% sucrose
Normal neutral fats with increased amount of fatty acids:
A. Malabsorption
B. Maldigestion
C. Both of these
D. None of these
A. Malabsorption
What is the normal color of gastric fluid?
A. Pale gray
B. Colorless
C. Yellow
D. Amber
A. Pale gray
Fluid: serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous fluids:
A. When malignancy is suspected
B. To classify transudates and exudates
C. To determine the type of serous fluid
D. When a traumatic tap has occurred
B. To classify transudates and exudates
The recommended test for determining whether PERITONEAL FLUID is a transudate or an exudate is the:
A. Fluid: serum albumin ratio
B. Serum:ascites albumin gradient
C. Fluid: serum lactic dehydrogenase ratio
D. Absolute neutrophil count
B. Serum:ascites albumin gradient
Which of the following tests is used to differentiate between an effusion caused by cirrhosis and one caused by peritonitis?
A. Absolute neutrophil count
B. Fluid-to–serum bilirubin ratio
C. Serum-ascites gradient
D. Serum to LD ratio
A. Absolute neutrophil count
The mucin clot test determines the presence of synovial fluid ______________.
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Fibrinogen
D. Hyaluronic acid
D. Hyaluronic acid
Before testing, very viscous synovial fluid should be treated with:
A. Normal saline
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Distilled water
D. Hypotonic saline
B. Hyaluronidase
What is added to synovial fluid to determine the viscosity?
A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Acetic acid
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Hyaluronic acid
B. Acetic acid
Low to absent fructose level in the semen:
A. Low sperm concentration
B. Low sperm motility
C. Low sperm viability
D. Presence of antisperm antibodies
A. Low sperm concentration
Specimens for fructose levels should be tested within 2 hours of collection or _______ to prevent fructolysis.
A. Refrigerated
B. Frozen
C. Incubated at 37C
D. Maintained at room temperature
B. Frozen
Specimens can be screened for the presence of fructose using the resorcinol test that produces an _______color when fructose is present.
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Orange
D. Orange
Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
A. Unstained, bluish-white
Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
D. Red on a purple background
Normal sperm vitality requires _________ living cells and should correspond to the previously evaluated motility.
A. 30% or more
B. 40% or more
C. 50% or more
D. 100%
C. 50% or more
Wet preparation for demonstration of fecal leukocytes:
A. Methylene blue
B. Gram stain
C. Wright’s stain
D. All of these
A. Methylene blue
Microscopic screening reveals presence of fecal leukocytes in diarrhea caused by all of the following organisms, EXCEPT:
A. Shigella, Yersinia
B. Campylobacter
C. Enteroinvasive E. coli
D. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Positive lactoferrin agglutination test in patient stool:
A. Fecal fats - steatorrhea
B. Fecal occult blood - colorectal cancer
C. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Vibrio
D. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Salmonella
D. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Salmonella
REAGENT PAD reading time: 30 seconds
A. Bilirubin
B. Ketones
C. Specific gravity
D. pH
A. Bilirubin
UNIFORM/HOMOGENOUS green to a strongly positive green-blue appears on the blood reagent pad:
1. Hematuria
2. Hemoglobinuria
3. Myoglobinuria
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
SPECKLED pattern on the blood reagent pad:
A. Hematuria
B. Hemoglobinuria
C. Myoglobinuria
D. All of these
A. Hematuria
Normal synovial fluid will be able to form ____ cm STRING.
A. 1 to 2 cm
B. 3 to 4 cm
C. 4 to 6 cm
D. 6 to 10 cm
C. 4 to 6 cm
Hyaluronate polymerization can be measured using a ROPES, or MUCIN CLOT TEST. When added to a solution of 2% to 5% acetic acid, normal synovial fluid forms:
A. No clot
B. Friable clot
C. Soft clot
D. Solid clot surrounded by clear fluid
D. Solid clot surrounded by clear fluid
When diluting a synovial fluid WBC count, all of the following are acceptable EXCEPT:
A. Acetic acid
B. Isotonic saline
C. Hypotonic saline
D. Saline with saponin
A. Acetic acid
Oligoclonal banding in cerebrospinal fluid but not in serum, EXCEPT:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Encephalitis
C. Neurosyphilis
D. Guillain-Barre disease
A. Multiple myeloma
Oligoclonal bands are significant in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis when:
A. They are seen in both the serum and CSF
B. At least five bands are seen in the CSF
C. They are seen in the CSF and not in the serum
D. They appear in both the albumin and globulinfractions of serum and the CSF
C. They are seen in the CSF and not in the serum
Dense crystalline concretions in sputum:
A. Asthma
B. Broncholithiasis
C. Fungal pneumonia
D. Tuberculosis
B. Broncholithiasis
Green with carbocyanine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
Orange with phenathridine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
A. DNA
Enumeration of bacteria in automated slideless microscopy:
A. Spectrophotometric method
B. Small particle histogram
C. Nitrite determination
D. Reflectance photometry
B. Small particle histogram
Glitter cells in KOVA stain (Sternheimer-Malbin)
A. Cannot be stained
B. Pink
C. Purple
D. Light blue
D. Light blue
Sternheimer-Malbin stain produces a ____ color in hyaline casts.
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Pink
D. Orange-red
C. Pink
Glitter cells are neutrophils:
A. Exposed to urine with high specific gravity
B. Exposed to urine with low specific gravity
C. Containing lipids
D. Containing non-lipid vacuoles
B. Exposed to urine with low specific gravity
GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing hemoglobin degradation products are associated with:
A. Cystitis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute interstitial nephritis
D. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Acute tubular necrosis
All are components of CLINITEST, except:
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose
D. Lactose
Which of the following is a component of ACETEST?
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose
D. Lactose
Benedict’s test 1+:
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange
B. Green
What chemical can be used to preserve a specimen for a culture and a routine urinalysis?
A. Boric acid
B. Formalin
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Thymol
A. Boric acid
Preserves protein and formed elements well:
A. Boric acid
B. Formalin
C. Thymol
D. Toluene
A. Boric acid
Measurement of which of the following can be replaced by CSF glutamine analysis in children with Reye syndrome?
A. Ammonia
B. Lactate
C. Glucose
D. Alpha-ketoglutarate
A. Ammonia
45 seconds reading time:
A. Glucose
B. Ketone
C. Specific gravity
D. pH
C. Specific gravity
Most common cause of ASEPTIC MENINGITIS, an inflammation of the brain parenchyma:
A. Arenavirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Enterovirus
D. Herpes simplex virus 2
C. Enterovirus
Positive result for the acid-albumin and CTAB test for mucopolysaccharides:
A. White turbidity
B. Yellow turbidity
C. Red spot
D. Blue spot
A. White turbidity
Positive result for the METACHROMATIC STAINING SPOT TEST for mucopolysaccahrides:
A. White turbidity
B. Yellow turbidity
C. Red spot
D. Blue spot
D. Blue spot
Elevated compound(s) in congenital erythropoietic porphyria:
A. Protoporphyrin
B. ALA, porphobilinogen
C. ALA, protoporphyrin
D. Uroporphyrin, coproporphyrin
D. Uroporphyrin, coproporphyrin
Only elements found in the urinary sediment that are unique to the kidney:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Casts
D. Crystals
C. Casts
To assess the permeability of the blood/brain barrier (BBB), the CSF level of which of the following proteins will be measured by the laboratory?
A. Albumin
B. IgG
C. Transferrin
D. Prealbumin
A. Albumin
CASE STUDY
An 8-year-old girl complains of feeling like she needs to urinate all the time. Her urine burns when she does void, and it is cloudy. She is seen at her pediatrician’s office, where urine is collected for routine urinalysis and culture. The following urinalysis results were obtained:
Physical Appearance
* Color: Pale
* Transparency: Cloudy
Chemical Screening
* pH: 7.5
* Specific gravity: 1.010
* Protein (reagent strip): Trace
* Protein (SSA): Trace
* Blood: Negative
* Nitrite: Positive
* Leukocyte esterase: Positive
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Negative
* Bilirubin: Negative
* Urobilinogen: Normal
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* White blood cells: 50-100 per hpf; clumps of white cells seen
* Casts: None seen
* Crystals: Moderate amorphous phosphates
* Bacteria: Many rods
- The positive reagent strip test for nitrite in this patient is probably caused by which of the following?
A. An infection from gram-negative bacteria
B. An infection from gram-positive bacteria
C. A yeast infection
D. An old urine specimen, unsuitable for examination
A. An infection from gram-negative bacteria
CASE STUDY
An 8-year-old girl complains of feeling like she needs to urinate all the time. Her urine burns when she does void, and it is cloudy. She is seen at her pediatrician’s office, where urine is collected for routine urinalysis and culture. The following urinalysis results were obtained:
Physical Appearance
* Color: Pale
* Transparency: Cloudy
Chemical Screening
* pH: 7.5
* Specific gravity: 1.010
* Protein (reagent strip): Trace
* Protein (SSA): Trace
* Blood: Negative
* Nitrite: Positive
* Leukocyte esterase: Positive
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Negative
* Bilirubin: Negative
* Urobilinogen: Normal
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* White blood cells: 50-100 per hpf; clumps of white cells seen
* Casts: None seen
* Crystals: Moderate amorphous phosphates
* Bacteria: Many rods
- The positive reagent strip test for leukocyte esterase in this patient is caused by the presence of which of the following?
A. Bacteria
B. Protein
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cells
D. White blood cells
CASE STUDY
An 8-year-old girl complains of feeling like she needs to urinate all the time. Her urine burns when she does void, and it is cloudy. She is seen at her pediatrician’s office, where urine is collected for routine urinalysis and culture. The following urinalysis results were obtained:
Physical Appearance
* Color: Pale
* Transparency: Cloudy
Chemical Screening
* pH: 7.5
* Specific gravity: 1.010
* Protein (reagent strip): Trace
* Protein (SSA): Trace
* Blood: Negative
* Nitrite: Positive
* Leukocyte esterase: Positive
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Negative
* Bilirubin: Negative
* Urobilinogen: Normal
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* White blood cells: 50-100 per hpf; clumps of white cells seen
* Casts: None seen
* Crystals: Moderate amorphous phosphates
* Bacteria: Many rods
- This patient’s alkaline pH is caused by the presence of which of the following?
A. Bacteria
B. Leukocyte esterase
C. Nitrite
D. Protein
A. Bacteria
CASE STUDY
An 8-year-old girl complains of feeling like she needs to urinate all the time. Her urine burns when she does void, and it is cloudy. She is seen at her pediatrician’s office, where urine is collected for routine urinalysis and culture. The following urinalysis results were obtained:
Physical Appearance
* Color: Pale
* Transparency: Cloudy
Chemical Screening
* pH: 7.5
* Specific gravity: 1.010
* Protein (reagent strip): Trace
* Protein (SSA): Trace
* Blood: Negative
* Nitrite: Positive
* Leukocyte esterase: Positive
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Negative
* Bilirubin: Negative
* Urobilinogen: Normal
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* White blood cells: 50-100 per hpf; clumps of white cells seen
* Casts: None seen
* Crystals: Moderate amorphous phosphates
* Bacteria: Many rods
- Which of the following conditions is exhibited by this patient?
A. Lower urinary tract infection
B. Acute drug-induced interstitial nephritis
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. Acute pyelonephritis
A. Lower urinary tract infection
CASE STUDY
A 20-year-old female college student with a sore throat is seen in the student health service. A throat swab is cultured and reported positive for group A β-hemolytic streptococci. She is treated with an intramuscular injection of penicillin. Two weeks later, she wakes up in the morning and finds that she has decreased urine volume, and her urine is dark red. She also has a fever and swelling in her feet. She returns to the student health service, where urine is collected for urinalysis. The following urinalysis results were obtained (SSA, Sulfosalicylic acid; hpf, high-power field; lpf, low-power field):
Physical Appearance
* Color: Red
* Transparency: Cloudy
Chemical Screening
* pH: 6
* Specific gravity: 1.025
* Protein (reagent strip): 100 mg/dL
* Protein (SSA): 2+
* Blood: Large
* Nitrite: Negative
* Leukocyte esterase: Negative
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Trace
* Bilirubin: Negative
* Urobilinogen: Normal
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 10-25 per hpf; dysmorphic forms present
* White blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* Casts: 2-5 red blood cell casts per lpf
* Crystals: Moderate amorphous urates
- Based on the patient’s history and laboratory data what is the most probable cause of this patient’s proteinuria?
A. Glomerular damage
B. Lower urinary tract disorders
C. Prerenal disorders
D. Tubular (or interstitial) damage
A. Glomerular damage
CASE STUDY
A 20-year-old female college student with a sore throat is seen in the student health service. A throat swab is cultured and reported positive for group A β-hemolytic streptococci. She is treated with an intramuscular injection of penicillin. Two weeks later, she wakes up in the morning and finds that she has decreased urine volume, and her urine is dark red. She also has a fever and swelling in her feet. She returns to the student health service, where urine is collected for urinalysis. The following urinalysis results were obtained (SSA, Sulfosalicylic acid; hpf, high-power field; lpf, low-power field):
Physical Appearance
* Color: Red
* Transparency: Cloudy
Chemical Screening
* pH: 6
* Specific gravity: 1.025
* Protein (reagent strip): 100 mg/dL
* Protein (SSA): 2+
* Blood: Large
* Nitrite: Negative
* Leukocyte esterase: Negative
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Trace
* Bilirubin: Negative
* Urobilinogen: Normal
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 10-25 per hpf; dysmorphic forms present
* White blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* Casts: 2-5 red blood cell casts per lpf
* Crystals: Moderate amorphous urates
- The presence of dysmorphic red blood cells (RBCs) and RBC casts indicates which of the following?
A. Bleeding from kidney stone formation
B. Kidney disease located in the glomerulus
C. Kidney infection
D. Probable menstrual contamination
B. Kidney disease located in the glomerulus
CASE STUDY
A 20-year-old female college student with a sore throat is seen in the student health service. A throat swab is cultured and reported positive for group A β-hemolytic streptococci. She is treated with an intramuscular injection of penicillin. Two weeks later, she wakes up in the morning and finds that she has decreased urine volume, and her urine is dark red. She also has a fever and swelling in her feet. She returns to the student health service, where urine is collected for urinalysis. The following urinalysis results were obtained (SSA, Sulfosalicylic acid; hpf, high-power field; lpf, low-power field):
Physical Appearance
* Color: Red
* Transparency: Cloudy
Chemical Screening
* pH: 6
* Specific gravity: 1.025
* Protein (reagent strip): 100 mg/dL
* Protein (SSA): 2+
* Blood: Large
* Nitrite: Negative
* Leukocyte esterase: Negative
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Trace
* Bilirubin: Negative
* Urobilinogen: Normal
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 10-25 per hpf; dysmorphic forms present
* White blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* Casts: 2-5 red blood cell casts per lpf
* Crystals: Moderate amorphous urates
- Which of the following conditions is exhibited by this patient?
A. Acute cystitis
B. Acute drug-induced interstitial nephritis
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
CASE STUDY
A 60-year-old man with a history of alcoholism is seen in an urgent care clinic; he complains of extreme pain in his upper abdomen. He has been experiencing pain on and off for the past 10 days. Now he is yellow (jaundiced) and feels extremely ill. He also mentions that his stool specimens have lost their normal color and look like clay. Blood is drawn for testing and urine collected for urinalysis. The following urinalysis results were obtained:
Physical Appearance
* Color: Brown (yellow-brown)
* Transparency: Clear
* Foam: Abundant yellow foam
Chemical Screening
* pH: 6.5
* Specific gravity: 1.020
* Protein (reagent strip): Negative
* Blood: Negative
* Nitrite: Negative
* Leukocyte esterase: Negative
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Negative
* Bilirubin: Large
* Urobilinogen: Normal
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* White blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
- The abnormal urine color is caused by which of the following?
A. Unconjugated bilirubin
B. Conjugated bilirubin
C. Urobilinogen
D. Protein
B. Conjugated bilirubin
CASE STUDY
A 60-year-old man with a history of alcoholism is seen in an urgent care clinic; he complains of extreme pain in his upper abdomen. He has been experiencing pain on and off for the past 10 days. Now he is yellow (jaundiced) and feels extremely ill. He also mentions that his stool specimens have lost their normal color and look like clay. Blood is drawn for testing and urine collected for urinalysis. The following urinalysis results were obtained:
Physical Appearance
* Color: Brown (yellow-brown)
* Transparency: Clear
* Foam: Abundant yellow foam
Chemical Screening
* pH: 6.5
* Specific gravity: 1.020
* Protein (reagent strip): Negative
* Blood: Negative
* Nitrite: Negative
* Leukocyte esterase: Negative
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Negative
* Bilirubin: Large
* Urobilinogen: Normal
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* White blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
- The lack of color in the feces is caused by an absence of which of the following?
A. Bilirubin glucuronide
B. Free bilirubin
C. Unconjugated bilirubin
D. Urobilinogen
D. Urobilinogen
CASE STUDY
A 60-year-old man with a history of alcoholism is seen in an urgent care clinic; he complains of extreme pain in his upper abdomen. He has been experiencing pain on and off for the past 10 days. Now he is yellow (jaundiced) and feels extremely ill. He also mentions that his stool specimens have lost their normal color and look like clay. Blood is drawn for testing and urine collected for urinalysis. The following urinalysis results were obtained:
Physical Appearance
* Color: Brown (yellow-brown)
* Transparency: Clear
* Foam: Abundant yellow foam
Chemical Screening
* pH: 6.5
* Specific gravity: 1.020
* Protein (reagent strip): Negative
* Blood: Negative
* Nitrite: Negative
* Leukocyte esterase: Negative
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Negative
* Bilirubin: Large
* Urobilinogen: Normal
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* White blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
- From the patient history and the urinalysis, this patient’s jaundice is probably the result of which of the following?
A. Acute alcoholism leading to a cirrhotic liver
B. Hemolytic jaundice
C. Infectious hepatitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
D. Obstructive jaundice
CASE STUDY
A 12-year-old boy has a history of several infections in the past few months. He is now very lethargic and swollen, with generalized edema. He tells his mother that his urine is very foamy when he urinates and that he feels “awful.” He is seen by his pediatrician, and urinalysis is performed with the following results:
Physical Appearance
* Color: Pale
* Transparency: Cloudy
* Foam: Abundant white foam
Chemical Screening
* pH: 6.0
* Specific gravity: 1.010
* Protein (reagent strip): >2000 mg/dL
* Protein (SSA): 4+
* Blood: Trace
* Nitrite: Negative
* Leukocyte esterase: Negative
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Negative
* Bilirubin: Negative
* Urobilinogen: Negative
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* White blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
Casts:
* 5-10 fatty casts per lpf
* 2-5 hyaline casts per lpf
* Epithelial cells: Few renal epithelial cells; many oval fat bodies present
* Other: Moderate free fat globules seen
- The abundant white foam in this urine specimen is caused by the presence of which of the following?
A. Blood
B. Casts
C. Fat
D. Protein
D. Protein
CASE STUDY
A 12-year-old boy has a history of several infections in the past few months. He is now very lethargic and swollen, with generalized edema. He tells his mother that his urine is very foamy when he urinates and that he feels “awful.” He is seen by his pediatrician, and urinalysis is performed with the following results:
Physical Appearance
* Color: Pale
* Transparency: Cloudy
* Foam: Abundant white foam
Chemical Screening
* pH: 6.0
* Specific gravity: 1.010
* Protein (reagent strip): >2000 mg/dL
* Protein (SSA): 4+
* Blood: Trace
* Nitrite: Negative
* Leukocyte esterase: Negative
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Negative
* Bilirubin: Negative
* Urobilinogen: Negative
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* White blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
Casts:
* 5-10 fatty casts per lpf
* 2-5 hyaline casts per lpf
* Epithelial cells: Few renal epithelial cells; many oval fat bodies present
* Other: Moderate free fat globules seen
- The edema seen in this patient is caused by the presence of which of the following?
A. Blood
B. Casts
C. Oval fat bodies
D. Protein
D. Protein
CASE STUDY
A 12-year-old boy has a history of several infections in the past few months. He is now very lethargic and swollen, with generalized edema. He tells his mother that his urine is very foamy when he urinates and that he feels “awful.” He is seen by his pediatrician, and urinalysis is performed with the following results:
Physical Appearance
* Color: Pale
* Transparency: Cloudy
* Foam: Abundant white foam
Chemical Screening
* pH: 6.0
* Specific gravity: 1.010
* Protein (reagent strip): >2000 mg/dL
* Protein (SSA): 4+
* Blood: Trace
* Nitrite: Negative
* Leukocyte esterase: Negative
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Negative
* Bilirubin: Negative
* Urobilinogen: Negative
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* White blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
Casts:
* 5-10 fatty casts per lpf
* 2-5 hyaline casts per lpf
* Epithelial cells: Few renal epithelial cells; many oval fat bodies present
* Other: Moderate free fat globules seen
- The presence of fatty casts, oval fat bodies, renal epithelial cells, and free fat in this case indicates which of the following?
A. A lower UTI
B. An allergic reaction
C. An upper UTI
D. Severe renal dysfunction, probably glomerular
D. Severe renal dysfunction, probably glomerular
CASE STUDY
A 12-year-old boy has a history of several infections in the past few months. He is now very lethargic and swollen, with generalized edema. He tells his mother that his urine is very foamy when he urinates and that he feels “awful.” He is seen by his pediatrician, and urinalysis is performed with the following results:
Physical Appearance
* Color: Pale
* Transparency: Cloudy
* Foam: Abundant white foam
Chemical Screening
* pH: 6.0
* Specific gravity: 1.010
* Protein (reagent strip): >2000 mg/dL
* Protein (SSA): 4+
* Blood: Trace
* Nitrite: Negative
* Leukocyte esterase: Negative
* Glucose: Negative
* Ketones: Negative
* Bilirubin: Negative
* Urobilinogen: Negative
Microscopic Examination
* Red blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
* White blood cells: 0-2 per hpf
Casts:
* 5-10 fatty casts per lpf
* 2-5 hyaline casts per lpf
* Epithelial cells: Few renal epithelial cells; many oval fat bodies present
* Other: Moderate free fat globules seen
- Which of the following conditions is exhibited by this patient?
A. Acute drug-induced interstitial nephritis
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Nephrotic syndrome
As a result of brittle consistency of the cast matrix, they often appear fragmented with jagged ends and have notches in their sides. With supravital stain, these casts stain a homogenous pink:
A. Hyaline cast
B. Cellular cast
C. Granular cast
D. Waxy cast
D. Waxy cast
A suspension of the test organism for use in broth dilution and disk diffusion testing is adjusted to match the turbidity of a:
A. #0.5 McFarland standard
B. #1.0 McFarland standard
C. #2.0 McFarland standard
D. #3.0 McFarland standard
A. #0.5 McFarland standard
McFarland turbidity standard is prepared by mixing _________ to obtain a solution with a specific optical density.
A. 1% hydrochloric acid and 1.175% barium chloride
B. 2% hydrochoric acid and 2.175% barium chloride
C. 1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride
D. 2% sulfuric acid and 2.175% barium chloride
C. 1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride
LILEY GRAPH: indicates NON-AFFECTED or MILDLY affected fetus:
A. Zone I
B. Zone II
C. Zone III
D. None of these
A. Zone I
LILEY GRAPH: indicates MODERATE hemolysis and require CAREFUL MONITORING anticipating an early delivery or exchange transfusion upon delivery: (requiring close monitoring)
A. Zone I
B. Zone II
C. Zone III
D. None of these
B. Zone II
LILEY GRAPH: indicates SEVERE HEMOLYSIS and suggests a severely affected fetus. INTERVENTION through induction of labor or intrauterine exchange transfusion must be considered
A. Zone I
B. Zone II
C. Zone III
D. None of these
C. Zone III
AMNIOTIC FLUID BILIRUBIN
Max absorbance of bilirubin and oxyhemoglobin (interference).
A. Bilirubin 450 nm, oxyhemoglobin 540 nm
B. Bilirubin 540 nm, oxyhemoglobin 450 nm
C. Bilirubin 450 nm, oxyhemoglobin 410 nm
D. Bilirubin 410 nm, oxyhemoglobin 450 nm
C. Bilirubin 450 nm, oxyhemoglobin 410 nm
Responsible for the amniotic fluid increase in absorbance at 650 nm:
A. Lecithin
B. Oxyhemoglobin
C. Bilirubin
D. Lamellar bodies
D. Lamellar bodies
A light yellow colony from a skin lesion grew aerobically and tested as catalase positive and coagulase negative. The organism gram stained as positive cocci in clusters. The organism was modified oxidase positive, bacitracin susceptible and resistant to lysostaphin. What is the identification of this organism?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Micrococcus luteus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
B. Micrococcus luteus
An aspirate of a deep wound was plated on blood agar plates and incubated aerobically and anaerobically. At 24 hours there was growth on both plates. This indicates that the organism is a/an:
A. Nonfermenter
B. Obligate anaerobe
C. Aerobe
D. Facultative anaerobe
D. Facultative anaerobe
Fluid from the prostate gland, contains all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Acid phosphatase
B. Acetic acid
C. Citric acid
D. Zinc
B. Acetic acid
Patients should avoid banana, pineapples and tomatoes when testing for:
A. 5-HIAA
B. Mucopolysaccharides
C. Phenylalanine
D. Melanin
A. 5-HIAA
Which autoantibodies are strongly associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s granulomatosis)?
A. ANA
B. ANCA
C. AMA
D. SMA
B. ANCA
Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody is seen with:
A. Wegener granulomatosis
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Goodpasture syndrome
D. Diabetic nephropathy
C. Goodpasture syndrome
A complete deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase results in which disease?
A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
B. Modification of diet in renal disease
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Reye’s syndrome
E. Megaloblastic anemia
A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Mucopolysaccharidoses, EXCEPT:
A. Hunter syndrome
B. Hurler syndrome
C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
D. Sanfilippo syndrome
C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Neutrophils lyse rapidly in:
A. Acetic acid
B. Ether
C. Dilute acid urine
D. Dilute alkaline urine
D. Dilute alkaline urine
When diluting a synovial fluid WBC count, all of the following are acceptable EXCEPT:
A. Acetic acid
B. Isotonic saline
C. Hypotonic saline
D. Saline with saponin
A. Acetic acid
Serous fluid for pH determination:
A. Must be maintained at room temperature
B. Must be maintained at body temperature, 37C
C. Maintained aerobically in ice
D. Maintained anaerobically in ice
D. Maintained anaerobically in ice
A maximum of ___ mL of amniotic fluid is collected in sterile syringes.
A. 10 mL
B. 20 mL
C. 30 mL
D. 50 mL
C. 30 mL
Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as TRISOMY 21 (DOWN SYNDROME), amniocentesis may be indicated at:
A. 1 to 7 weeks gestation
B. 7 to 14 weeks gestation
C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation
D. 20 to 42 weeks gestation
C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation
Bacterial, viral, and protozoan infections produce increased secretion of water and electrolytes, which override the reabsorptive ability of the large intestine, leading to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these
B. Secretory diarrhea
Secretory diarrhea is caused by:
A. Antibiotic administration
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Celiac sprue
D. Vibrio cholerae
D. Vibrio cholerae
Maldigestion (impaired food digestion) and malabsorption (impaired nutrient absorption by the intestine) contribute to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these
A. Osmotic diarrhea
Stool specimens that appear ribbon-like are indicative of which condition?
A. Bile-duct obstruction
B. Colitis
C. Intestinal constriction
D. Malignancy
C. Intestinal constriction
Appearance of stool in pancreatic disorders:
A. Ribbon-like
B. Bulky/frothy
C. Pale, gray
D. Blood-streaked
B. Bulky/frothy
No clearing of gelatin in the x-ray film test, indicates lack of which enzyme?
A. Gastrin
B. Trypsin
C. Pepsin
D. Elastase
B. Trypsin
The normal brown color of the feces is produced by:
A. Cellulose
B. Pancreatic enzymes
C. Undigested foodstuffs
D. Urobilin
D. Urobilin
The normal composition of feces includes all of the following except:
A. Bacteria
B. Blood
C. Electrolytes
D. Water
B. Blood
Genetic disorder showing lamellated and THINNING glomerular basement membrane:
A. Alport syndrome
B. Membranous glomerulonephritis
C. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
D. Minimal change disease
A. Alport syndrome
Portion of the amniotic fluid arises from all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Fetal urine
B. Fetal respiratory tract
C. Amniotic membrane
D. Umbilical cord
E. Bone marrow
E. Bone marrow
In the foam or shake test, amniotic fluid is mixed with:
A. 1% NaOH
B. 3% acetic acid
C. 70% ethanol
D. 95% ethanol
D. 95% ethanol
SITUATION: A urine sample is received in the laboratory with the appropriate custody control form, and a request for drug of abuse screening. Which test result would be cause for REJECTING the sample?
A. Temperature after collection 95°F
B. pH 5.0
C. Specific gravity 1.005
D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL
D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL
When testing for drugs of abuse in urine, which of the following test results indicate dilution and would be cause for REJECTING the sample?
A. Temperature upon sample submission 92°F
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL
C. pH 5.8; temperature 94°F
D. Specific gravity 1.012, creatinine 25 mg/dL
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL
Which substance has the longest detection time?
A. Amphetamines
B. Cocaine
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Marijuana
D. Marijuana
Reagent for the APT’s test:
A. Guaiac
B. 1% sodium hydroxide
C. 95% ethanol
D. 10% eosin
B. 1% sodium hydroxide
Fetal hemoglobin (Hb F) in Apt’s test
A. Pink solution
B. Pink precipitate
C. Yellow-brown supernatant
D. Yellow-brown precipitate
A. Pink solution
Adult hemoglobin (Hb A) in Apt’s test
A. Pink solution
B. Pink precipitate
C. Yellow-brown supernatant
D. Yellow-brown precipitate
C. Yellow-brown supernatant
Number of orange-red fat droplets in direct fat stain indicative of steatorrhea:
A. Greater than 10/hpf
B. Greater than 50/hpf
C. Greater than 60/hpf
D. Greater than 100/hpf
C. Greater than 60/hpf
The amount of amniotic fluid increases in quantity throughout pregnancy, reaching a peak of approximately ____ mL during the third trimester, and then gradually decreases prior to delivery.
A. 400 to 800 mL
B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL
C. 1,200 to 1,500 mL
D. 2,000 to 4, 000 mL
B. 800 mL to 1,200 mL
Watery seminal fluid; grading for its viscosity:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
A. 0
Which carbohydrate measurement is clinically useful when performing a seminal fluid analysis?
A. Glucose
B. Galactose
C. Fructose
D. Maltose
C. Fructose
Semen collection:
A. First portion of the ejaculate
B. Middle portion of the ejaculate
C. Third portion of the ejaculate
D. Complete ejaculate
D. Complete ejaculate
For sperm concentration, both sides of the hemocytometer are loaded and allowed to settle for 3 to 5 minutes; then they are counted, and the counts should agree within ___%.
A. Agree within 10%
B. Agree within 15%
C. Agree within 20%
D. Agree within 25%
A. Agree within 10%
Casts increased in CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE:
A. Hyaline casts
B. Granular casts
C. WBC casts
D. RBC casts
A. Hyaline casts
Which of the following bacteria is able to hydrolyze urea via urease production, which results in an increase in urine pH that is toxic to kidney cells and stimulates the formation of kidney stones?
A. E. coli
B. Proteus
C. S. aureus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Proteus
A culture of a decubitus ulcer grew a gram-negative facultative bacillus. On TSI it produced an acid slant, acid butt, and gas. Test reactions in other media were as follows:
* Citrate: negative
* Indole: positive
* Urease: negative
* ONPG: positive
* Voges-Proskauer: negative
The organism was identified as
A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Citrobacter (diversus) koseri
D. Providencia stuartii
B. Escherichia coli
During the summer break, several middle-aged elementary school teachers from the same school district attended a 3-day seminar in Chicago. Upon returning home, three female teachers from the group were hospitalized with pneumonia, flulike symptoms, and a nonproductive cough. Routine testing of sputum samples revealed normal flora. Further testing using buffered CYE agar with L-cysteine and α-ketoglutarate in 5% CO2 produced growth of opaque colonies that stained faintly, showing thin gram-negative rods. What is the most likely identification?
A. Legionella pneumophila
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Eikenella corrodens
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A. Legionella pneumophila
A gram-positive bacillus was isolated from a wound specimen and had the following characteristics: double zone of β hemolysis, lecithinase positive, lipase negative, spot indole negative. What is the most likely identification of this organism?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostridium ramosum
C. Clostridium septicum
D. Clostridium tetani
A. Clostridium perfringens
An HIV-positive patient with a viral load of 100,000 copies/mL of HIV RNA and a drop in his CD4 T-cell count from 240 to 50/μL has been diagnosed with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Which of the following is the best description of the stage of this patient’s HIV disease?
A. HIV infection, stage 1
B. HIV infection, stage 2
C. HIV infection, stage 3 (AIDS)
D. HIV infection, stage unknown
C. HIV infection, stage 3 (AIDS)
HEPA filter removes most particles larger than __ μm in diameter.
A. 0.01 µm
B. 0.03 µm
C. 0.1 µm
D. 0.3 µm
D. 0.3 µm
Transcription is:
A. Producing DNA from DNA
B. Producing proteins from RNA
C. Creating chromosomes from DNA and histone proteins
D. Producing RNA from DNA
D. Producing RNA from DNA
Nonspecific immunity includes all of the following except:
A. Inflammation
B. Phagocytosis by neutrophils
C. B-cell activation to produce antibodies
D. Resident normal flora
C. B-cell activation to produce antibodies
All of the following are differential media except:
A. Blood agar
B. Chocolate agar
C. MacConkey’s agar
D. Eosin methylene blue agar
B. Chocolate agar
What is the stain that binds to the nucleic acid of organisms but does not discriminate between gram-positive or gram-negative organisms called?
A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
B. Auramine-rhodamine stain
C. Gram stain
D. Acridine orange stain
D. Acridine orange stain
What step in the Gram stain distinguishes between gram-positive and gram-negative organisms?
A. Fixing of the cells to the slide using heat or methanol
B. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone
C. Counterstain of the Gram stain using safranin
D. Application of the mordant, Gram’s iodine
B. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone
Dark-field microscopy is used for the microscopic examination of what types of bacteria?
A. Gram-positive cocci such as Staphylococcus aureus
B. Yeast such as Candida tropicalis
C. Gram-negative bacilli such as Escherichia coli
D. Spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum
D. Spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum
Which type of enrichment media is used to isolate Neisseria and Haemophilus organisms?
A. Hektoen enteric (HE) agar
B. Todd Hewitt broth
C. Regan Lowe agar
D. Chocolate agar
D. Chocolate agar
What substance added to the antigen in the RPR test allows for more macroscopically visible flocculation?
A. Latex particles
B. Extracellular antigens
C. Heparin-magnesium chloride particles
D. Charcoal particles
D. Charcoal particles
The two cations known to influence the activity of aminoglycosides are:
A. Sodium and potassium
B. Calcium and potassium
C. Calcium and magnesium
D. Sodium and magnesium
C. Calcium and magnesium
The mechanism of action for tetracycline is inhibition of:
A. RNA synthesis
B. Cell wall synthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. Membrane function
C. Protein synthesis
Which of these antimicrobial agents inhibits DNA synthesis?
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Beta-lactam agents
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Glycopeptides
A. Fluoroquinolones
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is detected using agar containing:
A. Penicillin and sodium chloride
B. Ampicillin and magnesium chloride
C. Nafcillin and magnesium chloride
D. Oxacillin and sodium chloride
D. Oxacillin and sodium chloride
The MRSA Screen agar uses oxacillin and promotes the growth of the resistant population by the addition of 2% to 4% NaCl. This medium is then incubated at 35°C for a full 24 hours in order to determine the oxacillin-resistance pattern.
A chromogenic cephalosporin is used to detect resistance to:
A. Macrolides
B. Aminoglycosides
C. β-lactams
D. Tetracyclines
C. β-lactams
All of the following media used for the cultivation of Micrococcaceae are selective except:
A. 5% sheep blood agar
B. Phenyl-ethyl alcohol agar
C. Mannitol salt agar
D. Colistin nalidixic acid agar
A. 5% sheep blood agar
Necrotizing fasciitis is a serious infection associated with:
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus mitis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
When streaking a throat culture on 5% sheep blood agar, stabbing the agar plate provides enhanced detection for:
A. Bile solubility
B. Bile esculin hydrolysis
C. DNase activity
D. Streptolysin O
E. Streptolysin S
D. Streptolysin O
Which organism produces the CAMP factor enhancing beta hemolysis in the presence of the S. aureus beta lysin?
A. Group A streptococci
B. Group B streptococci
C. Group C streptococci
D. Group D streptococci
B. Group B streptococci
Optochin sensitivity is used to differentiate:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci
B. Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus agalactiae from Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Enterococci from non–group D enterococci
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci
Which organism is able to hydrolyze esculin and is a serious nosocomial pathogen?
A. S. bovis
B. S. mitis
C. E. faecalis
D. S. pneumoniae
C. E. faecalis
Note:
Enterococci are one of the most feared nosocomial pathogens isolated from the urinary tract, peritoneum, heart tissue, bacteremia, endocarditis, and intra-abdominal infections.
Pulmonary anthrax is also known as:
A. Black eschar
B. Woolsorters’ disease
C. Legionnaires’ disease
D. Plague
B. Woolsorters’ disease
A large, aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rod is isolated from ablood culture. It can be further confirmed as B. anthracis if it is:
A. Hemolytic and motile
B. Hemolytic and nonmotile
C. Nonhemolytic and motile
D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile
D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile
The virulence factor associated with B. cereus is:
A. Edema toxin
B. Lethal toxin
C. Protective antigen
D. Enterotoxin
D. Enterotoxin
Note:
B. cereus produces several toxins implicated in the diarrheal symptoms, including hemolysin BL (Hbl), nonhemolytic enterotoxin (Nhe), and cytotoxin K (CytK). The three toxins are believed to act synergistically, with Nhe responsible for the major symptoms in the diarrheal presentation of the infection.
It is a serious pathogen of the eye, causing progressive endophthalmitis:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Bacillus thurigiensis
B. Bacillus cereus
A large, aerobic, beta-hemolytic, gram-positive rod is isolated from an eye culture. Subsequent testing reveals it is motile and produces a wide zone on egg yolk agar. The most likely identification of this organism is:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Clostridium perfringens
C. Bacillus cereus
The most appropriate therapy for inhalation anthrax is:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Tetracycline
C. Vancomycin
D. Erythromycin
A. Ciprofloxacin
All of the following can be used to detect toxin from C. diphtheriae except:
A. Guinea pig lethality test
B. Elek test
C. Modified Tinsdale
D. PCR
C. Modified Tinsdale
Which organism exhibits end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours
A. C. diphtheriae
B. C. jeikeium
C. Arthrobacter sp.
D. L. monocytogenes
D. L. monocytogenes
Pregnant women and immunocompromised patients should avoid eating which of the following foods to prevent Listeria infection
A. Feta cheese
B. Peanuts
C. Pickles
D. Ice cream
A. Feta cheese
Which of the following is the only catalase-negative, gram-positive, non-spore-forming rod that produces H2S on TSI?
A. Gardnerella sp.
B. Erysipelothrix sp.
C. Lactobacillus sp.
D. Arcanobacterium sp.
B. Erysipelothrix sp.
Which of the following organisms has multiple colonial morphologies and may have alpha-hemolytic colonies resembling streptococci?
A. Lactobacillus sp.
B. Gardnerella sp.
C. Arcanobacterium sp.
D. Bifidobacterium sp.
A. Lactobacillus sp.
Note:
Lactobacillus - RESEMBLES ALPHA HEMOLYTIC STREP.
Arcanobacterium - RESEMBLES BETA HEMOLYTIC STREP.
Which organisms may stain partially acid-fast when stained with a modified acid-fast stain?
A. Gordonia sp.
B. Rhodococcus sp.
C. Nocardia sp.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Note:
If the modified acid-fast stain results are positive, the isolate is a probable partially acid-fast aerobic actinomycete (i.e., Nocardia, Rhodococcus, Tsukamurella, or Gordonia sp).
Which actinomycete is partial acid-fast, has extensive aerial hyphae, and is lysozyme resistant?
A. Nocardia sp.
B. Rhodococcus sp.
C. Gordonia sp.
D. Tsukamurella sp.
A. Nocardia sp.
Which organism is most commonly associated with human disease, particularly in immunocompromised patients, such as those infected with HIV?
A. Nocardia asteroides
B. Rhodococcus equi
C. Gordonia sp.
D. Tsukamurella sp.
B. Rhodococcus equi
Note:
To date, Rhodococcus equi has been the organism most commonly associated with human disease, particularly in immunocompromised patients, such as those infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Enterobacteriaceae are typically gram negative and:
A. Non–glucose fermenters
B. Capable of reducing nitrates to nitrites
C. Catalase negative
D. Oxidase positive
B. Capable of reducing nitrates to nitrites
Incubation of which organism at 25°C produces a characteristic yellow pigment?
A. Cronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii
B. Plesiomonas shigelloides
C. Enterobacter aerogenes
D. Hafnia alvei
A. Cronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii
A patient presents to the physician with pain and frequency of urination. The urine culture reveals a non–lactose fermenting, gram-negative rod with characteristic swarming on blood agar. The biochemical test that would specifically distinguish this organism from other Enterobacteriaceae is:
A. Lactose fermentation
B. Oxidase
C. Phenylalanine deaminase and H2S
D. Triple sugar iron agar
C. Phenylalanine deaminase and H2S
