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02LMR_RANDOM DECKS > PEANUT 1 > Flashcards

PEANUT 1 Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following inhibit growth hormone secretion, except:
A. Glucose loading
B. Insulin, nutritional deficiencies
C. Thyroxine deficiency
D. Amino acids, sleep, exercise

A

D. Amino acids, sleep, exercise

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2
Q

Mega:
A. 10^3
B. 10^-3
C. 10^6
D. 10^-6

A

C. 10^6

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3
Q

Micro:
A. 10^3
B. 10^-3
C. 10^6
D. 10^-6

A

D. 10^-6

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4
Q

1:3S

  1. One observation exceeds 3 SD from the target value
  2. Three observations exceed 1 SD from the target value
  3. Imprecision or systematic bias
  4. Not recommended

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4

A

A. 1 and 3

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5
Q

8:1S

  1. Range between two observations exceeds 4 SD
  2. Eight sequential observations for the same QC sample exceed 1 SD
  3. Imprecision
  4. Bias trend

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4

A

B. 2 and 4

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6
Q

Basic unit for mass:
A. Mole
B. Milligram
C. Gram
D. Kilogram

A

D. Kilogram

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7
Q

Basic unit for length:
A. Second
B. Millimeter
C. Meter
D. Kilometer

A

C. Meter

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8
Q

Overall capacity to transport bile:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum ALP
D. Serum bile acids

A

A. Serum bilirubin level

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9
Q

Overall patency of the biliary ducts:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum ALP
D. Serum bile acids

A

D. Serum bile acids

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10
Q

Capacity to conjugate bilirubin and secrete bile:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum ALP
D. Serum bile acids

A

A. Serum bilirubin level

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11
Q

Capacity to conjugate bilirubin; quantity of hemoglobin turnover:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum ALP
D. Serum bile acids

A

B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin

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12
Q

Patency of the biliary ducts, hepatocellular metabolism of bilirubin:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum ALP
D. Serum bile acids

A

B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin

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13
Q

Abnormality of bile duct epithelium:
A. Serum bilirubin level
B. Ratio of direct and total bilirubin
C. Serum ALP
D. Serum bile acids

A

C. Serum ALP

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14
Q

Hepatocellular damage and necrosis:
A. Serum albumin
B. Serum ALP
C. Serum aminotransferase levels
D. Blood ammonia

A

C. Serum aminotransferase levels

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15
Q

Capacity to synthesize protein:
A. Serum albumin
B. Blood ammonia
C. Blood urea
D. Serum bile acids

A

A. Serum albumin

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16
Q

Lipemic or icteric specimen for coagulation studies:
A. Use an optical instrument
B. Use a mechanical instrument
C. Both of these
D. None of these

A

B. Use a mechanical instrument

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17
Q

Effect of prolonged tourniquet application to concentration of vWF and Factor VIII:
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Variable
D. Undetermined

A

A. Increased

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18
Q

Hemoglobinopathies due to ABNORMAL MOLECULAR STRUCTURE:

  1. Sickle cell anemia
  2. Sickle cell trait
  3. HbC disease or trait
  4. Alpha thalassemia

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

C. 1, 2 and 3

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19
Q

Hemoglobinopathies due to ABNORMAL RATE OF SYNTHESIS:

  1. Alpha thalassemia
  2. Sickle cell anemia
  3. Beta thalassemia
  4. Sickle cell trait

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

A. 1 and 3

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20
Q

Which of the following statistical terms reflects the best index of precision when comparing two CBC parameters?
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Coefficient of variation
D. Standard deviation

A

C. Coefficient of variation

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21
Q

Most commonly encountered autoimmune hemolytic anemia:
A. Drug-induced AIHA
B. Cold AIHA
C. Warm AIHA
D. Mixed-type AIHA

A

C. Warm AIHA

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22
Q

OSMOTIC FRAGILITY TEST: SANFORD METHOD

Normal RBCs, INITIAL hemolysis occurs in which tube:
A. Tube 1
B. Tube 17
C. Tube 22
D. Tube 25

A

C. Tube 22

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23
Q

OSMOTIC FRAGILITY TEST: SANFORD METHOD

Normal RBCs, COMPLETE hemolysis occurs in which tube:
A. Tube 1
B. Tube 17
C. Tube 22
D. Tube 25

A

B. Tube 17

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24
Q

Which of the following is contained in the primary granules of the neutrophil?
A. Lactoferrin
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Histamine
D. Alkaline phosphatase

A

B. Myeloperoxidase

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25
Q

What reagents are used in the PT test?
A. Thromboplastin and sodium chloride
B. Thromboplastin and potassium chloride
C. Thromboplastin and calcium
D. Actin and calcium chloride

A

C. Thromboplastin and calcium

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26
Q

A modification of which procedure can be used to measure fibrinogen?
A. PT
B. APTT
C. Thrombin time
D. Fibrin degradation products

A

C. Thrombin time

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27
Q

Which test result would be normal in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia?
A. Thrombin time
B. APTT
C. PT
D. Immunologic fibrinogen level

A

D. Immunologic fibrinogen level

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28
Q

Factor XII deficiency is associated with:
A. Bleeding episodes
B. Epistaxis
C. Decreased risk of thrombosis
D. Increased risk of thrombosis

A

D. Increased risk of thrombosis

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29
Q

The most common subtype of classic von Willebrand’s disease is:
A. Type 1
B. Type 2A
C. Type 2B
D. Type 3

A

A. Type 1

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30
Q

The clot-based method of Clauss, a modification of the TCT, is the recommended procedure for estimating the functional fibrinogen level.
The operator adds reagent bovine THROMBIN to dilute PPP, catalyzing the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin polymer.
In the fibrinogen assay, the thrombin reagent concentration is 50 NIH units/mL.
The PPP to be tested is diluted _____ with Owren buffer.
A. 1:2
B. 1:5
C. 1:10
D. 1:100

A

C. 1:10

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31
Q

What clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S?
A. V and X
B. Va and VIIIa
C. VIII and IX
D. VIII and X

A

B. Va and VIIIa

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32
Q

Which of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in patients taking aspirin?
A. Platelet morphology
B. Platelet count
C. Bleeding time
D. Prothrombin time

A

C. Bleeding time

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33
Q

The Bethesda assay is used for which determination?
A. Lupus anticoagulant titer
B. Factor VIII inhibitor titer
C. Factor V Leiden titer
D. Protein S deficiency

A

B. Factor VIII inhibitor titer

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34
Q

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) results from:
A. Antibodies to heparin
B. Antibodies to platelets
C. Antibodies to PF4
D. Antibodies to heparin-PF4 complex

A

D. Antibodies to heparin-PF4 complex

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35
Q

A plasma sample submitted to the lab for PT testing has been stored for 25 hours at 4°C. The PT result is shortened. What is the most probable cause?
A. Factor VII deficiency
B. Activation of factor VII due to exposure to cold temperature
C. Lupus inhibitor
D. Factor X inhibitor

A

B. Activation of factor VII due to exposure to cold temperature

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36
Q

The four essential functions of a manager are:
A. Staffing, decision making, cost analysis, evaluating
B. Directing, leading, forecasting, implementing
C. Planning, organizing, directing, controlling
D. Innovating, designing, coordinating, problemsolving

A

C. Planning, organizing, directing, controlling

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37
Q

Which order of events should be followed at the conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens?
A. Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove lab coat
B. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands
C. Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat
D. Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat, disinfect area

A

B. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands

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38
Q

The material safety data sheets (MSDSs) for hazardous chemicals address which of the following conditions?
A. Physical characteristics of the chemical
B. Safe handling and storage of the chemical
C. Specific health hazards associated with the chemical
D. All of these options

A

D. All of these options

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39
Q

Which monochromator specification is required in order to measure the true absorbance of a compound having a natural absorption bandwidth of 30 nm?
A. 50-nm bandpass
B. 25-nm bandpass
C. 15-nm bandpass
D. 5-nm bandpass

A

D. 5-nm bandpass

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40
Q

A dialysis patient is positive for both hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis B surface antibody. The physician suspects a laboratory error. Do you agree?
A. Yes; the patient should not test positive for both HBsAg and HBsAb
B. No; incomplete dialysis of a patient in the core window phase of hepatitis B infection will yield this result
C. No; it is likely the patient has recently received a hepatitis B booster vaccination and could have these results
D. Perhaps; a new specimen should be submitted to clear up the confusion

A

C. No; it is likely the patient has recently received a hepatitis B booster vaccination and could have these results

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41
Q

An initial and repeat ELISA test for antibodies to HIV-1 are both positive. A Western blot shows a single band at gp160. The patient shows no clinical signs of HIV infection, and the patient’s CD4 T-cell count is normal. Based upon these results, which conclusion is correct?
A. Patient is diagnosed as HIV-1-positive
B. Patient is diagnosed as HIV-2-positive
C. Results are inconclusive
D. Patient is diagnosed as HIV-1-negative

A

C. Results are inconclusive

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42
Q

A transplant patient began to show signs of rejection 8 days after receipt of the transplanted organ, and the organ was removed. What immune elements might be found in the rejected organ?
A. Antibody and complement
B. Primarily antibody
C. Macrophages
D. T cells

A

D. T cells

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43
Q

From the following, identify a specific component of the adaptive immune system that is formed in response to antigenic stimulation:
A. Lysozyme
B. Complement
C. Commensal organisms
D. Immunoglobulin

A

D. Immunoglobulin

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44
Q

A wound (skin lesion) specimen obtained from a newborn grew predominantly β-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci on 5% sheep blood agar. The newborn infant was covered with small skin eruptions that gave the appearance of a “scalding of the skin.” The gram-positive cocci proved to be catalase positive. Which tests should follow for the appropriate identification?

A. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR
B. Coagulase, glucose fermentation, DNase
C. Bacitracin, PYR, 6.5% salt broth
D. CAMP, bile-esculin, 6.5% salt broth

A

B. Coagulase, glucose fermentation, DNase

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45
Q

An isolate recovered from a vaginal culture obtained from a 25-year-old female patient who is 8 months pregnant is shown to be a gram-positive cocci, catalase negative, and β-hemolytic on blood agar. Which tests are needed for further identification?

A. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR
B. Bacitracin, CAMP, PYR
C. Methicillin, PYR, trehalose
D. Coagulase, glucose, PYR

A

B. Bacitracin, CAMP, PYR

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46
Q

A gram-positive bacillus was isolated from a wound specimen and had the following characteristics: double zone of β hemolysis, lecithinase positive, lipase negative, spot indole negative. What is the most likely identification of this organism?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostridium ramosum
C. Clostridium septicum
D. Clostridium tetani

A

A. Clostridium perfringens

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47
Q

Microscopically, numerous smooth, thin-walled, club-shaped, multiseptate (2 to 4 μm) macroconidia are seen. They are rounded at the tip and are borne singly on a conidiophore or in groups of two or three. MICROCONIDIA ARE ABSENT, spiral hyphae are rare, and chlamydoconidia are usually numerous.
A. Epidermophyton floccosum
B. Microsporum canis
C. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
D. Trichophyton rubrum

A

A. Epidermophyton floccosum

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48
Q

Which is the most appropriate nonselective medium for recovery of mycobacteria from a heavily contaminated specimen?
A. Löwenstein–Jensen agar
B. Middlebrook 7H10 agar
C. Petragnani’s agar
D. American Thoracic Society medium

A

C. Petragnani’s agar

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49
Q

Acid-fast positive bacilli were recovered from the sputum of a 79-year-old man who had been treated for pneumonia. Which of the following test reactions after 3 weeks of incubation on Löwenstein–Jensen agar are consistent with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A. Niacin +, Nitrate reduction +, Photochromogen negative
B. Niacin negative, Optochin +, Catalase +
C. PYR +, Urease +, Bacitracin +
D. Ampicillin resistant, Penicillin resistant

A

A. Niacin +, Nitrate reduction +, Photochromogen negative

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50
Q

Which of the following has been recognized in postinfectious complications of a Campylobacter jejuni infection?
A. Guillain-Barré syndrome
B. Chronic pulmonary disease
C. Encephalitis
D. Endocarditis

A

A. Guillain-Barré syndrome

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51
Q

Valuable combination in therapy and follow-up in patients with germ cell tumors of the testes:
A. CEA and PSA
B. CEA and AFP
C. AFP and β-HCG
D. CEA and CA-125

A

C. AFP and β-HCG

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52
Q

Small protozoa that have been missed on wet mounts or concentration methods are often detected with:
A. India ink
B. Iodine
C. Giemsa stain
D. Trichrome stain

A

D. Trichrome stain

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53
Q

Demonstrates the largest platelets seen and is also referred to as giant platelet syndrome:
A. Alport syndrome
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

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54
Q

Characterized by the presence of large platelets and the presence of Döhle-like bodies in the granulocytic leukocytes:
A. Alport syndrome
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

C. May-Hegglin anomaly

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55
Q

Disorder that exhibits giant platelets and thrombocytopenia: TURGEON
A. Alport syndrome
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

A. Alport syndrome

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56
Q

Demonstrates the smallest platelets seen:
A. Alport syndrome
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

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57
Q

The morphological characteristic(s) associated with the Chédiak–Higashi syndrome is (are):
A. Pale blue cytoplasmic inclusions
B. Giant lysosomal granules
C. Small, dark-staining granules and condensed nuclei
D. Nuclear hyposegmentation

A

B. Giant lysosomal granules

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58
Q

In flow cytometry, the term “gating” refers to:
A. Selection of a subpopulation of cells to count
B. Determining the fluorescent emission spectrumof cells of interest
C. Interference caused by binding of more than asingle antibody
D. Selecting the appropriate counting aperture

A

A. Selection of a subpopulation of cells to count

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59
Q

The two species of flies responsible for the transmission are Glossina palpalis and Glossina tachinoides:
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania tropica
C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

A

C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

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60
Q

The two primary species of fly vectors responsible for transmitting are Glossina morsitans and Glossina pallidipes:
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania tropica
C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

A

D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

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61
Q

Noting the appearance of plasma or serum can give important preliminary findings about lipid levels in the blood when it is collected from a fasting patient. When the specimen appears opaque and milky (lipemic), what is the approximate expected level of triglycerides in the sample?
A. Within the normal range; test is unaffected by meals.
B. From 200 to 300 mg/dL.
C. Greater than 600 mg/dL.
D. No preliminary findings can be made from observation of the serum.

A

C. Greater than 600 mg/dL.

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62
Q

Which of the following best describes the chemical principle of the protein reagent strip?
A. Protein reacts with an immunocomplex on the pad
B. Protein causes a pH change on the reagent strip pad
C. Protein accepts hydrogen ions from an indicator dye
D. Protein causes protons to be released from apolyelectrolyte

A

C. Protein accepts hydrogen ions from an indicator dye

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63
Q

Glucosuria not accompanied by hyperglycemia can be seen with which of the following?
A. Hormonal disorders
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Renal disease

A

D. Renal disease

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64
Q

The presence of dysmorphic red blood cells in the urine sediment is indicative of which of the following?
A. A coagulation disorder
B. Menstrual contamination
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Glomerular bleeding

A

D. Glomerular bleeding

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65
Q

Urinary casts are formed in which of the following?
A. Distal tubules and collecting ducts
B. Distal tubules and loops of Henle
C. Proximal and distal tubules
D. Proximal tubules and loops of Henle

A

A. Distal tubules and collecting ducts

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66
Q

A pale, frothy stool is indicative of which of the following?
A. Barium testing
B. Osmotic diarrhea
C. Steatorrhea
D. Excess carbohydrates

A

C. Steatorrhea

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67
Q

Stool specimens that appear ribbon-like are indicative of which condition?
A. Bile-duct obstruction
B. Colitis
C. Intestinal constriction
D. Malignancy

A

C. Intestinal constriction

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68
Q

In severe infections, yeasts may appear as:
A. Cocci-shaped
B. Small, refractile oval structures that may or may not contain a bud
C. Branched, mycelial forms
D. Pear-shaped flagellate with an undulating membrane

A

C. Branched, mycelial forms

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69
Q

Highly refractile spheres, usually with a dimpled center:
A. Hair fibers
B. Oil droplets
C. Pollen grains
D. Starch granules

A

D. Starch granules

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70
Q

GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing hemoglobin degradation products are associated with:
A. Cystitis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute interstitial nephritis
D. Acute tubular necrosis

A

D. Acute tubular necrosis

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71
Q

Differentiation of WBC cast and epithelial cast:
A. Solubility in dilute HCl
B. Solubility at 60C
C. Supravital staining
D. Staining with Prussian blue

A

C. Supravital staining

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72
Q

IQ 200 system uses Auto Particle Recognition (APR) software that preclassifies urine particles in the photographs based on size, shape, texture and contrast into ____ categories.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

A

C. 12

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73
Q

Bonding of antigen to antibody exists exclusively as:
A. Hydrogen bonding
B. Van der Waals forces
C. Electrostatic forces
D. Noncovalent bonding

A

D. Noncovalent bonding

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74
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)?
A. Semiconductor nanocrystals
B. Method of tagging antibodies with super paramagnetic particles
C. Technology based on two different 200-nm latex particles
D. Molecular cytogenetic technique

A

D. Molecular cytogenetic technique

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75
Q

Patient’s with Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia exhibit abnormally large amounts of:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgA

A

A. IgM

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76
Q

Ten percent (10%) formalin is equivalent to what % paraformaldehyde?
A. 37%-40%
B. 10%
C. 4%
D. 1%

A

C. 4%

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77
Q

For good fixation it is recommended that the tissue be no larger than:
A. 2 cm square and 1-2 mm thick
B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick
C. 3 cm square and 1-2 mm thick
D. 3 cm square and 3-4 mm thick

A

B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick

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78
Q

10% formalin contains approximately what percentage of formaldehyde?
A. 4
B. 10
C. 37
D. 100

A

A. 4

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79
Q

A universal fixative used for routine purposes and which allows a broad spectrum of staining procedures is:
A. Zenker fluid
B. Zamboni PAF
C. 10% neutral buffered formalin
D. Carnoy solution

A

C. 10% neutral buffered formalin

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80
Q

A microwave oven can be used for fixation because it:
A. Causes cross-linking of proteins
B. Induces physical fixation
C. Increases tissue basophilia
D. Inactivates enzymes with beta-radiation

A

B. Induces physical fixation

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81
Q

Tissue sections were stained for the recommended time with an H & E procedure using Harris hematoxylin. A quality control check shows pale nuclear staining. A likely cause of this could be:
A. Too much alum mordant in the stock hematoxylin solution
B. Insufficient time in the acid differentiator
C. Too much time in the acid differentiator
D. Prolonged dehydration and clearing

A

C. Too much time in the acid differentiator

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82
Q

The connective tissue cells actively involved in wound healing are:
A. Plasma cells
B. Mast cells
C. Macrophages
D. Fibroblasts

A

D. Fibroblasts

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83
Q

The pigment commonly known as “wear and tear pigment” or “brown atrophy” is:
A. Hemofuscin
B. Ceroid
C. Lipofuscin
D. Hemosiderin

A

C. Lipofuscin

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84
Q

The staining method considered to be most sensitive and specific for copper is the:
A. Chloranilic acid
B. Rhodanine
C. Orcein
D. Aldehyde fuchsin

A

B. Rhodanine

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85
Q

Antibody molecules can belong to one of five immunoglobulin classes. The antibody class most frequently used in immunofluorescent and immunoenzyme staining is:
A. IgM
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgA

A

C. IgG

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86
Q

In immunoperoxidase staining of formalin-fixed tissue, enzyme pretreatment of antigens:
A. Enhances background staining
B. Reactivates antigens and enhances primary staining
C. Is needed to demonstrate all antigens
D. Has precise end-points

A

B. Reactivates antigens and enhances primary staining

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87
Q

A pathologic condition characterized by abnormal deposits of iron in the liver is called:
A. Hemachrosis
B. Hemochromatosis
C. Hemadostenosis
D. Hematotoxicosis

A

B. Hemochromatosis

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88
Q

A “Maltese cross” configuration is produced in tissue by polarization of:
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Uric acid
C. Talcum powder
D. Lipofuscin

A

C. Talcum powder

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89
Q

To prepare a 10% solution of formalin, which of the following amounts of water should be added to 100 mL of stock formaldehyde:
A. 1,000 mL
B. 900 mL
C. 450 mL
D. 10 mL

A

B. 900 mL

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90
Q

When the magnification can be changed without the need to refocus, the microscope objectives are said to be:
A. Parfocal
B. Binocular
C. Achromatic
D. Apochromatic

A

A. Parfocal

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91
Q

When performing immunohistochemistry (IHC), it is important to use which reagent, so that you can see where the staining from the antibody is in relation to the cellular structures within the tissue.
A. Absolute alcohol
B. Methanol
C. Primary stain
D. Counterstain

A

D. Counterstain

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92
Q

All of the following are immunologic functions of complement except:
A. Induction of an antiviral state
B. Opsonization
C. Chemotaxis
D. Anaphylatoxin formation

A

A. Induction of an antiviral state

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93
Q

Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate latent or tertiary syphilis?
A. Serum sample
B. Chancre fluid
C. CSF
D. Joint fluid

A

C. CSF

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94
Q

Which tests are considered screening tests for HIV?
A. ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests
B. Immunofluorescence, Western blot, radioimmuno-precipitation assay
C. Culture, antigen capture assay, DNA amplification
D. Reverse transcriptase and messenger RNA(mRNA)

A

A. ELISA, 4th generation, and rapid antibody tests

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95
Q

Which tests are considered confirmatory tests for HIV
A. ELISA and rapid antibody tests
B. Western blot test, HIV-1,2 differentiation assays, and polymerase chain reaction
C. Culture, antigen capture assay, polymerase chain reaction
D. Reverse transcriptase and mRNA assay

A

B. Western blot test, HIV-1,2 differentiation assays, and polymerase chain reaction

96
Q

Biochemical abnormalities characteristic of polycythemia vera include:
A. Increased serum B12 binding capacity
B. Hypohistaminemia
C. Hypouricemia
D. Decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity

A

A. Increased serum B12 binding capacity

97
Q

What is the number of bacteria needed to cause turbidity in broth culture and to be seen with an unaided eye?
A. 10^2 organisms
B. 10^4 organisms
C. 10^6 organisms
D. 10^8 organisms

A

C. 10^6 organisms

98
Q

When examining fluids by direct microscopic examination, if one organism is seen per oil immersion field, how many organisms per milliliter of specimen are present?
A. 5^5
B. 7^5
C. 15^5
D. 10^5

A

D. 10^5

99
Q

In addition to chromosomal DNA, genes encoded in extrachromosomal genetic elements, such as PLASMIDS and TRANSPOSONS, may be transferred by:
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation

A

C. Conjugation

100
Q

Recipient CELL UPTAKE OF NAKED (FREE) DNA released into the environment when another bacterial cell (i.e., donor) dies and undergoes lysis:
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation

A

A. Transformation

101
Q

The process is mediated through viruses capable of infecting bacteria (BACTERIOPHAGES):
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation

A

B. Transduction

102
Q

Hypochlorite and hydroxyl ions damage _______ irreversibly, occur in the oxygen-dependent phase of phagocytosis.
A. DNA
B. Carbohydrate
C. Lipid
D. Protein

A

D. Protein

103
Q

What is the confirmatory method for measuring drugs of abuse?
A. HPLC
B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique(EMIT)
C. Gas chromatography with mass spectroscopy(GC-MS)
D. TLC

A

C. Gas chromatography with mass spectroscopy(GC-MS)

104
Q

Stains used for evaluation of sperm morphology, EXCEPT:
A. Pap’s stain
B. Wright’s
C. Giemsa
D. Shorr
E. Eosin-nigrosin

A

E. Eosin-nigrosin

105
Q

Which of the following would not be a typical analyte in a clinical chemistry test?
A. Calcium
B. Protein
C. Octane
D. Cocaine

A

C. Octane

106
Q

How should a laboratory verify the reference range it uses for a particular test?
A. Call another laboratory
B. Use the numbers from a textbook
C. Test samples from healthy people
D. Look on a medical internet site

A

C. Test samples from healthy people

107
Q

Typically, a patient test result that exceeds 3 SD of the mean value for analyte is found with a frequency of:
A. 1 in 5
B. 1 in 20
C. 1 in 100
D. Never

A

C. 1 in 100

108
Q

Potentiometric methods are most useful for which of the following types of analytes?
A. Proteins
B. Electrolytes
C. Drugs of Abuse
D. Lipids

A

B. Electrolytes

109
Q

Transferrin reacts with a specific antibody to produce immune complexes. What method would be most suitable to measure the concentration of transferrin?
A. Immunoturbidimetry
B. Fluorescence
C. Potentiometry
D. None of the above

A

A. Immunoturbidimetry

110
Q

Which of the following would not be a typical methodology for a clinical chemistry test?
A. Immunoturbidimetry
B. Microscopy
C. EMIT
D. ISE

A

B. Microscopy

111
Q

Which of the following sets of values for repeat analyses of a QC sample (target value of 50) reflects the best precision?
A. 50, 51, 52
B. 50, 52, 54
C. 48, 50, 52
D. 44, 50, 53

A

A. 50, 51, 52

112
Q

Which of the following is an example of a preanalytical error?
A. Test method incorrectly calibrated
B. Collection of blood in wrong kind of tube
C. Presence of interfering substance in specimen
D. Delay in sending the report to the provider

A

B. Collection of blood in wrong kind of tube

113
Q

Which type of analytical error can be prevented by a good quality control program?
A. Instrument not properly calibrated
B. Presence of interfering substances in sample
C. Presence of bubbles in the light path of a photometric method
D. Analyte concentration so high it depletes the active reagent

A

A. Instrument not properly calibrated

114
Q

The lipoprotein particle that is used to determine increased risk of coronary artery disease and to determine and monitor treatment for high cholesterol is:
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. VLDL
D. Chylomicrons

A

B. LDL

115
Q

When the kidneys are not functioning properly to filter blood and rid the body of wastes which of these test results would be most likely?
A. GFR = 100 mL/min
B. High blood creatinine
C. High blood albumin
D. Low blood BUN

A

B. High blood creatinine

116
Q

In which condition would TIBC be high?
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Chronic illness
C. Malnutrition
D. Iron deficiency

A

D. Iron deficiency

117
Q

If a screening TSH is high, which test is likely to be ordered next?
A. Cholesterol
B. Free T4
C. Ferritin
D. Glucose

A

B. Free T4

118
Q

Which of the following units would not be used for reporting glucose on a clinical chemistry laboratory report?
A. mg/dL
B. ounces/L
C. mmol/L
D. All are acceptable units

A

B. ounces/L

119
Q

What would be the value of 150 mg/dL glucose reported in SI units?
A. 1.61 mmol/L
B. 8.25 mmol/L
C. 0.367 mmol/L
D. None of the above values

A

B. 8.25 mmol/L

120
Q

If total cholesterol is 4.0 mmol/L, what is the value in conventional units?
A. 154 mg/dL
B. 102 mg/dL
C. 40 mg/dL
D. None of the above values

A

A. 154 mg/dL

121
Q

Physical hazards except:
A. Ergonomic issues
B. Noise levels
C. UV light exposure
D. Infections agents/aerosols

A

D. Infections agents/aerosols

122
Q

The most important practice in preventing the spread of disease is:
A. Wearing masks during patient contact
B. Proper hand washing
C. Wearing disposable laboratory coats
D. Identifying specimens from known or suspected HIV-and HBV-infected patients with a red label

A

B. Proper hand washing

123
Q

Where should alcohol and other flammable chemicals be stored?
A. In an approved safety can or storage cabinet away from heat sources
B. Under a hood and arranged alphabetically for ease of identification in an emergency
C. In a refrigerator at 2C to 8C to reduce volatilization
D. On a low shelf in an area protected from light

A

A. In an approved safety can or storage cabinet away from heat sources

124
Q

The venipuncture needle should be inserted into the arm with the bevel facing:
A. Down and an angle of insertion between 15 and 30 degrees
B. Up and an angle of insertion less than 30 degrees
C. Down and an angle of insertion greater than 45 degrees
D. Up and an angle of insertion between 30 and 45 degrees

A

B. Up and an angle of insertion less than 30 degrees

125
Q

The total magnification obtained when a 10x eyepiece and a 10x objective lens are used is:
A. 1x
B. 10x
C. 100x
D. 1, 000x

A

C. 100x

126
Q

The recommended cleaner for removing oil from objectives is:
A. 70% alcohol or lens cleaner
B. Xylene
C. Water
D. Benzene

A

A. 70% alcohol or lens cleaner

127
Q

Physiologic programmed cell death is termed:
A. Angiogenesis
B. Apoptosis
C. Aneurysm
D. Apohematics

A

B. Apoptosis

128
Q

Which organ is the site of sequestration of platelets?
A. Liver
B. Thymus
C. Spleen
D. Bone marrow

A

C. Spleen

129
Q

Which one of the following morphologic changes occurs during normal blood cell maturation?
A. Increase in cell diameter
B. Development of cytoplasm basophilia
C. Condensation of nuclear chromatin
D. Appearance of nucleoli

A

C. Condensation of nuclear chromatin

130
Q

What pathway anaerobically generates energy in the form of ATP?
A. Hexose monophosphate pathway
B. Rapoport-Luebering pathway
C. Embden-Meyerhof pathway
D. 2,3-BPG pathway

A

C. Embden-Meyerhof pathway

131
Q

What is the normal distribution of hemoglobins in healthy adults?
A. 80% to 90% Hb A, 5% to 10% Hb A2, 1% to 5% Hb F
B. 80% to 90% HbA2, 5% to 10% HbA ,1 % to 5% HbF
C. 95% Hb A, 3.5% Hb A2, 1% to 2% Hb F
D. 90% Hb A, 5% Hb F, 5% Hb A2

A

C. 95% Hb A, 3.5% Hb A2, 1% to 2% Hb F

132
Q

The primary pathophysiologic mechanism of anemia associated with chronic kidney disease is:
A. Inadequate production of erythropoietin
B. Excessive hemolysis
C. Hematopoietic stem cell mutation
D. Toxic destruction of stem cells

A

A. Inadequate production of erythropoietin

133
Q

Acanthocytes are found in association with:
A. Abetalipoproteinemia
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Rh deficiency syndrome
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

A. Abetalipoproteinemia

134
Q

Most coagulation testing must be performed on PPP, which is plasma with a platelet count less than:
A. 1,000/uL
B. 10,000/uL
C. 100,000/uL
D. 1,000,000/uL

A

B. 10,000/uL

135
Q

In the calculation of the mean, what does “n” represent?
A. The sum of the values
B. The number of values in the set
C. The average of the values
D. The middle number of the set

A

B. The number of values in the set

136
Q

Failure of the stomach acidity to fall lower than 6.0 in a stimulation test:
A. Anacidity
B. Achlorhydria
C. Euchlorhydria
D. Hypochlorhydria

A

A. Anacidity

137
Q

Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5 or 1.0 pH unit with gastric stimulation:
A. Anacidity
B. Achlorhydria
C. Euchlorhydria
D. Hypochlorhydria

A

B. Achlorhydria

138
Q

Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5, although it decreases 1.0 pH unit or more upon gastric stimulation:
A. Anacidity
B. Achlorhydria
C. Euchlorhydria
D. Hypochlorhydria

A

D. Hypochlorhydria

139
Q

Failure of the stomach acidity to fall lower than 6.0 in a stimulation test:
A. Anacidity
B. Achlorhydria
C. Euchlorhydria
D. Hypochlorhydria

A

A. Anacidity

140
Q

PHASE OF GASTRIC SECRETION that involves VAGUS NERVE STIMULATION caused by stimuli such as taste, smell, or sight:
A. Cephalic phase
B. Gastric phase
C. Intestinal phase
D. None of these

A

A. Cephalic phase

141
Q

RBCs are too pale and or RED, WBCs barely visible. All are probable reasons, EXCEPT:
A. Stain or buffer too acidic
B. Underbuffering
C. Over-rinsing
D. Heparinized blood sample

A

D. Heparinized blood sample

142
Q

RBCs appear GRAY, WBCs are too dark, eosinophil granules are gray, not orange.
All are probable reasons, EXCEPT:
A. Stain or buffer too alkaline
B. Inadequate rinsing
C. Prolonged staining
D. Underbuffering
E. Heparinized blood sample

A

D. Underbuffering

143
Q

Most common type of DNA change that can lead to leukemia. A part of one chromosome breaks off and becomes attached to a different chromosome
A. Addition
B. Deletion
C. Inversion
D. Translocation

A

D. Translocation

144
Q

Part of a chromosome is lost. This may result in the cell losing a gene that helped keep its growth in check, for example, a tumor suppressor gene.
A. Addition
B. Deletion
C. Inversion
D. Translocation

A

B. Deletion

145
Q

This occurs when part of a chromosome gets turned around, so it is now in reverse order. This can result in the loss of a gene (or genes) because the cell can no longer read its instructions in protein translation.
A. Addition
B. Deletion
C. Inversion
D. Translocation

A

C. Inversion

146
Q

An extra chromosome or part of a chromosome is gained. This can lead to too many copies of certain genes within the cell.
A. Addition
B. Deletion
C. Inversion
D. Translocation

A

A. Addition

147
Q

It is a serious pathogen of the eye, causing progressive endophthalmitis:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Bacillus thurigiensis

A

B. Bacillus cereus

148
Q

A complete deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase results in which disease?
A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
B. Modification of diet in renal disease
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Reye’s syndrome
E. Megaloblastic anemia

A

A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

149
Q

Reticulocytes can be detected by using _____ stain.
A. New methylene blue
B. Thiazole orange
C. Propidium iodide
D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

150
Q

The clot retraction test is:
A. A visible reaction to the activation of platelet actomyosin (thrombosthenin)
B. A reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors
C. A measurement of the ability of platelets to stick to glass
D. A measurement of the cloudiness of blood

A

B. A reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors

151
Q

The chemical composition of an antibody is:
A. Protein
B. Lipid
C. Carbohydrate
D. Glycoprotein

A

D. Glycoprotein

152
Q

Agglutination reactions characterized by many small agglutinates in a background of free cells would be graded in tube testing as:
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+

A

A. 1+

153
Q

What is the best source of an HLA matched kidney?
A. Mother
B. Father
C. Cousin
D. Sibling

A

D. Sibling

154
Q

Anaphylactic reactions to transfusion are usually caused by:
A. Anti-IgA in an IgA-deficient recipient
B. Anti-IgG in an IgA-deficient
C. IgA deficiency
D. IgG deficiencyrecipient

A

A. Anti-IgA in an IgA-deficient recipient

155
Q

Which of the following is not a basic component of a QA program?
A. Calibration
B. Preventive maintenance
C. Viral marker testing
D. Record keeping

A

C. Viral marker testing

156
Q

Ultimately the responsibility for a safety program in the laboratory belongs to:
A. CDC
B. The employer or laboratory director
C. OSHA
D. the employee

A

B. The employer or laboratory director

157
Q

One of the best ways to protect employees and keep a safe laboratory environment is to provide employees with:
A. Health insurance
B. Safety education
C. Rest breaks
D. Fluid-repellent laboratory coats

A

B. Safety education

158
Q

The reporting of an accident or injury should occur when any:
A. Injury may result in a fatality
B. Injury involves possible infection with HIV or HBV
C. Accident involves nonemployees or jeopardizes a patient
D. Accident or injury occurs

A

D. Accident or injury occurs

159
Q

MACROSCOPIC EXAMINATION OF BLOOD FILM:
Blue specks out at the feather edge
A. Agglutination
B. Rouleaux
C. Lipemia
D. Markedly increased WBC counts and platelet counts

A

D. Markedly increased WBC counts and platelet counts

160
Q

A laboratory science student consistently makes wedge technique blood films that are too long and thin. What change in technique would improve the films?
A. Increasing the downward pressure on the pusher slide
B. Decreasing the acute angle of the pusher slide
C. Placing the drop of blood closer to the center of the slide
D. Increasing the acute angle of the pusher slide

A

D. Increasing the acute angle of the pusher slide

161
Q

When a blood film is viewed through the microscope, the RBCs appear redder than normal, the neutrophils are barely visible, and the eosinophils are bright orange. What is the most likely cause
A. The slide was overstained.
B. The stain was too alkaline.
C. The buffer was too acidic.
D. The slide was not rinsed adequately.

A

C. The buffer was too acidic.

162
Q

A stained blood film is held up to the light and observed to be bluer than normal. What microscopic abnormality might be expected on this film?
A. Rouleaux
B. Spherocytosis
C. Reactive lymphocytosis
D. Toxic granulation

A

A. Rouleaux

163
Q

An EIA screening test for HTLV I/II was performed on a whole-blood donor. The results of the EIA were repeatedly reactive but the confirmatory test was negative. On the next donation, the screening test was negative by two different EIA tests. The donor should be:
A. Accepted
B. Deferred
C. Told that only plasma can be made from hisdonation
D. Told to come back in 6 months

A

A. Accepted

164
Q

A unit tests positive for syphilis using the rapid plasma reagin test (RPR). The microhemagglutinin assay-Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP) on the same unit is negative. What is the disposition of the unit?
A. The unit may be used to prepare components
B. The donor must be contacted and questioned further; if the RPR result is most likely a false positive, then the unit may be used
C. The unit must be discarded
D. Cellular components may be prepared but must be irradiated before issue

A

A. The unit may be used to prepare components

165
Q

John comes in to donate a unit of whole blood at the collection center of the community blood supplier. The EIA screen is reactive for anti-HIV-1/2. The test is repeated in duplicate and is nonreactive. John is:
A. Cleared for donation
B. Deferred for 6 months
C. Status is dependent on confirmatory test
D. Deferred for 12 months

A

A. Cleared for donation

166
Q

What marker is the first to appear in hepatitis B infection?
A. Anti-HBc (IgM)
B. HBs Ag
C. Anti-HBs
D. Anti-HBc (IgG)

A

B. HBs Ag

167
Q

Cryoprecipitate may be used to treat all of the following, except:
A. von Willebrand’s disease
B. Hypofibrinogenemia
C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
D. Factor XIII deficiency

A

C. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

168
Q

What is the crossmatching protocol for platelets and/or plasma?
A. Perform a reverse grouping on donor plasma
B. No testing is required
C. Perform a reverse grouping on recipient plasma
D. Platelets must be HLA compatible

A

B. No testing is required

169
Q

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive?
A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4°C
B. Retype the sample using a different lot number of reagents
C. Use polyclonal typing reagents
D. Report the sample as group AB

A

A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb the serum at 4°C

170
Q

What antibodies could an R1R1 make if exposed to R2R2 blood?
A. Anti-e and anti-C
B. Anti-E and anti-c
C. Anti-E and anti-C
D. Anti-e and anti-c

A

B. Anti-E and anti-c

171
Q

Which antibody is frequently seen in patients with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A. Anti-Jka
B. Anti-e
C. Anti-K
D. Anti-Fyb

A

B. Anti-e

172
Q

Cell organelles involved in Alder-Reilly anomaly are:
A. Nucleus
B. Ribosomes
C. Lysosomes
D. Mitochondria

A

C. Lysosomes

173
Q

Which order of events should be followed at the conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens?
A. Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove lab coat
B. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands
C. Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat
D. Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat, disinfect area

A

B. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands

174
Q

Point-of-care testing (POCT) refers to:
A. All testing done to the patient to save time
B. All lab testing done in the central lab
C. Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s bedside
D. Satellite lab testing

A

C. Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s bedside

175
Q

“Six sigma” is a method used in industry and business as well as the clinical laboratory in order to:
A. Allow for improved performance
B. Prevent and remove defects in production
C. Improve customer satisfaction
D. All of these options

A

D. All of these options

176
Q

A patient refuses to have his blood drawn for a routine laboratory test request made by his physician. What is the most appropriate course of action?
A. Perform the venipuncture against the patient’s will
B. Do not attempt the venipuncture and file an incident report with the laboratory manager
C. Request that the patient be sedated, then collect the sample
D. Request assistance from the legal department

A

B. Do not attempt the venipuncture and file an incident report with the laboratory manager

177
Q

Which of the following is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult?
A. Iliac crest
B. Sternum
C. Tibia
D. Spinous processes of a vertebra

A

A. Iliac crest

178
Q

Which condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?
A. Acidosis
B. Alkalosis
C. Multiple blood transfusions
D. Increased quantities of hemoglobin S or C

A

A. Acidosis

179
Q

Which of the following are most characteristic of the red cell indices associated with megaloblastic anemias?
A. MCV 99 fl, MCH 28 pg, MCHC 31%
B. MCV 62 fL, MCH 27 pg, MCHC 30%
C. MCV 125 fL, MCH 36 pg, MCHC 34%
D. MCV 78 fL, MCH 23 pg, MCHC 30%

A

C. MCV 125 fL, MCH 36 pg, MCHC 34%

180
Q

Which of the following is contained in the primary granules of the neutrophil?
A. Lactoferrin
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Histamine
D. Alkaline phosphatase

A

B. Myeloperoxidase

181
Q

Neutrophil phagocytosis and particle ingestion are associated with an increase in oxygen utilization called respiratory burst. What are the two most important products of this biochemical reaction?
A. Hydrogen peroxide and superoxide anion
B. Lactoferrin and NADPH oxidase
C. Cytochrome b and collagenase
D. Alkaline phosphatase and ascorbic acid

A

A. Hydrogen peroxide and superoxide anion

182
Q

What reagents are used in the PT test?
A. Thromboplastin and sodium chloride
B. Thromboplastin and potassium chloride
C. Thromboplastin and calcium
D. Actin and calcium chloride

A

C. Thromboplastin and calcium

183
Q

A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and platelet aggregation is:
A. Factor I
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor XI

A

A. Factor I

184
Q

The following laboratory results were obtained from a 40-year-old woman: PT = 20 sec; APTT = 50 sec; thrombin time = 18 sec. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Factor VII deficiency
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Factor X deficiency
D. Hypofibrinogenemia

A

D. Hypofibrinogenemia

185
Q

A 50-year-old man has been on heparin for the past 7 days. Which combination of the tests is expected to be abnormal
A. PT and APTT only
B. APTT, TT only
C. APTT, TT, fibrinogen assay
D. PT, APTT, TT

A

D. PT, APTT, TT

186
Q

A standard blue-top tube filled appropriately (with 4.5 mL blood) was submitted to the laboratory for preoperative PT and APTT testing. The results of both tests were elevated. The patient’s PT and APTT from the previous day were within normal limits, and he is not on heparin therapy. Which is the most appropriate first step to investigate the abnormal results?
A. Report the result as obtained
B. Perform a mixing study
C. Check the sample for a clot
D. Report the APTT only

A

C. Check the sample for a clot

187
Q

Strongly pungent urine odor:
A. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Trimethylaminuria
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Severe urinary tract infection

A

D. Severe urinary tract infection

188
Q

Centrifugation for urine microscopic examination:
A. RCF of 100 for 2 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
C. RCF of 500 for 5 minutes
D. RCF of 500 for 10 minutes

A

B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes

189
Q

The sex steroids are synthesized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Ovaries
C. Testes
D. Adrenal gland

A

A. Hypothalamus

190
Q

Serum or plasma is the specimen of choice for the determination of circulating concentrations of most drugs. ______ plasma is suitable for most drug analysis.
A. Citrate
B. EDTA
C. Heparin
D. Oxalate

A

C. Heparin

191
Q

Phlebotomy is used as a therapeutic treatment for:
A. Diabetes
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Phlebitis
D. Polycythemia

A

D. Polycythemia

192
Q

MSDS information includes:
A. General and emergency information.
B. Highly technical chemical formulas.
C. Information on competitor products.
D. Product manufacturing conditions.

A

A. General and emergency information.

193
Q

An avulsion is a:
A. Hematoma in an extremity.
B. Situation that is repulsive.
C. Tearing away of a body part.
D. Type of operation on a bone.

A

C. Tearing away of a body part.

194
Q

Class C fires involve:
A. Combustible metals.
B. Electrical equipment.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Ordinary materials.

A

B. Electrical equipment.

195
Q

You accidentally splash a bleach solution into your eyes while preparing it for cleaning purposes. What is the first thing to do?
A. Dry your eyes quickly with a clean paper towel or tissue.
B. Flush your eyes with water for a minimum of 15 minutes.
C. Proceed to the emergency room as quickly as possible.
D. Put 10 to 20 drops of saline into your eyes immediately.

A

B. Flush your eyes with water for a minimum of 15 minutes.

196
Q

What is the proper order for putting on protective clothing?
A. Gloves first, then gown, mask last
B. Gown first, then gloves, mask last
C. Gown first, then mask, gloves last
D. Mask first, then gown, gloves last

A

C. Gown first, then mask, gloves last

197
Q

What is the first thing a phlebotomist should do if he or she is accidentally stuck by a needle used to draw blood from a patient?
A. Check the patient’s medical records for HIV test results.
B. Clean the site with soap and water for at least 30 seconds.
C. Go to the employee health service and get a tetanus booster.
D. Leave the area so the patient does not notice the injury.

A

B. Clean the site with soap and water for at least 30 seconds.

198
Q

What is the correct order for removing protective clothing?
A. Gloves, gown, mask
B. Gown, gloves, mask
C. Gown, mask, gloves
D. Mask, gown, gloves

A

A. Gloves, gown, mask

199
Q

Which of the following is one reason the ETS is the preferred blood collection system?
A. Exposure of the blood to contaminants is avoided.
B. It is easier to see the flash when entering a vein.
C. The collector’s exposure to blood is eliminated.
D. Using a syringe can collapse a vein more easily.

A

A. Exposure of the blood to contaminants is avoided.

200
Q

Which of the following is a disinfectant?
A. Benzalkonium chloride
B. Chlorhexidine gluconate
C. Household bleach
D. Hydrogen peroxide

A

C. Household bleach

201
Q

Mixing additive tubes properly involves:
A. Gently shaking them up and down.
B. Slowly rocking them back and forth.
C. Turning the wrist 90 degrees and back.
D. Turning the wrist 180 degrees and back.

A

D. Turning the wrist 180 degrees and back.

202
Q

During venipuncture the tourniquet should not be left on longer than:
A. 30 seconds.
B. 1 minute.
C. 2 minutes.
D. 5 minutes.

A

B. 1 minute.

203
Q

If a test is ordered stat, it may mean that the patient is in:
A. Critical condition.
B. Fragile condition.
C. Rehabilitation.
D. Transition status.

A

A. Critical condition.

204
Q

When a test is ordered ASAP, it means that:
A. The patient is in critical condition and needs immediate attention.
B. The patient requires a test in which timing of collection is critical.
C. Results are needed soon for an appropriate response.
D. Results from blood work are needed for medication.

A

C. Results are needed soon for an appropriate response.

205
Q

The medical record number on the ID band matches the number on your requisition, but the patient’s name is spelled differently than the one on your requisition. What should you do?
A. Collect the specimen and report the error to the patient’s nurse.
B. Do not collect the specimen until the difference is resolved.
C. Draw the specimen because the medical record number matches.
D. Make the correction on the requisition and draw the specimen.

A

B. Do not collect the specimen until the difference is resolved.

206
Q

An unconscious inpatient does not have an ID band. The name on an envelope on the patient’s nightstand matches with the requisition. What should you do?
A. Ask the nurse to verify the patient’s ID and collect the specimen.
B. Complete the required procedure and then file an incident report.
C. Do not start any procedure until the nurse attaches an ID bracelet.
D. Make a computer entry to will alert other phlebotomists of the issue.

A

C. Do not start any procedure until the nurse attaches an ID bracelet.

207
Q

An inpatient vehemently refuses to allow you to collect a blood specimen. What should you do?
A. Convince the patient to cooperate and collect the sample anyway.
B. Have the nurse physically restrain the patient and draw the specimen.
C. Notify the patient’s nurse and document the patient’s refusal.
D. Return to the lab, cancel the test request, and inform the physician.

A

C. Notify the patient’s nurse and document the patient’s refusal.

208
Q

A diabetic outpatient has had a mastectomy on her right side and cannot straighten her left arm because of arthritis. The best place to collect a blood specimen is:
A. An ankle or foot vein on either of her legs.
B. The left forearm or hand, using a butterfly.
C. The right arm below the antecubital fossa.
D. The right hand, using a capillary puncture.

A

B. The left forearm or hand, using a butterfly.

209
Q

The best specimens to use for establishinginpatient reference ranges for blood tests are:
A. Basal-state specimens.
B. fasting specimens.
C. postprandial specimens.
D. steady-state specimens.

A

A. Basal-state specimens.

210
Q

A cyanotic extremity would:
A. Appear jaundiced.
B. Be bluish in color.
C. Exhibit erythema.
D. Look pale yellow

A

B. Be bluish in color.

211
Q

Which of the following can be used to clean a site before a blood alcohol specimen is collected?
A. Diluted methanol
B. Isopropyl alcohol
C. Tincture of iodine
D. Zephiran chloride

A

D. Zephiran chloride

212
Q

Which test becomes abnormal in the earliest stage of the acute coronary syndrome?
A. Myosin light chain 1
B. CK-MB isoforms
C. Myoglobin
D. High-sensitivity C-reactive protein

A

D. High-sensitivity C-reactive protein

213
Q

Discovery of genetic principles underlying the generation of antibodies with different specificities:
A. Gerald Edelman
B. Cesar Milstein
C. Susumu Tonegawa
D. Louis Pasteur

A

C. Susumu Tonegawa

214
Q

Which of the following is decreased in serum during the active stages of systemic lupus erythematosus?
A. Anti-nuclear antibody
B. Immune complexes
C. Complement (C3)
D. Anti-DNA

A

C. Complement (C3)

215
Q

Which of the following describes an antigen antibody reaction?
A. The reaction is reversible
B. The reaction is the same as a chemical reaction
C. A lattice is formed at prozone
D. A lattice is formed at post-zone

A

A. The reaction is reversible

216
Q

Cholesterol is added to the antigen used to flocculation tests for syphilis to:
A. Destroy tissue impurities present in the alcoholic beef heart extract
B. Sensitize the sheep RBCs
C. Decrease specificity of the antigen
D. Increase sensitivity of the antigen

A

D. Increase sensitivity of the antigen

217
Q

What kind of antigen-antibody reaction would be expected if soluble antigen is added to homologous antibody?
A. Precipitation
B. Agglutination
C. Complement fixation
D. Hemagglutination

A

A. Precipitation

218
Q

In the RPR test, what is the gauge of the needle for antigen delivery?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 20
D. 21

A

C. 20

219
Q

For diagnosis of late latent or tertiary syphilis, the most appropriate assay is:
A. RPR
B. VDRL
C. FTA-ABS
D. FTA-ABS IgM

A

C. FTA-ABS

220
Q

The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infection is:
A. HBs Ag
B. HBe Ag
C. HBc Ag
D. HBV

A

B. HBe Ag

221
Q

Antibody class and antibody subclass are determined by major physiochemical differences and antigenic variation found primarily in the:
A. Constant region of heavy chain
B. Constant region of light chain
C. Variable regions of heavy and light chains
D. constant regions of heavy and light chains

A

A. Constant region of heavy chain

222
Q

The ratio of kappa to lambda light chain producing cells in normal individuals is:
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 4:1

A

B. 2:1

223
Q

Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?
A. 32-year-old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5 months previously
B. 19-year-old sailor who has been statside for 9 months and stopped taking his anti-malarial medication 9 months previously
C. 22-year-old college student who has a temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C) and states that he feels well, but is nervous about donating
D. 45-year-old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and is still taking antibiotics.

A

C. 22-year-old college student who has a temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C) and states that he feels well, but is nervous about donating

224
Q

Which one of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?
A. A tattoo 5 months previously
B. Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
C. 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously
D. Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

A

D. Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

225
Q

Which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor?
A. Traveled to an area endemic for malaria 9 months previously
B. Spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously
C. Reisdes with a known hepatitis patient
D. Received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously

A

B. Spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously

226
Q

Platelets must be kept in constant motion for which of the following reasons?
A. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion
B. Keep the platelets in suspension and prevent clumping of the platelets
C. Mimic what is going on in the blood vessels
D. Preserve the coagulation factors and platelet viability

A

A. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion

227
Q

Of the following blood components, which one should be used to prevent HLA alloimmunization of the recipient?
A. Red Blood cells
B. Granulocytes
C. Irradiated Red Blood Cell
D. Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells

A

D. Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells

228
Q

Symptoms of dyspnea, cough, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion is most likely which type of reaction?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Hemolytic
C. Febrile
D. TRALI

A

D. TRALI

229
Q

The most important step in the safe administration of blood is to:
A. Perform compatibility testing accurately
B. Get an accurate patient history
C. Exclude disqualified donors
D. Accurately identify the donor unit and recipient

A

D. Accurately identify the donor unit and recipient

230
Q

The process of working with people and resources to accomplish organizational goals:
A. Authority
B. Supervision
C. Management
D. Leadership

A

C. Management

231
Q

In disk diffusion susceptibility testing, as an antimicrobial agent diffuses away from the disk, the concentration of antibiotic is:
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Unchanged
D. Inoculum dependent

A

B. Decreased

232
Q

Components of transport media, EXCEPT:
A. Buffers
B. Peptones
C. Salts
D. Nitrogen

A

D. Nitrogen

233
Q

Liebermann-Burchard test is used for chemical estimation. What is the function of acetic anhydride in the test?
A. Reducing agent
B. Alkalinizing agent
C. Solvent and oxidizing agent
D. Solvent and dehydrating agent

A

D. Solvent and dehydrating agent

234
Q

Determines resistance to anti-tuberculosis drugs:
A. Direct sputum smear microscopy
B. Molecular diagnosis
C. Serological tests
D. X-ray

A

B. Molecular diagnosis

235
Q

Physical hazards except:
A. Ergonomic issues
B. Noise levels
C. UV light exposure
D. Infections agents/aerosols

A

D. Infections agents/aerosols

236
Q

Steroids:
A. Glycerides
B. Non-glycerides
C. Fatty acids
D. Complex

A

B. Non-glycerides

02LMR_RANDOM DECKS (6 decks)

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