POPCORN 3

Question 1

Testing specimens that contain high levels of ascorbate may effect the reading of all of these EXCEPT:
A. Bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Nitrite
D. Urobilinogen

Answer 1

D. Urobilinogen

Question 2

Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:
A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite

Answer 2

B. Ketone and leukocytes

Question 3

The principle of “protein error of indicators” is based on:
A. Protein changing the pH of the specimen.
B. Protein changing the pKa of the specimen.
C. Protein accepting hydrogen from the indicator.
D. Protein giving up hydrogen to the indicator.

Answer 3

C. Protein accepting hydrogen from the indicator.

Question 4

Typically,the protocol for the performance of CSF analysis when three tubes are collected is which order for cell counts, chemistries, microbiology?
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 1, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 3, 2, 1

Answer 4

C. 3, 1, 2

Question 5

If only a small amount of CSF is obtained, which is the most important procedure to perform first?
A. Cell count
B. Chemistries
C. Immunology
D. Microbiology

Answer 5

D. Microbiology

Question 6

Green with carbocyanine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane

Answer 6

D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane

Question 7

Orange with phenathridine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane

Answer 7

A. DNA

Question 8

Enumeration of bacteria in automated slideless microscopy:
A. Spectrophotometric method
B. Small particle histogram
C. Nitrite determination
D. Reflectance photometry

Answer 8

B. Small particle histogram

Question 9

A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine:
A. Prostatic infection
B. Presence of antisperm antibodies
C. A possible rape
D. Successful vasectomy

Answer 9

C. A possible rape

Question 10

Normal neutral fats with increased amount of fatty acids:
A. Malabsorption
B. Maldigestion
C. Both of these
D. None of these

Answer 10

A. Malabsorption

Question 11

Low to absent fructose level in the semen:
A. Low sperm concentration
B. Low sperm motility
C. Low sperm viability
D. Presence of antisperm antibodies

Answer 11

A. Low sperm concentration

Question 12

Specimens for fructose levels should be tested within 2 hours of collection or _______ to prevent fructolysis.
A. Refrigerated
B. Frozen
C. Incubated at 37C
D. Maintained at room temperature

Answer 12

B. Frozen

Question 13

Specimens can be screened for the presence of fructose using the resorcinol test that produces an _______color when fructose is present.
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Orange

Answer 13

D. Orange

Question 14

Bacterial, viral, and protozoan infections produce increased secretion of water and electrolytes, which override the reabsorptive ability of the large intestine, leading to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these

Answer 14

B. Secretory diarrhea

Question 15

Secretory diarrhea is caused by:
A. Antibiotic administration
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Celiac sprue
D. Vibrio cholerae

Answer 15

D. Vibrio cholerae

Question 16

Maldigestion (impaired food digestion) and malabsorption (impaired nutrient absorption by the intestine) contribute to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these

Answer 16

A. Osmotic diarrhea

Question 17

Wet preparation for demonstration of fecal leukocytes:
A. Methylene blue
B. Gram stain
C. Wright’s stain
D. All of these

Answer 17

A. Methylene blue

Question 18

Small fleck of mucus or a drop of liquid stool is placed on a glass microscopic slide with a wooden applicator stick. Two drops of methylene blue are added and mixed thoroughly and carefully. A coverslip is placed on the mixture, which is allowed to stand for 2–3 minutes for good nuclear staining. Which of the following cells are included in the stool WBC differential using methylene blue?
A. Immune and non-immune cells
B. Phagocytes and non-phagocytic cells
C. Mononuclear and polymorphonuclear cells
D. T cells, B cells and NK cells

Answer 18

C. Mononuclear and polymorphonuclear cells

Question 19

Unique portion of HCG:
A. Glycoprotein portion of alpha subunit
B. Glycoprotein portion of beta subunit
C. Amino acid portion of alpha subunit
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit

Answer 19

D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit

Question 20

Urine for pregnancy test should have a specific gravity of at least:
A. 1.002
B. 1.003
C. 1.010
D. 1.015

Answer 20

D. 1.015

Question 21

Refractometer results are valid up to _______; specimen with greater than (your answer) should be diluted and remeasured.
A. 1.020
B. 1.025
C. 1.030
D. 1.035

Answer 21

D. 1.035

Question 22

The only tissue in the body that is hypertonic with respect to normal plasma (i.e., its osmolality is greater than 290 mOsm/kg):
A. Glomerulus
B. Convoluted tubules
C. Renal cortex
D. Renal medulla

Answer 22

D. Renal medulla

Question 23

Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as TRISOMY 21 (DOWN SYNDROME), amniocentesis may be indicated at:
A. 1 to 7 weeks gestation
B. 7 to 14 weeks gestation
C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation
D. 20 to 42 weeks gestation

Answer 23

C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation

Question 24

Excess CSF should be:
A. Discarded
B. Refrigerated
C. Frozen
D. Maintained at room temperature

Answer 24

C. Frozen

Question 25

Specific gravity of 1.015 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose

Answer 25

B. 3% NaCl

Question 26

LEUKOREDUCED RED CELLS is a product in which the absolute WBC count in the unit is reduced to ____, and contains at least ______ of the original RBC mass.
A. 1 x 10 10th, 85%
B. 3.0 x 10 11th, 85%
C. 5.5 x 10 10th, 85%
D. 5 x 10 6th, 85%

Answer 26

D. 5 x 10 6th, 85%

Question 27

The percentage of red cells recovered after thawing and deglycerolization of frozen blood is:
A. 35%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 80%

Answer 27

D. 80%

Question 28

The use of plasma from only male donors for transfusion is a preventive method for which type of transfusion reaction:
A. Febrile
B. Allergic
C. TRALI
D. TACO

Answer 28

C. TRALI

Question 29

Which of the following antibodies characteristically gives a refractile mixed-field appearance?
A. Anti-K
B. Anti-Dia
C. Anti-Sda
D. Anti-s

Answer 29

C. Anti-Sda

Question 30

Anti-Sd has been identified in patient ALF. What substance would neutralize this antibody and allow detection of other alloantibodies?
A. Saliva
B. Hydatid cyst fluid
C. Urine
D. Human breast milk

Answer 30

C. Urine

Question 31

RANDOM-DONOR PLATELETS (RDP) must contain at least:
A. 3.0 x 10 10th platelets
B. 5.5 x 10 10th platelets
C. 3.0 x 10 11th platelets
D. 5.5 x 10 11th platelets

Answer 31

B. 5.5 x 10 10th platelets

Question 32

SINGLE-DONOR PLATELETS (SDP) must contain at least:
A. 3.0 x 10 10th platelets
B. 5.5 x 10 10th platelets
C. 3.0 x 10 11th platelets
D. 5.5 x 10 11th platelets

Answer 32

C. 3.0 x 10 11th platelets

Question 33

Two standard deviations (2 SD) from the mean in a normal distribution curve would include:
A. 99% of all values
B. 95% of all values
C. 75% of all values
D. 68% of all values

Answer 33

B. 95% of all values

Question 34

Acceptable limits of a control value must fall:
A. Within ±1 standard deviation of the mean
B. Between 1 and 2 standard deviations of the mean
C. Within ±2 standard deviations of the mean
D. Within ±3 standard deviations of the mean

Answer 34

C. Within ±2 standard deviations of the mean

Question 35

Typically, a patient test result that EXCEEDS 3 SD of the mean value for analyte is found with a frequency of:
A. 1 in 5
B. 1 in 20
C. 1 in 100
D. Never

Answer 35

C. 1 in 100

Question 36

When a serum sample has intrinsic color that absorbs at the same wavelength used to detect the reaction product, what technique could help distinguish the color produced by the analyte from the intrinsic color of the sample?
A. Blanking
B. Immunoturbidimetry
C. Ion-selective electrode
D. PETINIA

Answer 36

A. Blanking

Question 37

What would be the value of 150 mg/dL glucose reported in SI units?
A. 1.61 mmol/L
B. 8.25 mmol/L
C. 0.367 mmol/L
D. None of the above values

Answer 37

B. 8.25 mmol/L

Question 38

If total cholesterol is 4.0 mmol/L, what is the value in conventional units?
A. 154 mg/dL
B. 102 mg/dL
C. 40 mg/dL
D. None of the above values

Answer 38

A. 154 mg/dL

Question 39

The lipoprotein particle that is used to determine increased risk of coronary artery disease and to determine and monitor treatment for high cholesterol is:
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. Apolipoprotein A1
D. Chylomicron

Answer 39

B. LDL

Question 40

Which test might be used to assess a person who is disoriented or confused?
A. Cholesterol
B. Ammonia
C. CRPs
D. Iron

Answer 40

B. Ammonia

Question 41

Which of the following sets of values for repeat analyses of a QC sample (target value of 50) reflects the best precision?
A. 50, 51, 52
B. 50, 52, 56
C. 48, 50, 52
D. 44, 50, 53

Answer 41

A. 50, 51, 52

Question 42

Which of the following sets of values for repeat analyses of a sample (target value of 100) shows the least bias?
A. 100, 105, 110
B. 95, 100, 105
C. 90, 95, 100
D. 90, 100, 105

Answer 42

B. 95, 100, 105

Question 43

Beer’s law is expressed as A = abc
A (capital A) in Beer’s law is:
A. Absorbance
B. Absorptivity constant
C. Concentration
D. Length of light path

Answer 43

A. Absorbance

Question 44

a (small a) in Beer’s law is:
A. Absorbance
B. Absorptivity constant
C. Concentration
D. Length of light path

Answer 44

B. Absorptivity constant

Question 45

b (small b) in Beer’s law is:
A. Absorbance
B. Absorptivity constant
C. Concentration
D. Length of light path

Answer 45

D. Length of light path

Question 46

c (small c) in Beer’s law is:
A. Absorbance
B. Absorptivity constant
C. Concentration
D. Length of light path

Answer 46

C. Concentration

Question 47

What is the best use for potentiometry?
A. Enzymes
B. Proteins
C. Electrolytes
D. Lipids

Answer 47

C. Electrolytes

Question 48

Which monochromator specification is required in order to measure the true absorbance of a compound having a natural absorption bandwidth of 30 nm?
A. 50-nm bandpass
B. 25-nm bandpass
C. 15-nm bandpass
D. 5-nm bandpass

Answer 48

D. 5-nm bandpass

Question 49

Which of the following protein methods has the highest analytical sensitivity?
A. Refractometry
B. Folin–Lowry
C. Turbidimetry
D. Direct ultraviolet absorption

Answer 49

B. Folin–Lowry

Question 50

Which of the following dyes is the most specific for measurement of albumin?
A. Bromcresol green (BCG)
B. Bromcresol purple (BCP)
C. Tetrabromosulfophthalein
D. Tetrabromphenol blue

Answer 50

B. Bromcresol purple (BCP)

Question 51

MPV values should be based on specimens that are between ______ old.
A. 1 and 4 hours old
B. 5 and 8 hours old
C. 8 and 12 hours old
D. 12 and 15 hours old

Answer 51

A. 1 and 4 hours old

Question 52

High WBC count that can cause turbidity and a falsely high hemoglobin result:
A. WBCs > 10 x 10 9th/L
B. WBCs > 20 x 10 9th/L
C. WBCs > 50 x 10 9th/L
D. WBCs > 70 x 10 9th/L

Answer 52

B. WBCs > 20 x 10 9th/L

Question 53

High platelet count that can cause turbidity and a falsely high hemoglobin result:
A. Platelets > 150 x 10 9th/L
B. Platelets > 200 x 10 9th/L
C. Platelets > 500 x 10 9th/L
D. Platelets > 700 x 10 9th/L

Answer 53

D. Platelets > 700 x 10 9th/L

Question 54

In EDTA–anti-coagulated blood, platelets undergo a change in shape. This alteration (swelling) causes the MPV to increase approximately ___ % during the first hour.
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%

Answer 54

D. 20%

Question 55

Lipemia can cause turbidity in the cyanmethemoglobin method and a falsely high hemoglobin result. It can be corrected by:

A. Reagent-sample solution can be centrifuged and the supernatant measured

B. Adding 0.01 mL of the patient’s plasma to 5 mL of the cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the reagent blank

C. Making a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted sample plus 1 part water) and multiplying the results from the standard curve by 2.

D. Cannot be corrected

Answer 55

B. Adding 0.01 mL of the patient’s plasma to 5 mL of the cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the reagent blank

Question 56

The modification of diet in renal disease (MDRD) formula for calculating eGFR requires which four parameters?

A. Urine creatinine, serum creatinine, height, weight
B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race
C. Serum creatinine, height, weight, age
D. Urine creatinine, gender, weight, age

Answer 56

B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race

Question 57

Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated creatinine clearance calculations include all of the following except:
A. Serum creatinine
B. Weight
C. Age
D. Gender

Answer 57

B. Weight

Question 58

The creatinine clearance is reported in:
A. mg/dL
B. mg/24 hours
C. mL/min
D mL/24 hours

Answer 58

C. mL/min

Question 59

Benedict’s test 1+:
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange

Answer 59

B. Green

Question 60

Positive result in the Ictotest:
A. Green
B. Orange
C. Purple
D. Red

Answer 60

C. Purple

Question 61

Pathologically, these casts are increased in congestive heart failure:
A. Hyaline cast
B. Granular cast
C. Cellular cast
D. Waxy cast

Answer 61

A. Hyaline cast

Question 62

The most frequent parasite encountered in the urine:
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Giardia lamblia

Answer 62

B. Trichomonas vaginalis

Question 63

Fecal contamination of a urine specimen can also result in the presence of ova from intestinal parasites in the urine sediment. The most common contaminant is:
A. Schistosoma japonicum ovum
B. Schistosoma haematobium ovum
C. Enterobius vermicularis ovum
D. Giardia lamblia trophozoite

Answer 63

C. Enterobius vermicularis ovum

Question 64

Symptoms of dyspnea, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion is most likely which type of reaction?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Hemolytic
C. Febrile
D. TRALI

Answer 64

D. TRALI

Question 65

Congestive heart failure, severe headache and/or peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?
A. Hemolytic
B. Febrile
C. Anaphylactic
D. Circulatory overload

Answer 65

D. Circulatory overload

Question 66

Synovial fluid is typically collected using sterile needle and syringe and then transferred to collection tubes for testing. Which of the following anticoagulants would be appropriate to use for the aliquot sent for manual cell count and crystal evaluation?
A. Liquid EDTA
B. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Lithium heparin

Answer 66

A. Liquid EDTA

Question 67

Required tube for synovial fluid glucose determination:
A. SPS
B. EDTA
C. Heparin
D. Sodium fluoride

Answer 67

D. Sodium fluoride

Question 68

Normal synovial fluid does not clot; however, fluid from a diseased joint may contain fibrinogen and will clot. Therefore, fluid is often collected in a syringe that has been moistened with:
A. EDTA
B. SPS
C. Heparin
D. Sodium fluoride

Answer 68

C. Heparin

Question 69

Which transfusion reaction presents with fever, maculopapular rash, watery diarrhea, abnormal liver function, and pancytopenia?
A. Transfusion-associated sepsis
B. Transfusion-related acute lung injury
C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
D. Transfusion-associated allergic reaction

Answer 69

C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

Question 70

Clinical signs and symptoms commonly include low birth weight (<2,500 g), skin hyperpigmentation (café au lait spots), and short stature.
* Other manifestations can include skeletal disorders (aplasia or hypoplasia of the thumb), renal malformations, microcephaly, hypogonadism, mental retardation, and strabismus.

A. Diamond-Blackfan anemia
B. Fanconi anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Thalassemia

Answer 70

B. Fanconi anemia

Question 71

Microcytic, hypochromic anemia caused by inadequate supplies of the iron needed to synthesize hemoglobin and characterized by pallor, fatigue, and weakness. Often caused by low dietary iron intake or chronic blood loss.
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Thalassemia

Answer 71

B. Iron deficiency anemia

Question 72

Uncontrolled activation of thrombin and consumption of coagulation factors, platelets, and fibrinolytic proteins secondary to many initiating events, including infection, inflammation, shock, and trauma. Most commonly evidenced by diffuse mucocutaneous bleeding.
A. Christmas disease
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C. Hemophilia A
D. von Willebrand’s disease

Answer 72

B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Question 73

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia?
A. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
D. Acute monocytic leukemia

Answer 73

B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia

Question 74

Abnormal proliferation of both erythroid and granulocytic precursors; may include abnormal megakaryocytic and monocytic proliferations:
A. M1
B. M2
C. M4
D. M6

Answer 74

D. M6

Question 75

Temperature of the flotation water bath:
A. 35 to 37C
B. 45 to 50C
C. 55 to 60C
D. At boiling point

Answer 75

B. 45 to 50C

Question 76

Rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by complete absence of HDL:
A. Tangier disease
B. Anderson disease
C. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
D. Sitosterolemia

Answer 76

A. Tangier disease

Question 77

Abetalipoproteinemia, patients present with undetectable plasma apoB containing lipoproteins:
A. Tangier disease
B. Anderson disease
C. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
D. Sitosterolemia

Answer 77

C. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome

Question 78

Chylomicron retention disease presents in childhood with fat malabsorption and low levels of plasma lipids. This syndrome is distinct from abetalipoproteinemia, as only apoB-48 appears to be affected:
A. Tangier disease
B. Anderson’s disease
C. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
D. Sitosterolemia

Answer 78

B. Anderson’s disease

Question 79

It is the major extracellular anion. It is involved in maintaining osmolality, blood volume, and electric neutrality.
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride

Answer 79

D. Chloride

Question 80

After warming, a cloudy urine clears. This is due to the presence of:
A. Urates
B. Phosphates
C. WBCs
D. Bacteria

Answer 80

A. Urates

Question 81

Staphylococcus aureus toxin which disrupts the smooth muscle in blood vessels and is toxic to erythrocytes, leukocytes, hepatocytes, and platelets:
A. Alpha toxin
B. Beta toxin
C. Delta toxin
D. Gamma toxin

Answer 81

A. Alpha toxin

Question 82

Which of the following is the most potent bacterial exotoxin known?
A. Botulinum toxin
B. Erythrogenic toxin
C. C. difficile toxin B
D. C. perfringens alpha-toxin

Answer 82

A. Botulinum toxin

Question 83

Which animals were immunized that led to the discovery of the Rh blood group?
A. Rhesus macaque monkeys
B. Mice and rats
C. Frogs
D. Guinea pigs and rabbits

Answer 83

D. Guinea pigs and rabbits

Question 84

Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group antigens?
A. Dominant
B. Recessive
C. Codominant
D. Corecessive

Answer 84

C. Codominant

Question 85

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive?
A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb theserum at 4°C
B. Retype the sample using a different lot numberof reagents
C. Use polyclonal typing reagents
D. Report the sample as group AB

Answer 85

A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb theserum at 4°C

Question 86

Testing reveals a weak D that reacts 1+ after indirect antiglobulin testing (IAT). How is this result classified?
A. Rh-positive
B. Rh-negative, Du positive
C. Rh-negative
D. Rh-positive, Du positive

Answer 86

A. Rh-positive

Question 87

What antibodies could an R1R1 make if exposed to R2R2 blood?
A. Anti-e and anti-C
B. Anti-E and anti-c
C. Anti-E and anti-C
D. Anti-e and anti-c

Answer 87

B. Anti-E and anti-c

Question 88

The k (Cellano) antigen is a high-frequency antigen and is found on most red cells. How often would one expect to find the corresponding antibody?
A. Often
B. Rarely
C. It depends upon the population
D. Impossible to determine

Answer 88

B. Rarely

Question 89

Can crossmatching be performed on October 14th using a patient sample drawn on October 12th?
A. Yes, a new sample would not be needed
B. Yes, but only if the previous sample has noalloantibodies
C. No, a new sample is needed because the 2-daylimit has expired
D. No, a new sample is needed for each testing

Answer 89

A. Yes, a new sample would not be needed

Question 90

What ABO types may donate to any other ABO type?
A. A negative, B negative, AB negative, O negative
B. O negative
C. AB negative
D. AB negative, A negative, B negative

Answer 90

B. O negative

Question 91

A patient showed positive results with screening cells and 4 donor units. The patient autocontrol was negative. What is the most likely antibody?
A. Anti-H
B. Anti-S
C. Anti-Kpa
D. Anti-k

Answer 91

D. Anti-k

Question 92

What would be the result of group A blood given to an O patient?
A. Nonimmune transfusion reaction
B. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
D. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

Answer 92

B. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction

Question 93

What method can be employed to detect bacteria in random donor platelets?
A. pH
B. Glucose
C. Pan genera detection (PGD) assay
D. Gram stain

Answer 93

C. Pan genera detection (PGD) assay

Question 94

What should be done if a noticeable clot is found in an RBC unit?
A. Issue the unit; the blood will be filtered
B. Issue the unit; note the presence of a clot on therelease form
C. Filter the unit in the blood bank before issue
D. Do not issue the unit

Answer 94

D. Do not issue the unit

Question 95

Which immunization has the longest deferral period?
A. HBIG
B. Rubella vaccine
C. Influenza vaccine
D. Yellow fever vaccine

Answer 95

A. HBIG

Question 96

HEPATITIS B IMMUNE GLOBULIN (HBIG) is an injected material used to prevent infection following an exposure to hepatitis B. HBIG does not prevent hepatitis B infection in every case, therefore persons who have received HBIG must wait _____ to donate blood to be sure they were not infected since hepatitis B can be transmitted through transfusion to a patient.
A. 4 weeks
B. 1 month
C. 12 months
D. No deferral

Answer 96

C. 12 months

Question 97

A woman begins to breathe rapidly while donating blood. Choose the correct course of action.
A. Continue the donation; rapid breathing is not areason to discontinue a donation
B. Withdraw the needle, raise her feet, and administer ammonia
C. Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag
D. Tell her to sit upright and apply a cold compress to her forehead

Answer 97

C. Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag

Question 98

A whole-blood donor currently on clopidogrel (Plavix) is precluded from donating which product?
A. Platelets
B. Red blood cells
C. FFP
D. Cryoprecipitate

Answer 98

A. Platelets

Question 99

Which of the following vaccinations carries no deferral period?
A. Rubella
B. Varicella zoster
C. Recombinant HPV
D. Smallpox

Answer 99

C. Recombinant HPV

Question 100

Another formula to compute for FMH
= (Fetal cells divided by 2,000) x 5,000 mL
5,000 ML OR 5 LITERS MATERNAL BLOOD VOLUME
A Kleihauer–Betke acid elution test identifies 40 fetal cells in 2,000 maternal red cells. How many full doses of RhIg are indicated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer 100

D. 4

Question 101

All of the following are routinely performed on a cord blood sample except:
A. Forward ABO typing
B. Antibody screen
C. Rh typing
D. DAT

Answer 101

B. Antibody screen

Question 102

The following results were obtained on a 51-year-old male with hepatitis C:
* Anti-A 4+
* Anti-B 4+
* Anti-D 4+
* A1 cells 0
* B cells 0

What should be done next?

A. Retype the patient’s sample to confirm group AB positive
B. Repeat the Rh typing
C. Run a saline control in forward grouping
D. Report the patient as group AB, Rh positive

Answer 102

C. Run a saline control in forward grouping

Question 103

Immunologic analysis has shown that ______ is a major constituent of mucus.
A. Bence-Jones protein
B. Albumin
C. Transferrin
D. Uromodulin

Answer 103

D. Uromodulin

Question 104

Guaiac tests for detecting occult blood rely on the:
A. Reaction of hemoglobin with hydrogen peroxide
B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin
C. Reaction of hemoglobin with ortho-toluidine
D. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hydrogen peroxide

Answer 104

B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin

Question 105

Thoroughly clean between the fingers and under the fingernails for at least ______ ; include thumbs and wrists in the cleaning.
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 10 seconds
D. 20 seconds

Answer 105

D. 20 seconds

Question 106

The correct method for labeling urine specimen containers is to:
A. Attach the label to the lid
B. Attach the label to the bottom
C. Attach the label to the container
D. Use only a wax pencil for labeling

Answer 106

C. Attach the label to the container

Question 107

The method for determining a urine specific gravity that is based on the principle that the frequency of a sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution is:
A. Colorimetric
B. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
C. Refractometry
D. Urinometry

Answer 107

B. Harmonic oscillation densitometry

Question 108

In what circumstance might a sediment be slightly warmed prior to microscopic examination?
A. To hemolyze RBCs
B. To dissolve amorphous urates
C. To increase the specific gravity
D. To correct for temperature in determining the specific gravity

Answer 108

B. To dissolve amorphous urates

Question 109

All of the following are reabsorbed by active transport in the tubules except:
A. Urea
B. Glucose
C. Sodium
D. Chloride

Answer 109

A. Urea

Question 110

In SEVERE yeast infection:
A. Gram-negative coccobacilli
B. Pear-shaped flagellate with undulating membrane
C. Oval structures that may or may not contain a bud
D. Appear as branched, mycelial form

Answer 110

D. Appear as branched, mycelial form

Question 111

Classic starburst pattern in Gram staining:
A. Candida
B. Cryptococus
C. Histoplasma
D. Pneumocystis

Answer 111

B. Cryptococus

Question 112

If during drug testing, the urine temperature is not within range:
A. Accept the sample
B. Reject the sample
C. Report the patient
D. Tell the supervisor or employer, recollection will be necessary

Answer 112

D. Tell the supervisor or employer, recollection will be necessary

Question 113

Albumin reagent strips utilizing the dye ________ has a higher sensitivity and specificity for albumin:
A. DIDNTB
B. TMB
C. DBDH
D. Tetrabromphenol blue

Answer 113

A. DIDNTB

Question 114

Testing of specimen from an outside agency and comparison of results with participating laboratories:
A. External QC
B. Electronic QC
C. Internal QC
D. Proficiency testing

Answer 114

D. Proficiency testing

Question 115

Which of the following light sources is used in atomic absorption spectrophotometry?
A. Hollow-cathode lamp
B. Xenon arc lamp
C. Tungsten light
D. Deuterium lamp
E. Laser

Answer 115

A. Hollow-cathode lamp

Question 116

The most common light source for fluorometry is:
A. Hydrogen lamp
B. Mercury lamp
C. Tungsten lamp
D. Xenon lamp

Answer 116

D. Xenon lamp

Question 117

Colligative properties include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Osmolality
B. Vapor pressure
C. Freezing point
D. Osmotic pressure

Answer 117

A. Osmolality

Question 118

Which of the following bacteria are identified with the use of molecular techniques?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Lactobacillus
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Haemophilus influenzae

Answer 118

C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 119

Transcription is:
A. Producing DNA from DNA
B. Producing proteins from RNA
C. Creating chroosomes from DNA and histone proteins
D. Producing RNA from DNA

Answer 119

D. Producing RNA from DNA

Question 120

How do enzymes catalyze many physiologic processes?
A. By increasing the activation energy
B. By lowering the activiation energy
C. By eliminating the activation energy
D. By adding energy to the reaction

Answer 120

B. By lowering the activiation energy

Question 121

Basophils are known for secreting which of the following substances?
A. C1 convertase
B. Histamine
C. Kallikrein
D. Hagman factor

Answer 121

B. Histamine

Question 122

Which of the following is the primary mechanism causing respiratory alkalosis?
A. Renal failure
B. Hyperventilation
C. Too much bicarbonate
D. Congestive heart failure

Answer 122

B. Hyperventilation

Question 123

Which of the following is the primary mechanism of compensation for metabolic acidosis?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Aldosterone release
C. Release of epinephrine
D. Bicarbonate excretion

Answer 123

A. Hyperventilation

Question 124

If a blood gas specimen is left exposed to the air for an extended period, which of the following changes will occur?
A. pO2 increases, pH and pCO2 decrease
B. pO2 decreases, pH and pCO2 increase
C. pO2 and pH increase, pCO2 decreases
D. pO2 and pH decrease, pCO2 increases

Answer 124

C. pO2 and pH increase, pCO2 decreases

Question 125

The largest lipoprotein molecule:
A. LDL
B. VLDL
C. Chylomicron
D. HDL

Answer 125

C. Chylomicron

Question 126

What is the smallest lipoprotein molecule?
A. Chylomicron
B. LDL
C. VLDL
D. HDL

Answer 126

D. HDL

Question 127

Which of the following conditions is the result of alpha1-antitrypsin level lower than 11 mmol/L?
A. Emphysema
B. Asthma
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Sarcoidosis

Answer 127

A. Emphysema

Question 128

Which of the following disease is associated with formation of gastrin-producing tumors?
A. Helicobacter pylori disease
B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
C. Pancreatitis
D. Tropical sprue

Answer 128

B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Question 129

The anti-acetylcholine receptor test is used to help diagnose which of the following diseases?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta

Answer 129

B. Myasthenia gravis

Question 130

Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated proteins) is specifically associated with which autoimmune disease?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Autoimmune hepatitis
D. Goodpasture’s syndrome

Answer 130

A. Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 131

Anti-epileptic drugs that are monitored by therapeutic drug monitoring include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Phenytoin
B. Theophylline
C. Carbamazepine
D. Ethosuximide

Answer 131

B. Theophylline

Question 132

Carbon monoxide is toxic because:
A. Exposure occurs by inhalation and transdermal absorption.
B. It binds very tightly to hemoglobin and does not allow oxygen to attach to hemoglobin.
C. It binds very tightly to tissue cells and does not allow carbon dioxide to be released into the lungs.
D. It binds very tightly to the myoglobin and does not allow oxygen to attach to the myoglobin.

Answer 132

B. It binds very tightly to hemoglobin and does not allow oxygen to attach to hemoglobin.

Question 133

The most serious effect of methanol ingestion is:
A. Hallucinations
B. Blindness
C. Psychosis
D. Liver damage

Answer 133

B. Blindness

Question 134

Which of the following is the most common application of immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)?
A. Identification of the absence of a normal serum protein
B. Structural abnormalities of proteins
C. Screening for circulating immune complexes
D. Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies

Answer 134

D. Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies

Question 135

Which test is the most sensitive in detecting early monoclonal gammopathies?
A. High-resolution serum protein electrophoresis
B. Urinary electrophoresis for monoclonal lightchains
C. Capillary electrophoresis of serum and urine
D. Serum-free light chain immunoassay

Answer 135

D. Serum-free light chain immunoassay

Question 136

Which test is the most useful way to evaluate the response to treatment for multiple myeloma?
A. Measure of total immunoglobulin
B. Measurement of 24-hour urinary light chainconcentration (Bence–Jones protein)
C. Capillary electrophoresis of M-protein recurrence
D. Measurement of serum-free light chains

Answer 136

D. Measurement of serum-free light chains

Question 137

Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure?
A. Chloride
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Bicarbonate

Answer 137

C. Sodium

Question 138

Which of the following conditions will elevate ionized calcium?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Acidosis
D. Alkalosis

Answer 138

C. Acidosis

Question 139

Which of the following hormones involved in calcium regulation acts by decreasing both calcium and phosphorous?
A. PTH
B. Calcitonin
C. Vitamin D
D. Cortisol

Answer 139

B. Calcitonin

Question 140

What percentage of serum calcium is in the ionized form?
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 80%

Answer 140

B. 50%

Question 141

Kinetic enzymatic assays are best performed during which phase of an enzymatic reaction?
A. Linear phase
B. Lag phase
C. Plateau phase
D. Any phase as long as temperature and pH areconstant

Answer 141

A. Linear phase

Question 142

One international unit of enzyme activity is theamount of enzyme that under specified reaction conditions of substrate concentration, pH, and temperature, causes usage of substrate at the rate of:
A. 1 millimole/min
B. 1 micromole/min
C. 1 nanomole/min
D. 1 picomole/min

Answer 142

B. 1 micromole/min

Question 143

Which of the following conditions is a result of catecholamine excess, includes two classifications (MEN 1 and MEN 2), and may result in death from severe cardiovascular complications?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Conn’s syndrome
C. Addison’s disease
D. Pheochromocytoma

Answer 143

D. Pheochromocytoma

Question 144

Dip and dunk tissue processor:
A. Fluid-transfer
B. Tissue-transfer
C. Specimens are held in a single process chamber or retort and fluids are pumped in and out as required
D. All of these

Answer 144

B. Tissue-transfer

Question 145

Enclosed tissue processor:
A. Fluid-transfer
B. Tissue-transfer
C. Specimens are transferred from container to container to be processed
D. All of these

Answer 145

A. Fluid-transfer

Question 146

Papanicolaou staining consists of how many stains?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer 146

C. 3

Question 147

Ratio of nuclear to cytoplasmic stains in Papanicolaou staining:
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 2:1
D. 3:1

Answer 147

A. 1:2

Question 148

Ratio of cytoplasmic to nuclear stain in Papanicolaou staining:
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 2:1
D. 3:1

Answer 148

C. 2:1

Question 149

What is the second stain in Papanicolaou staining procedure?
A. Sudan III
B. Harris hematoxylin
C. OG-6
D. Eosin azure

Answer 149

C. OG-6

Question 150

Gaucher disease:
A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series

Answer 150

A. Monocyte-macrophage series

Question 151

Niemann-Pick disease:
A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series

Answer 151

A. Monocyte-macrophage series

Question 152

Chédiak-Higashi syndrome:
A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series

Answer 152

B. Neutrophilic series

Question 153

Chronic granulomatous disease:
A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series

Answer 153

B. Neutrophilic series

Question 154

Lazy leukocyte syndrome:
A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series

Answer 154

B. Neutrophilic series

Question 155

All work surfaces should be sanitized at the end of the shift with a solution of:
A. 5% bleach
B. 5% phenol
C. 10% bleach
D. Concentrated bleach

Answer 155

C. 10% bleach

Question 156

The origin of a class A fire is:
A. Paper
B. Electrical
C. Gasoline
D. Hazardous chemicals

Answer 156

A. Paper

Question 157

An example of a preanalytical (preexamination) error is:
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
B. Incorrect identification of a patient
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report.
D. Verbally reporting a laboratory result over the telephone

Answer 157

B. Incorrect identification of a patient

Question 158

An example of an analytical (examination) error is:
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
B. Incorrect patient identification
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report
D. Use of the wrong anticoagulant in the patient sample tube

Answer 158

A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing

Question 159

An example of a postanalytical (postexamination) error is:
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
B. Incorrect patient identification
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report
D. Use of the wrong anticoagulant in the patient sample tube

Answer 159

C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report

Question 160

Blood from the wrong patient is an example of a/an:
A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error
B. Analytical (examination) error
C. Postanalytical (postexamination) error
D. Either A or B

Answer 160

A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error

Question 161

Quality control outside of acceptable limits is an example of a/an:
A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error
B. Analytical (examination) error
C. Postanalytical (postexamination) error
D. Either A or C

Answer 161

B. Analytical (examination) error

Question 162

Highly purified substances of a known composition:
A. Control
B. Standard
C. Plasma
D. Urine

Answer 162

B. Standard

Question 163

STANDARDS are defined as:
A. How close a test result is to the true value
B. Specimens that are similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent
C. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
D. Highly purified substances of known composition

Answer 163

D. Highly purified substances of known composition

Question 164

A CONTROL is defined as:
A. How close a test result is to the true value
B. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent
C. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
D. Measurement of a highly purified substance of known composition

Answer 164

B. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent

Question 165

The MEAN is:
A. Another term for the average
B. Most frequently occurring number in a group of values
C. Number that is midway between the highest and lowest values
D. A representation of a true analyte value

Answer 165

A. Another term for the average

Question 166

The MEDIAN is:
A. Another term for the average
B. Most frequently occurring number in a group of values
C. Number that is midway between the highest and lowest values
D. A representation of a true analyte value

Answer 166

C. Number that is midway between the highest and lowest values

Question 167

The MODE is:
A. Another term for the average
B. Most frequently occurring number in a group of values
C. Number that is midway between the highest and lowest values
D. A representation of a true analytic value

Answer 167

B. Most frequently occurring number in a group of values

Question 168

The purest type of reagent water is:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. All are equal

Answer 168

A. Type I

Question 169

The concentration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is generally at a particular level in serum about 2 to 3 days after implantation. This is the concentration at which most sensitive laboratory assays can give a positive serum hCG result. What is the lowest level of hormone for which most current serum hCG tests can give a positive result?
A. 25 mIU/mL
B. 50 mIU/mL
C. 100 mIU/mL
D. 100,000 mIU/mL

Answer 169

A. 25 mIU/mL

Question 170

In a person with normal glucose metabolism, the blood glucose level usually increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal level after:
A. 30 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 120 minutes

Answer 170

D. 120 minutes

Question 171

Which of the following organs uses glucose from digested carbohydrates and stores it as glycogen for later use as a source of immediate energy by the muscles?
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Thyroid

Answer 171

B. Liver

Question 172

Which of the following electrolytes is the chief cation in the plasma, is found in the highest concentration in the extravascular fluid, and has the main function of maintaining osmotic pressure?
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium

Answer 172

B. Sodium

Question 173

Which of the following laboratory values is considered a positive risk factor for the occurrence of coronary heart disease?
A. HDL cholesterol >60 mg/dL
B. HDL cholesterol <35 mg/dL
C. LDL cholesterol <130 mg/dL
D. Total cholesterol <200 mg/dL

Answer 173

B. HDL cholesterol <35 mg/dL

Question 174

In analyzing cardiac markers, which marker increases first?
A. Myoglobin
B. CK-MB fraction
C. Troponin T
D. Troponin I

Answer 174

A. Myoglobin

Question 175

Which of the following leukemias is most frequently associated with the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?
A. Acute lymphocytic
B. Acute myelogenous
C. Chronic lymphocytic
D. Chronic myelogenous

Answer 175

D. Chronic myelogenous

Question 176

The final identification of crystals in crystal-induced arthritis is best accomplished with:
A. Brightfield microscopy
B. Compensated polarized light microscopy
C. Phase-contrast microscopy
D. Polarized light microscopy

Answer 176

B. Compensated polarized light microscopy

Question 177

PRC function:
Administers, implements, and enforce the laws and policies with respect to the regulation and licensing of the various professions and occupations, including the enhancement and maintenance of professional and occupational standards and ethics.
A. Quasi-Legislative
B. Quasi-Judicial
C. Executive
D. None of these

Answer 177

C. Executive

Question 178

PRC function:
Investigates motu proprio or upon the filing of a verified complaint, any registered professional, any member of the professional regulatory boards, officers and employees under the jurisdiction of the Commission; Issues summons, subpoena and subpoena duces tecum; May hold in contempt erring party or person; May revoke or suspend certificates of registration and professional licenses.
A. Quasi-Legislative
B. Quasi-Judicial
C. Executive
D. None of these

Answer 178

B. Quasi-Judicial

Question 179

PRC function:
Formulates rules and policies on professional regulation. Reviews, revises and approves resolutions embodying policies promulgated by the Professional Regulatory Boards.
A. Quasi-Legislative
B. Quasi-Judicial
C. Executive
D. None of these

Answer 179

A. Quasi-Legislative

Question 180

The Professional Regulation Commission, otherwise known as the PRC, is a ____-man commission attached to office of the President for general direction and coordination.
A. Two-man
B. Three-man
C. Four-man
D. Five-man

Answer 180

B. Three-man

Question 181

It refers to the individual from whom a specimen for drug testing is collected.
A. Practitioner
B. Pusher
C. Protector/coddler
D. Donor/client

Answer 181

D. Donor/client

Question 182

According to RA 9165, a person who knowingly and willfully consents to the unlawful acts and uses his/her influence, power or position in shielding, harboring, screening or facilitating the escape of any person he/she knows, or has reasonable grounds to believe on or suspects:
A. Practitioner
B. Pusher
C. Protector/coddler
D. Donor

Answer 182

C. Protector/coddler

Question 183

A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years

Answer 183

C. One year

Question 184

The chairman and members of the BOARD OF MT shall hold office for ___ year(s) after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified.
A. 1 year or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
B. 2 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
C. 3 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
D. 5 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

Answer 184

C. 3 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

Question 185

Qualification of BOARD EXAMINERS (Board of MT) EXCEPT:
A. Filipino citizen, good moral character
B. Qualified pathologist or duly RMTs
C. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment
D. Not a member of the faculty of any medical technology school for at least two years prior to appointment

Answer 185

C. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment

Question 186

Subject to RANDOM drug test:
A. Applicants for firearm’s license
B. Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcers
C. Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or local government
D. Students of secondary and tertiary schools

Answer 186

D. Students of secondary and tertiary schools

Question 187

Phenol derivatives found in certain intravenous medications produce ______urine on oxidation.
A. Yellow
B. Orange
C. Green
D. Purple

Answer 187

C. Green

Question 188

The only tissue in the body that is hypertonic with respect to normal plasma (i.e., its osmolality is greater than 290 mOsm/kg):
A. Glomerulus
B. Convoluted tubules
C. Renal cortex
D. Renal medulla

Answer 188

D. Renal medulla

Question 189

The sample of choice for measuring blood osmolality is:
A. Serum
B. Plasma
C. Whole blood
D. Serum or plasma may be used

Answer 189

A. Serum

Question 190

Which of the following is a marker for bone resorption?
A. β-trace protein
B. Adiponectin
C. Fibronectin
D. Crosslinked C-telopeptide

Answer 190

D. Crosslinked C-telopeptide

Question 191

Which of the following is a marker for bone formation?
A. Osteocalcin
B. Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)
C. Urinary pyridinoline and deoxypyridinoline
D. Urinary C-telopeptide and N-telopeptide crosslinks (CTx and NTx)

Answer 191

A. Osteocalcin

Question 192

Which of the following ISO standard applies to the clinical laboratory?
A. ISO 9000
B. ISO 7000
C. ISO 15189
D. ISO 15436

Answer 192

C. ISO 15189

Question 193

Which of the ff. published standards for GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP)?
A. CDC
B. DOH
C. WHO
D. OSHA

Answer 193

C. WHO

Question 194

It is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the standard deviations of two groups of data.
A. f test
B. t test
C. Variance
D. Standard deviation index

Answer 194

A. f test

Question 195

It is used to determine whether there is statistically significant difference between the means of two groups of data.
A. f test
B. t test
C. Variance
D. Standard deviation index

Answer 195

B. t test

Question 196

Which of the following plots is best for detecting all types of QC errors?
A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Linear regression

Answer 196

A. Levy–Jennings

Question 197

Which of the following plots is best for comparison of precision and accuracy among laboratories?
A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Linear regression

Answer 197

B. Tonks–Youden

Question 198

Which plot will give the earliest indication of a shift or trend?
A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Histogram

Answer 198

C. Cusum

Question 199

Which Westgard rule determines random error?
A. 1:3s
B. 4:1s
C. 2:2s
D. 10:x

Answer 199

A. 1:3s

Question 200

Low temperature storage prior to testing:
A. Decreased LD4, LD5 and ALP
B. Decreased LD4 and LD5, increased ALP
C. Increased LD4, LD5 and ALP
D. Increased LD4 and LD5, decreased ALP

Answer 200

B. Decreased LD4 and LD5, increased ALP

Question 201

Which one of the following values obtained are diagnostic of diabetes mellitus?
A. 2-hour specimen = 150 mg/dL (8.3 mmol/L)
B. Fasting plasma glucose = 126 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L)
C. Fasting plasma glucose = 110 mg/dL (6.1 mmol/L)
D. 2-hour specimen = 180 mg/dL (9.9 mmol/L)

Answer 201

B. Fasting plasma glucose = 126 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L)

Question 202

To what class of enzymes does lactate dehydrogenase belong?
A. Isomerases
B. Ligases
C. Oxidoreductases
D. Transferases

Answer 202

C. Oxidoreductases

Question 203

In pesticide poisoning, cholinesterase activity is:
A. Normal
B. Decreased
C. Increased
D. Variable

Answer 203

B. Decreased

Question 204

Pathological level are decreased from the normal values by as much as 80 to 90%.
A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Cholinesterase
D. Creatine kinase

Answer 204

C. Cholinesterase

Question 205

Highest elevation of ALP is seen in:
A. Healing bone fracture
B. Hepatitis and cirrhosis
C. Paget’s disease
D. Biliary tract obstruction

Answer 205

C. Paget’s disease

Question 206

The normal ratio of bicarbonate ion to carbonic acid in arterial blood is:
A. 0.03:1
B. 1:20
C. 20:1
D. 6.1:7.4

Answer 206

C. 20:1

Question 207

Four children are admitted with malaise, anorexia, and abdominal pain. Further evaluations reveal mild anemia, erythrocyte basophilic stippling, and profound pica habits. Poisoning by which heavy metal is most likely responsible?
A. Arsenic
B. Iron
C. Mercury
D. Lead

Answer 207

D. Lead

Question 208

The formation of this crystal in urine, although not a constant finding is an important diagnostic clue of ethylene glycol poisoning:
A. Uric acid
B. Ammonium biurate
C. Dihydrate CaoOx
D. Monohydrate CaOx

Answer 208

D. Monohydrate CaOx

Question 209

The system of choice for drug analysis because of its specificity and sensitivity is:
A. HPLC
B. TLC
C. GC/mass spectrometry
D. None of these

Answer 209

C. GC/mass spectrometry

Question 210

The major toxicities of this antibiotic are RED MAN SYNDROME, nephrotoxicity, and ototoxicity:
A. Choramphenicol
B. Penicillin
C. Sulfonamide
D. Vancomycin

Answer 210

D. Vancomycin

Question 211

The Biosafety Level that includes most common laboratory microorganisms and involves organisms such as HBV, HIV and enteric pathogens is:
A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4

Answer 211

B. BSL-2

Question 212

Which one of the following viruses is the leading cause of congenital malformations?
A. Rabies
B. Rhinovirus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus

Answer 212

C. Cytomegalovirus

Question 213

The preferred specific gravity of zinc sulfate solution for the flotation method is:
A. 1.01
B. 1.04
C. 1.18
D. 1.48

Answer 213

C. 1.18

Question 214

The malaria parasite characterized by the presence of multiple ring forms or “banana-shaped” gametocytes in red blood cells is:
A. P. malariae
B. P. vivax
C. P. falciparum
D. P. ovale

Answer 214

C. P. falciparum

Question 215

Cryptosporidium spp. oocysts are best detected in fecal specimens using the:
A. Gram stain
B. Iodine stain
C. Methenamine silver stain
D. Modified acid-fast stain

Answer 215

D. Modified acid-fast stain

Question 216

Small protozoa that have been missed on wet mounts or concentration methods are often detected with:
A. India ink
B. Iodine
C. Giemsa stain
D. Trichrome stain

Answer 216

D. Trichrome stain

Question 217

Urine for pregnancy test should have a specific gravity of at least:
A. 1.002
B. 1.003
C. 1.010
D. 1.015

Answer 217

D. 1.015

Question 218

Refractometer results are valid up to _______; specimen with greater than (your answer) should be diluted and remeasured.
A. 1.020
B. 1.025
C. 1.030
D. 1.035

Answer 218

D. 1.035

Question 219

The method for determining a specific gravity that is based on the principle that the frequency of a sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution is:
A. Colorimetric
B. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
C. Refractometry
D. Urinometry

Answer 219

B. Harmonic oscillation densitometry

Question 220

It enhances the visualization of elements with low refractive indices such as hyaline cats, mixed cellular casts, mucuous threads and Trichomonas.
A. Bright-field microscopy
B. Polarizing microscopy
C. Phase-contrast microscopy
D. Interference-contrast microscopy

Answer 220

C. Phase-contrast microscopy

Question 221

A decrease in seminal fluid NEUTRAL ALPHA-GLUCOSIDASE suggests a disorder of:
A. Epididymis
B. Prostate
C. Semindal vesicles
D. Any of these

Answer 221

A. Epididymis

Question 222

Powdered anticoagulants should not be sued in tubes for synovial fluid testing because it interferes with:
A. Cell counts
B. Glucose tests
C. Crystal examination
D. Differentials

Answer 222

C. Crystal examination

Question 223

APT test may be requested to distinguish between the presence of fetal blood and maternal blood in an infant’s stool or vomitus. What is the reagent for the test?
A. 1% HCl
B. 2% HCl
C. 1% NaOH
D. 10% NaOH

Answer 223

C. 1% NaOH

Question 224

It serves as the pivotal point for all three complement pathways:
A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C5

Answer 224

C. C3

Question 225

A patient sample is assayed for fasting triglycerides and a triglyceride value of 1036 mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because of its association with which of the following conditions?
A. Coronary heart disease
B. Diabetes
C. Pancreatitis
D. Gout

Answer 225

C. Pancreatitis

Question 226

Which of the following are products of HLA class III genes?
A. T-cell immune receptors
B. HLA-D antigens on immune cells
C. Complement proteins C2, C4, and Factor B
D. Immunoglobulin VL regions

Answer 226

C. Complement proteins C2, C4, and Factor B

Question 227

There is a strong association between ankylosing spondylitis and:
A. HLA-B27
B. HLA-DR3
C. HLA-DR4
D. HLA-A3
E. HLA-BW47

Answer 227

A. HLA-B27

Question 228

Which of the following cell surface molecules is classified as an MHC class II antigen?
A. HLA-A
B. HLA-B
C. HLA-C
D. HLA-DR

Answer 228

D. HLA-DR

Question 229

Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis?
A. Late stage of salicylate poisoning
B. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
C. Renal failure
D. Excessive vomiting

Answer 229

D. Excessive vomiting

Question 230

Severe diarrhea causes:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

Answer 230

A. Metabolic acidosis

Question 231

A patient with emphysema who has fluid accumulation in the alveolar sacs (causing decreased ventilation) is likely to be in which of the following acid-base clinical states?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

Answer 231

B. Respiratory acidosis

Question 232

Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

Answer 232

A. Metabolic acidosis

Question 233

The following conditions are all causes of alkalosis. Which condition is associated with respiratory (rather than metabolic) alkalosis?
A. Anxiety
B. Hypovolemia
C. Hyperaldosteronism
D. Hypoparathyroidism

Answer 233

A. Anxiety

Question 234

Drug associated with rhabdomyolysis:
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Penicillin
C. Statins
D. Aspirin

Answer 234

C. Statins

Question 235

A cloudy urine specimen received in the laboratory may have been preserved using:
A. Boric acid
B. Chloroform
C. Refrigeration
D. Formalin

Answer 235

C. Refrigeration

Question 236

When testing for drugs of abuse in urine, which of the following test results indicate dilution and would be cause for REJECTING the sample?
A. Temperature upon sample submission 92°F
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL
C. pH 5.8; temperature 94°F
D. Specific gravity 1.012, creatinine 25 mg/dL

Answer 236

B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL

Question 237

SITUATION: A urine sample is received in the laboratory with the appropriate custody control form, and a request for drug of abuse screening. Which test result would be cause for REJECTING the sample?
A. Temperature after collection 95°F
B. pH 5.0
C. Specific gravity 1.005
D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL

Answer 237

D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL

Question 238

Retention of paraffin blocks:
A. 7 days
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 10 years

Answer 238

D. 10 years

Question 239

Serum sickness:
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

Answer 239

C. Type III hypersensitivity

Question 240

Urine specimen needed for microscopic analysis, additional specimen for repeat analysis, and enough room for the specimen to be mixed by swirling the container:
A. 2 mL
B. 6 mL
C. 8 mL
D. 12 mL

Answer 240

D. 12 mL

Question 241

Centrifugation for urine microscopic examination:
A. RCF of 100 for 2 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
C. RCF of 500 for 5 minutes
D. RCF of 500 for 10 minutes

Answer 241

B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes

Question 242

To be considered as polyuria, urine volume:
A. Greater than 1 liters
B. Greater than 1.5 liters
C. Greater than 2 liters
D. Greater than 2.5 liters

Answer 242

D. Greater than 2.5 liters

Question 243

Paraffin sections are usually cut in the microtome for routine histologic procedures with a thickness of:
A. 1-2 micra
B. 2-4 micra
C. 4-6 micra
D. 6-8 micra

Answer 243

C. 4-6 micra

Question 244

For manual impregnation, at least ___ changes of wax are required at 15 minutes interval to ensure complete removalof the clearing agent from the tissue.
A. Two (2) changes
B. Three (3) changes
C. Four (4) changes
D. Five (5) changes

Answer 244

C. Four (4) changes

Question 245

It is considered to be as the best vital dye.
A. Janus green
B. Neutral red
C. Nile blue
D. Toluidine blue

Answer 245

B. Neutral red

Question 246

It is used for demonstrating mitochondria during vital staining:
A. Janus green
B. Neutral red
C. Nile blue
D. Toluidine blue

Answer 246

A. Janus green

Question 247

IgA in serum:
A. Monomer
B. Dimer
C. Pentamer
D. Any of these

Answer 247

A. Monomer

Question 248

IgA in secretion:
A. Monomer
B. Dimer
C. Pentamer
D. Any of these

Answer 248

B. Dimer

Question 249

The HLA complex is located primarily on:
A. Chromosomes
B. Chromosome 6
C. Chromosome 9
D. Chromosome 17

Answer 249

B. Chromosome 6

Question 250

The portion of an antigen that binds to an antibody or T cell receptor is called a(n):
A. Allergin
B. Paratope
C. Epitope
D. Valence

Answer 250

C. Epitope

Question 251

A patient report states the presence of serum antibodies to OspC. What disease does the patient most likely have?
A. Syphilis
B. Strep throat
C. Lyme disease
D. Rubella

Answer 251

C. Lyme disease

Question 252

Why does vaccination against hepatitis B virus (HBV) also prevent hepatitis D virus (HDV) infections?
A. An immunogen from HBV in thevaccine is also associated with HDV.
B. The HBV vaccine induces formationof heterophile antibodies that crossreact with HDV.
C. The HBV vaccine stimulates liver cells to produce antiviral molecules active against all hepatitis viruses.
D. HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV.

Answer 252

D. HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV.

Question 253

The three complement activation pathways converge at the point of cleavage of complement component _____.
A. C3
B. C5
C. C7
D. C8

Answer 253

A. C3

Question 254

Which complement component is present in the greatest quantity in plasma?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8

Answer 254

B. 3

Question 255

Patients with Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia exhibit abnormally large amounts of:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgA

Answer 255

A. IgM

Question 256

Reagent for the APT’s test:
A. Guaiac
B. 1% sodium hydroxide
C. 95% ethanol
D. 10% eosin

Answer 256

B. 1% sodium hydroxide

Question 257

Fetal hemoglobin (Hb F) in Apt’s test
A. Pink solution
B. Pink precipitate
C. Yellow-brown supernatant
D. Yellow-brown precipitate

Answer 257

A. Pink solution

Question 258

Adult hemoglobin (Hb A) in Apt’s test
A. Pink solution
B. Pink precipitate
C. Yellow-brown supernatant
D. Yellow-brown precipitate

Answer 258

C. Yellow-brown supernatant

Question 259

MSDS information includes:
A. General and emergency information.
B. Highly technical chemical formulas.
C. Information on competitor products.
D. Product manufacturing conditions.

Answer 259

A. General and emergency information.

Question 260

Which of the following patients would require CONTACT precautions pending a diagnosis?
A. A child with a maculopapular rash highly suggestive of rubeola (measles)
B. A diapered patient with symptoms of infection with an enteric pathogen
C. An HIV-positive patient who has a cough, fever, and pulmonary infiltrate
D. A man with a severe persistent cough indica- tive of Bordetella pertussis

Answer 260

B. A diapered patient with symptoms of infection with an enteric pathogen

Question 261

This equipment is required when one is collecting a specimen from a patient in airborne isolation.
A. Eye protection
B. Full face shield
C. Mask and goggles
D. N95 respirator

Answer 261

D. N95 respirator

Question 262

You accidentally splash a bleach solution into your eyes while preparing it for cleaning purposes. What is the first thing to do?
A. Dry your eyes quickly with a clean paper towel or tissue.
B. Flush your eyes with water for a minimum of 15 minutes.
C. Proceed to the emergency room as quickly as possible.
D. Put 10 to 20 drops of saline into your eyes immediately.

Answer 262

B. Flush your eyes with water for a minimum of 15 minutes.

Question 263

What is the best way to clean up blood that has dripped on the arm of a phlebotomy chair?
A. Absorb it with a gauze pad and clean the area with disinfectant.
B. Rub it with a damp cloth and wash the area with soap and water.
C. Wait for it to dry and then scrape it into a biohazard container.
D. Wipe it with an alcohol pad using an outward circular motion.

Answer 263

A. Absorb it with a gauze pad and clean the area with disinfectant.

Question 264

Which of the following is considered the best means of preventing nosocomial infection?
A. Current immunization
B. Glove use if indicated
C. Isolation procedures
D. Proper hand hygiene

Answer 264

D. Proper hand hygiene

Question 265

What precautions are to be used for a patient who has an enteric pathogen?
A. Airborne
B. Contact
C. Droplet
D. Standard

Answer 265

B. Contact

Question 266

The first thing to do in the event of electrical shock to a coworker or patient is to:
A. Call for medical assistance.
B. Keep the patient warm.
C. Shut off the electricity source.
D. Start CPR if indicated.

Answer 266

C. Shut off the electricity source.

Question 267

This gland produces “fight or flight” hormones.
A. Adrenal
B. Pancreas
C. Pituitary
D. Thyroid

Answer 267

A. Adrenal

Question 268

Which of the following are all anticoagulants that remove calcium from the specimen by forming insoluble calcium salts and therefore preventing coagulation?
A. EDTA, lithium heparin, citrate
B. NaF, sodium heparin, EDTA
C. Oxalate, SPS, sodium heparin
D. Sodium citrate, EDTA, oxalate

Answer 268

D. Sodium citrate, EDTA, oxalate

Question 269

Which of the following is one reason the ETS is the preferred blood collection system?
A. Exposure of the blood to contaminants is avoided.
B. It is easier to see the flash when entering a vein.
C. The collector’s exposure to blood is eliminated.
D. Using a syringe can collapse a vein more easily.

Answer 269

A. Exposure of the blood to contaminants is avoided.

Question 270

Which of the following is a disinfectant?
A. Benzalkonium chloride
B. Chlorhexidine gluconate
C. Household bleach
D. Hydrogen peroxide

Answer 270

C. Household bleach

Question 271

Which is the best tube for collecting an ETOH(ethanol) specimen?
A. Gray top
B. Green top
C. Lavender top
D. Light-blue top

Answer 271

A. Gray top

Question 272

Identify the tubes needed to collect a CBC, PTT, and STAT potassium by color and in the proper order of collection for a multitube draw:
A. Gold top, yellow top, light-blue top
B. Lavender top, serum separator tube (SST), royal-blue top
C. Light-blue top, green top, lavender top
D. Red top, gray top, light-blue top

Answer 272

C. Light-blue top, green top, lavender top

Question 273

A pink-top tube containing EDTA is primarily used for:
A. Blood bank tests.
B. Chemistry tests.
C. Coagulation tests.
D. Microbiology tests.

Answer 273

A. Blood bank tests.

Question 274

A test that is ordered STAT should be collected:
A. As soon as it is possible to do so.
B. Immediately, without any hesitation.
C. On the next closest scheduled sweep.
D. Within 1 hour of the test request.

Answer 274

B. Immediately, without any hesitation.

Question 275

When a test is ordered ASAP, it means that:
A. The patient is in critical condition and needs immediate attention.
B. The patient requires a test in which timing of collection is critical.
C. Results are needed soon for an appropriate response.
D. Results from blood work are needed for medication.

Answer 275

C. Results are needed soon for an appropriate response.

Question 276

A patient who is NPO:
A. Cannot have any food or drink.
B. Cannot have anything but water.
C. Is in critical but stable condition.
D. Is recovering from minor surgery.

Answer 276

A. Cannot have any food or drink.

Question 277

Which liquid is acceptable to drink when one is fasting?
A. Black coffee
B. Diet soda
C. Plain water
D. Sugarless tea

Answer 277

C. Plain water

Question 278

There is a sign above the patient’s bed that reads, “No blood pressures or venipuncture, right arm”. The patient has an intravenous (IV) line in the left forearm. You have a request to collect a complete blood count (CBC) on the patient. How should you proceed?

A. Ask the patient’s nurse to collect the specimen from the IV.
B. Ask the patient’s nurse what to do when the sign is posted.
C. Collect a CBC from the right arm without using a tourniquet.
D. Collect the specimen from the left hand by finger puncture.

Answer 278

D. Collect the specimen from the left hand by finger puncture.

Question 279

The medical record number on the ID band matches the number on your requisition, but the patient’s name is spelled differently than the one on your requisition. What should you do?
A. Collect the specimen and report the error to the patient’s nurse.
B. Do not collect the specimen until the difference is resolved.
C. Draw the specimen because the medical record number matches.
D. Make the correction on the requisition and draw the specimen.

Answer 279

B. Do not collect the specimen until the difference is resolved.

Question 280

Your patient is not wearing an ID band. You see that the ID band is taped to the nightstand. The information matches your requisition. What do you do?
A. Ask the patient to state her name; if it matches the requisition, continue.
B. Ask the patient’s nurse to attach an ID band and proceed when it is attached.
C. Go to the nurses’ station, get an ID bracelet, attach it, and then proceed.
D. Tell the nurse that you will not collect the specimen and return to the lab.

Answer 280

B. Ask the patient’s nurse to attach an ID band and proceed when it is attached.

Question 281

An unconscious inpatient does not have an ID band. The name on an envelope on the patient’s nightstand matches with the requisition. What should you do?
A. Ask the nurse to verify the patient’s ID and collect the specimen.
B. Complete the required procedure and then file an incident report.
C. Do not start any procedure until the nurse attaches an ID bracelet.
D. Make a computer entry to will alert other phlebotomists of the issue.

Answer 281

C. Do not start any procedure until the nurse attaches an ID bracelet.

Question 282

What is the best angle to use for needle insertion during routine venipuncture?
A. Less than 15 degrees
B. 30 degrees or less
C. 35 to 45 degrees
D. 45 to 60 degrees

Answer 282

B. 30 degrees or less

Question 283

A diabetic outpatient has had a mastectomy on her right side and cannot straighten her left arm because of arthritis. The best place to collect a blood specimen is:
A. An ankle or foot vein on either of her legs.
B. The left forearm or hand, using a butterfly.
C. The right arm below the antecubital fossa.
D. The right hand, using a capillary puncture.

Answer 283

B. The left forearm or hand, using a butterfly.

Question 284

The best specimens to use for establishing inpatient reference ranges for blood tests are:
A. Basal-state specimens.
B. Fasting specimens.
C. Postprandial specimens.
D. Steady-state specimens.

Answer 284

A. Basal-state specimens.

Question 285

If you have no choice but to collect a specimen from an arm with a hematoma, collect the specimen:
A. Above it.
B. Beside it.
C. Distal to it.
D. Through it.

Answer 285

C. Distal to it.

Question 286

According to CLSI, depth of heel puncture should not exceed:
A. 1.5 mm.
B. 2.0 mm.
C. 2.4 mm.
D. 4.9 mm.

Answer 286

B. 2.0 mm.

Question 287

Which of the following tests would not be subject to therapeutic drug monitoring?
A. Digitoxin
B. Gentamicin
C. Phenylalanine
D. Theophylline

Answer 287

C. Phenylalanine

Question 288

Which of the following is one of the most common bedside or POCT tests?
A. Bilirubin
B. Cholesterol
C. Glucose
D. Troponin

Answer 288

C. Glucose

Question 289

Specimens can be delivered to the laboratory by which of the following methods?
A. Elevators
B. Internal mail systems
C. Pneumatic tubes
D. Phone calls

Answer 289

C. Pneumatic tubes

Question 290

A pneumatic tube is a:
A. Pressurized air transportation system.
B. Temporary computer data storage unit.
C. Tube connection between two computers.
D. Type of collection tube for blood gases.

Answer 290

A. Pressurized air transportation system.

Question 291

A sample of blood is collected for glucose in a sodium fluoride tube before the patient has had breakfast. The physician calls 2 hours later and requests that determination of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) be performed on the same sample rather than obtaining another specimen.

The automated analyzer in your laboratory utilizes the urease method to quantify BUN. What should you tell the physician?

A. Will gladly do the test if sufficient specimen remains
B. Could do the test using a micromethod
C. Can do the BUN determination on the automated analyzer
D. Cannot perform the procedure

Answer 291

D. Cannot perform the procedure

Question 292

To prepare 100 mL of a 1:10 dilution of bleach, add:
A. 1 mL water to 100 mL bleach.
B. 1 mL bleach to 99 mL water.
C. 10 mL bleach to 90 mL water.
D. 10 mL water to 100 mL bleach.

Answer 292

C. 10 mL bleach to 90 mL water.

Question 293

Convert 20% to ratio:
A. 1:2
B. 1:5
C. 1:10
D. 1:20

Answer 293

B. 1:5

Question 294

How much NaCl should be dissolved to 1 liter water to prepare NSS? normal saline is 0.9% NaCl…
A. 0.9 grams
B. 9 grams
C. 90 grams
D. 45 grams

Answer 294

B. 9 grams

Question 295

How much NaCl should be dissolved to 2 liters water to prepare NSS? normal saline is 0.9% NaCl…
A. 0.18 grams
B. 18 grams
C. 180 grams
D. 360 grams

Answer 295

B. 18 grams

Question 296

How many liters are in 4 dL?
A. 400
B. 40
C. 0.4
D. 0.04

Answer 296

C. 0.4

Question 297

How many liters are in 3 uL?
A. 0.003
B. 0.000003
C. 0.0000003
D. 0.000000003

Answer 297

B. 0.000003

Question 298

How many micrograms are in 10 mg?
A. 100
B. 1,000
C. 10,000
D. 100,000

Answer 298

C. 10,000

Question 299

In the calculation of the mean, what does “n” represent?
A. The sum of the values
B. The number of values in the set
C. The average of the values
D. The middle number of the set

Answer 299

B. The number of values in the set

Question 300

Which of the following pairs of concepts are correctly matched?

A. Sensitivity: prevent false negatives; specificity:prevent false positives
B. Sensitivity: prevent false positives; specificity:prevent false negatives
C. Sensitivity: precision; specificity: accuracy
D. Sensitivity: coefficient of variation; specificity: standard deviation

Answer 300

A. Sensitivity: prevent false negatives; specificity:prevent false positives

Question 301

Which of the following statistics is equivalent to the square root of the variance?
A. Coefficient of variation
B. Standard deviation
C. Sensitivity
D. Specificity

Answer 301

B. Standard deviation

Question 302

To prevent the formation of formalin pigment in tissues, formalin should be:
A. Heated
B. Cooled
C. Buffered
D. Acidified

Answer 302

C. Buffered

Question 303

Tissue stored for long periods of time in unbuffered formalin or in acetate-buffered formalin may show brown, crystalline pigment in stained sections. To remove this pigment prior to staining it is necessary to treat the section in:
A. Saturated alcoholic picric acid
B. Alcoholic lithium chloride
C. Iodine and sodium thiosulfate
D. Potassium permanganate and oxalic acid

Answer 303

A. Saturated alcoholic picric acid

Question 304

A physical agent used in fixation is:
A. Stabilization of protein
B. Heat
C. Coagulation
D. Alcohol

Answer 304

B. Heat

Question 305

For good fixation it is recommended that the tissue be no larger than:
A. 2 cm square and 1 to 2 mm thick
B. 2 cm square and 3 to 4 mm thick
C. 3 cm square and 1 to 2 mm thick
D. 3 cm square and 3 to 4 mm thick

Answer 305

B. 2 cm square and 3 to 4 mm thick

Question 306

A universal fixative used for routine purposes and which allows a broad spectrum of staining procedures is:
A. Zenker fluid
B. Zamboni PAF
C. 10% neutral buffered formalin
D. Carnoy solution

Answer 306

C. 10% neutral buffered formalin

Question 307

A microwave oven can be used for fixation because it:
A. Causes cross-linking of proteins
B. Induces physical fixation
C. Increases tissue basophilia
D. Inactivates enzymes with beta-radiation

Answer 307

B. Induces physical fixation

Question 308

Tissue sections were stained for the recommended time with an H and E procedure using Harris hematoxylin. A quality control check shows pale nuclear staining. A likely cause of this could be:
A. Too much alum mordant in the stock hematoxylin solution
B. Insufficient time in the acid differentiator
C. Too much time in the acid differentiator
D. Prolonged dehydration and clearing

Answer 308

C. Too much time in the acid differentiator

Question 309

A method for demonstrating the nucleic acids, in which the DNA stains green and the RNA stains red, is:
A. Feulgen reaction
B. Methyl green-pyronin
C. Masson trichrome
D. Gomori trichrome

Answer 309

B. Methyl green-pyronin

Question 310

The pigment commonly known as “wear and tear pigment” or “brown atrophy” is:
A. Hemofuscin
B. Ceroid
C. Lipofuscin
D. Hemosiderin

Answer 310

C. Lipofuscin

Question 311

Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain:
A. 4% formaldehyde
B. 10% formaldehyde
C. 37% to 40% formaldehyde
D. 98% to 100% formaldehyde

Answer 311

C. 37% to 40% formaldehyde

Question 312

For best results when using formalin as a routine fixative, it must be made:
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. Isoelectric

Answer 312

C. Neutral

Question 313

Generally, an increase in the temperature of the fixative solution:
A. Decreases the tissue autolysis
B. Decreases the fixative penetration
C. Increases the speed of fixation
D. Increases the volume of fixative needed

Answer 313

C. Increases the speed of fixation

Question 314

The criteria for a GOOD STANDARD CURVE:
A. The line is straight
B. The line connects all points
C. The line goes through the origin, or intersect, of the two axes
D. All of the above

Answer 314

D. All of the above

Question 315

At 0730, the phlebotomist receives requests for a cortisol level on Unit 4B, a fasting blood sugar (FBS) on Unit 4A, and a stat crossmatch in the ER. In which order should the phlebotomist collect these samples?
A. Cortisol, FBS, crossmatch
B. FBS, cortisol, crossmatch
C. Crossmatch, FBS, cortisol
D. FBS, crossmatch, cortisol

Answer 315

C. Crossmatch, FBS, cortisol

Question 316

Calculation of the anion gap is useful for quality control for:
A. Calcium
B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate)
C. Phosphorus
D. Magnesium

Answer 316

B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate)

Question 317

Creatinine concentration in the blood is affected by:
A. Muscle mass
B. Age and gender
C. Dietary protein intake
D. A and B

Answer 317

D. A and B

Question 318

The variants demonstrate a wide variety of cellular interactions including roles in cell adhesion, tissue differentiation, growth, and wound healing:
A. Adiponectin
B. Cystatin
C. Fibronectin
D. Troponin

Answer 318

C. Fibronectin

Question 319

It is defined as parts per hundred parts:
A. Percent
B. Ratio
C. Molarity
D. Normality

Answer 319

A. Percent

Question 320

Which group of tests best differentiates Helicobacter pylori from C. jejuni?
A. Catalase, oxidase, and Gram stain
B. Catalase, oxidase, and nalidixic acid sensitivity
C. Catalase, oxidase, and cephalothin sensitivity
D. Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis

Answer 320

D. Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis

Question 321

It is more frequent in populations living in conditions of poverty or poor hygiene, in day care centers, and in persons living in institutional settings or prisons.
A. Diphyllobothrim latum
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. Taenia solium
D. Taenia saginata

Answer 321

B. Hymenolepis nana

Question 322

Neutrophils lyse rapidly in:
A. Acetic acid
B. Ether
C. Dilute acid urine
D. Dilute alkaline urine

Answer 322

D. Dilute alkaline urine

Question 323

Reverse isolation may be used for:
A. A patient with the measles
B. An adult patient with the flu
C. A patient with tuberculosis
D. A patient with severe burns

Answer 323

D. A patient with severe burns

Question 324

The recommended cleaner for removing oil from objectives is:
A. 70% isopropyl alcohol or lens cleaner
B. Xylene
C. Water
D. Benzene

Answer 324

A. 70% isopropyl alcohol or lens cleaner

Question 325

Abnormal proliferation of both erythroid and granulocytic precursors; may include abnormal megakaryocytic and monocytic proliferations, Also known as Di Guglielmo syndrome:
A. M4
B. M5
C. M6
D. M7

Answer 325

C. M6

Question 326

All of the following statements are true for IgE, except:
A. Most heat-stable of all immunoglobulins
B. Activate mast cells and basophils
C. Least abundant immunoglobulin in the serum
D. Serve a protective role by triggering an acute inflammatory reaction that recruits neutrophils and eosinophils to the area

Answer 326

A. Most heat-stable of all immunoglobulins

Question 327

Papain digestion of an IgG molecule results in which of the following?
A. 2 Fab’ and 1 Fc’ fragment
B. F(ab’)2 and 1 Fc’ fragment
C. 2 Fab and 2 Fc fragments
D. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment

Answer 327

D. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment

Question 328

A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years

Answer 328

C. One year

Question 329

Cell death due to ischemia is known as Infarction and is manifested by a characteristic histologic appearance which is:
A. Coagulation necrosis
B. Liquefaction necrosis
C. Fat necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis

Answer 329

A. Coagulation necrosis

Question 329

A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years

Answer 329

C. One year

Question 330

These knives are used to cut block for ELECTRON MICROSCOPY (EM):
A. Disposal blades
B. Steel knives
C. Diamond or glass knives
D. Magnetic blades

Answer 330

C. Diamond or glass knives

Question 331

Microtome knives for PARAFFIN SECTIONING are usually made of:
A. Carbon steel
B. Diamond
C. Glass
D. Iron

Answer 331

A. Carbon steel

Question 332

A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years

Answer 332

C. One year

Question 333

Of all the urine sediment elements, ___ are the MOST DIFFICULT TO RECOGNIZE.
A. Bacteria
B. Epithelial cells
C. RBCs
D. WBCs

Answer 333

C. RBCs

Question 334

All of the following are important to protect the integrity of reagent strips EXCEPT:
A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle
B. Storing in an opaque bottle
C. Storing at room temperature
D. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip

Answer 334

A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle

Question 335

Positive for the cyanide nitroprusside test:
A. Uric acid crystals
B. Cystine
C. Tyrosine
D. Leucine

Answer 335

B. Cystine

Question 336

During seminal fluid microscopic examination, WBCs must be differentiated from:
A. RBCs
B. Yeasts
C. Immature sperms (spermatids)
D. Bacteria

Answer 336

C. Immature sperms (spermatids)

Question 337

Malarial parasites appear bright green and yellow under a fluorescent microscope in the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method. This method uses capillary tube coated with:
A. Auramine-rhodamine
B. Methyl green-pyronine
C. Acridine orange
D. Fluoresceine isothiocyanate

Answer 337

C. Acridine orange

Question 338

Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method for malaria diagnosis:
A. Brightfield microscope
B. Fluorescent microscope
C. Phase-contrast microscope
D. Electron microscope

Answer 338

B. Fluorescent microscope

Question 339

What could be the possible interpretation?
* HBsAg: negative
* Anti-HBc: positive
* Anti-HBs: positive

A. Recovering from acute HBV infection
B. Immune because of natural infection
C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination
D. Chronically infected

Answer 339

B. Immune because of natural infection

Question 340

What could be the possible interpretation?
* HBsAg: negative
* Anti-HBc: negative
* Anti-HBs: positive

A. Recovering from acute HBV infection
B. Immune because of natural infection
C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination
D. Chronically infected

Answer 340

C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination

Question 341

The presence of distinct “drumstick” appendage on the nucleus of a mature neutrophil indicates:
A. Reaction to a toxic material
B. Reaction to bacteria in the blood or tissues
C. A genetic defect in nuclear maturation
D. The presence of a second X chromosome (female sex)

Answer 341

D. The presence of a second X chromosome (female sex)

Question 342

Which of the following would be considered a significant finding in GRAVES DISEASE?
A. Increased TSH levels
B. Antibody to TSHR
C. Decreased T3 and T4
D. Anti-thyroglobulin antibody

Answer 342

B. Antibody to TSHR

Question 343

Autofluorescence is characteristic of this organism:
A. E. histolytica
B. T. vaginalis
C. C. cayetanensis
D. C. parvum

Answer 343

C. C. cayetanensis

Question 344

First-stage larva of flukes that emerge from the egg in fresh water, equipped with cilia, which aid in movement:
A. Cercaria
B. Metacercaria
C. Redia
D. Miracidium

Answer 344

D. Miracidium

Question 345

Schistosomal infection occurs through skin penetration by infected ______ released from a freshwater snail containing the intermediate stages of the schistosome life cycle.
A. Miracidium
B. Redia
C. Cercaria
D. Metacercaria

Answer 345

C. Cercaria

Question 346

During a blood meal, a malaria-infected female Anopheles mosquito INOCULATES ______into the human host.
A. Gametocytes
B. Hypnozoites
C. Merozoites
D. Sporozoites

Answer 346

D. Sporozoites

Question 347

Ingested by an Anopheles mosquito during a blood meal:
A. Gametocytes
B. Hypnozoites
C. Merozoites
D. Sporozoites

Answer 347

A. Gametocytes

Question 348

Location of sperm nucleus:
A. No nucleus
B. Head
C. Neck
D. Tail

Answer 348

B. Head

Question 349

False negative urobilinogen reagent strip:
A. Formalin
B. Methyldopa
C. Porphobilinogen
D. Sulfonamides

Answer 349

A. Formalin

Question 350

A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years

Answer 350

C. One year

Question 351

RBC casts are easily detected under low power by their ____color.
A. Blue color
B. Purple color
C. Yellow color
D. Orange-red color

Answer 351

D. Orange-red color

Question 352

A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years

Answer 352

C. One year

Question 352

A urine specimen with a specific gravity of 1.008 has been diluted 1:5. The actual specific gravity is:
A. 1.008
B. 1.040
C. 1.055
D. 5.040

Answer 352

B. 1.040

Question 353

Red cell suspension in ABO tube typing:
A. Undiluted red cells
B. 2 to 5% in normal saline
C. 20 to 50% in normal saline
D. 20 to 50% in patient’s own serum

Answer 353

B. 2 to 5% in normal saline

Question 354

In 1956, Wiener and coworkers, gave a name to one such agglutinin. The ANTIBODY REACTED WITH MOST BLOOD SPECIMENS TESTED.
A. Anti-P
B. Anti-I
C. Anti-Rh
D. Anti-M

Answer 354

B. Anti-I

Question 355

Antigens were shown to be located on complement receptor 1 (CR1):
A. Diego
B. Indian
C. Cromer
D. Knops

Answer 355

D. Knops

Question 356

Antibody enhanced by acidification:
A. Anti-S
B. Anti-U
C. Anti-N
D. Anti-M

Answer 356

D. Anti-M

Question 357

RBCs of the Gerbich or Leach phenotypes have WEAK EXPRESSION OF _____BLOOD GROUP ANTIGENS,
A. DIEGO
B. KIDD
C. KELL
D. LUTHERAN

Answer 357

C. KELL

Question 358

False negative results at the antiglobulin phase of an antibody screening test are most likely due to:
A. Excessive washing of the red cells
B. Inadequate washing of the red cells
C. Warm autoantibody present in the patient’s serum
D. Failure to allow the blood to clot properly

Answer 358

B. Inadequate washing of the red cells

Question 359

All of the following apply to a double red cell unit apheresis collection EXCEPT:
A. The hematocrit must be at least 38%
B. The weight for a female is at least 150 lbs
C. The height for a male is at least 5 ft 1 in.
D. The deferral period following collection is 16 weeks

Answer 359

A. The hematocrit must be at least 38%

Question 360

Minimum weight of female donors for double RBC pheresis (2RBCs):
A. 90 lbs
B. 110 lbs
C. 130 lbs
D. 150 lbs

Answer 360

D. 150 lbs

Question 361

Minimum weight of male donors for double RBC pheresis (2RBCs):
A. 90 lbs
B. 110 lbs
C. 130 lbs
D. 150 lbs

Answer 361

C. 130 lbs

Question 362

Frequent plasma donors have a total serum protein of at least ___ g/dL:
A. 2 g/dL
B. 3 g/dL
C. 6 g/dL
D. 10 g/dL

Answer 362

C. 6 g/dL

Question 363

A whole-blood donor currently on clopidogrel (Plavix) is precluded from donating which product?
A. Platelets
B. Red blood cells
C. FFP
D. Cryoprecipitate

Answer 363

A. Platelets

Question 364

A donor taking Feldene will not be able to donate platelets for:
A. 2 days
B. 7 days
C. 2 weeks
D. 4 weeks

Answer 364

A. 2 days

Question 365

Minimum hematocrit of male donors for double RBC pheresis (2RBCs):
A. 33%
B. 38%
C. 39%
D. 40%

Answer 365

D. 40%

Question 366

Each unit of whole blood will yield approximately how many units of cryoprecipitated AHF?
A. 40
B. 80
C. 130
D. 250

Answer 366

B. 80

Question 367

LEUKOREDUCED RED CELLS is a product in which the absolute WBC count in the unit is reduced to ____, and contains at least ______ of the original RBC mass.
A. 1 x 10 10th, 85%
B. 3.0 x 10 11th, 85%
C. 5.5 x 10 10th, 85%
D. 5 x 10 6th, 85%

Answer 367

D. 5 x 10 6th, 85%

Question 368

Which transfusion reaction presents with fever, maculopapular rash, watery diarrhea, abnormal liver function, and pancytopenia?
A. Transfusion-associated sepsis
B. Transfusion-related acute lung injury
C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
D. Transfusion-associated allergic reaction

Answer 368

C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

Question 369

Pain at infusion site and hypotension are observed with what type of reaction?
A. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
B. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Allergic reaction
D. Febrile nonhemolytic reaction

Answer 369

B. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

Question 370

The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in which of the following blood group systems?
A. ABO
B. Rh
C. MN
D. Duffy

Answer 370

A. ABO

Question 371

Which of the following most commonly causes an individual to type RhD positive yet possess anti-D?
A. Genetic weak D
B. Partial D
C. C in trans to RHD
D. D epitopes on RhCE protein

Answer 371

B. Partial D

Question 372

Excluding ABO, ___ is rated second only to Rh(D) in terms of immunogenicity.
A. Lewis
B. Kidd
C. Kell
D. Duffy

Answer 372

C. Kell

Question 373

The only presenting sign most often accompanying a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is?
A. Renal failure
B. Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin
C. Active bleeding
D. Hives

Answer 373

B. Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin

Question 374

What may be found in the serum of a person who is exhibiting signs of TRALI (transfusion-related acute lung injury)?
A. Red blood cell alloantibody
B. IgA antibody
C. Antileukocyte antibody
D. Allergen

Answer 374

C. Antileukocyte antibody

Question 375

What antibodies could an R1R1 make if exposed to R2R2 blood?
A. Anti-e and anti-C
B. Anti-E and anti-c
C. Anti-E and anti-C
D. Anti-e and anti-c

Answer 375

A. Anti-e and anti-C

Question 376

Of the following therapeutic agents, those considered to be anti-platelet medications are:
A. Aspirin and Plavix®
B. Coumadin® and heparin
C. Heparin and protamine sulfate
D. Tissue plasminogen activator and streptokinase

Answer 376

A. Aspirin and Plavix®

Question 377

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least _____ Todd units in an adult.
A. 200 Todd units
B. 240 Todd units
C. 320 Todd units
D. 340 Todd units

Answer 377

B. 240 Todd units

Question 378

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least _____ Todd units in a child.
A. 200 Todd units
B. 240 Todd units
C. 320 Todd units
D. 340 Todd units

Answer 378

C. 320 Todd units

Question 379

The MOST COMMON INITIAL clinical manifestation of hemolytic transfusion reaction is:
A. Shock
B. Shortness of breath
C. Fever
D. Bleeding

Answer 379

C. Fever

Question 380

HLA-B8 antigen has been associated with which of the following pairs of diseases?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis and myasthenia gravis
B. Celiac disease and akylosing spondylitis
C. Myasthenia gravis and celiac disease
D. Reiter disease and multiple sclerosis

Answer 380

C. Myasthenia gravis and celiac disease

Question 381

What techniques are necessary for weak D testing?
A. Saline + 22°C incubation
B. Albumin or LISS + 37°C incubation
C. Saline + 37°C incubation
D. 37°C incubation + IAT

Answer 381

D. 37°C incubation + IAT

Question 382

Testing reveals a weak D that reacts 1+ after indirect antiglobulin testing (IAT). How is this result classified?
A. Rh-positive
B. Rh-negative, Du positive
C. Rh-negative
D. Rh-positive, Du positive

Answer 382

A. Rh-positive

Question 383

What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results are negative?
A. Perform additional testing such as typing withanti-A1 lectin and anti-A,B
B. Incubate at 22°C or 4°C to enhance weak expression
C. Repeat the test with new reagents
D. Run an antibody identification panel

Answer 383

B. Incubate at 22°C or 4°C to enhance weak expression

Question 384

A 55-year-old male with early stage prostate cancer diagnosed by biopsy had his prostate gland removed (simple prostatectomy). His PSA prior to surgery was 10.0 ng/mL. If the surgery was successful in completely removing the tumor cells, what would the PSA result be 1 month after surgery?
A. Undetectable
B. 1–3 ng/mL
C. Less than 4 ng/mL
D. Less than 10 ng/mL

Answer 384

A. Undetectable

Question 385

A patient has a prostate-specific antigen level of 60 ng/mL the day before surgery to remove a localized prostate tumor. One week following surgery, the serum PSA was determined to be 8 ng/mL by the same method. What is the most likely cause of these results?
A. Incomplete removal of the malignancy
B. Cross reactivity of the antibody with another tumor antigen
C. Testing too soon after surgery
D. Hook effect with the PSA assay

Answer 385

C. Testing too soon after surgery

Question 386

A newborn is to be tested for a vertically transmitted HIV infection. Which of the following tests is most useful?
A. HIV PCR
B. CD4 count
C. Rapid HIV antibody test
D. HIV IgM antibody test

Answer 386

A. HIV PCR

Question 387

Which of the following is the most sensitive test to detect congenital syphilis?
A. VDRL
B. RPR
C. Microhemagglutinin test for T. pallidum (MHA-TP)
D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Answer 387

D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Question 388

Fibrinogen, which has been implicated as a primary risk factor for thrombotic disorders, increases approximately ___ mg/dL per decade in the elderly (65 to 79 years).
A. 5 mg/dL
B. 8 mg/dL
C. 10 mg/dL
D. 12 mg/dL

Answer 388

C. 10 mg/dL

Question 389

In END-STAGE LIVER DISEASE, the fibrinogen level may fall to less than ____mg/dL, which is a mark of liver failure.
A. Less than 100 mg/dL
B. Less than 150 mg/dL
C. Less than 200 mg/dL
D. Less than 250 mg/dL

Answer 389

A. Less than 100 mg/dL

Question 390

An indicator of PREECLAMPSIA:
A. Cylindruria
B. Ketonuria
C. Hematuria
D. Proteinuria

Answer 390

D. Proteinuria

Question 391

Shelf-life of FFP stored at -18C or colder:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 7 years
D. 10 years

Answer 391

A. 1 year

Question 392

Frozen plasma stored at -65C:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 7 years
D. 10 years

Answer 392

C. 7 years

Question 393

Neutrophil in the maturation-storage phase:
A. 7 to 10 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours

Answer 393

B. 7 to 10 days

Question 394

Basophil in the maturation-storage phase:
A. 7 to 10 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours

Answer 394

D. 12 hours

Question 395

Eosinophil in the maturation-storage phase:
A. 2.5 days
B. 3.5 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours

Answer 395

A. 2.5 days

Question 396

Average life span of neutrophils in circulating blood:
A. 7 to 10 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours

Answer 396

A. 7 to 10 hours

Question 397

Average life span of basophils in circulating blood:
A. 7 to 10 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours

Answer 397

C. 8.5 hours

Question 398

Which of the following tumor markers is used to monitor persons with breast cancer for recurrence of disease?
A. Cathepsin-D
B. CA-15-3
C. Retinoblastoma gene
D. Estrogen receptor (ER)

Answer 398

B. CA-15-3

Question 399

Which tumor marker is used to determine the usefulness of TRASTUZUMAB (HERCEPTIN) therapy for breast cancer?
A. PR
B. CEA
C. HER-2/neu
D. Myc

Answer 399

C. HER-2/neu

Question 400

The heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule consists of ____ iron (Fe2+) atom(s) and ____ pyrrole rings that are joined to each other.
A. One iron and two pyrrole rings
B. One iron and four pyrrole rings
C. Two iron and four pyrrole rings
D. Four iron and four pyrrole rings

Answer 400

B. One iron and four pyrrole rings

Question 401

INR range recommended for most indications (e.g., treatment or prophylaxis of deep venous thrombosis [DVT], or prevention of further clotting in patients who have had a myocardial infarction):
A. 1.0 to 1.5
B. 1.5 to 2.0
C. 2.0 to 3.0
D. 2.5 to 3.5

Answer 401

C. 2.0 to 3.0

Question 402

INR recommended for patients with prosthetic heart valves:
A. 1.0 to 1.5
B. 1.5 to 2.0
C. 2.0 to 3.0
D. 2.5 to 3.5

Answer 402

D. 2.5 to 3.5

Question 403

The target INR for pulmonary embolism (PE) treatment is ____ for the duration of anticoagulation.
A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0

Answer 403

D. 3.0

Question 404

A patient on therapeutic warfarin will most likely have a(n)
A. Normal PT/INR, increased APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count
B. Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
C. Normal PT/INR, normal APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
D. Increased PT/INR, normal APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count

Answer 404

B. Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count

Question 405

Which type of urine sample is needed for a D-xylose absorption test on an adult patient?
A. 24-hour urine sample collected with 20 mL of 6 N HCl
B. 2-hour timed postprandial urine preserved with boric acid
C. 5-hour timed urine kept under refrigeration
D. Random urine preserved with formalin

Answer 405

C. 5-hour timed urine kept under refrigeration

Question 406

Hemoglobin appears for the first time:
A. Pronormoblast
B. Basophilic normoblast
C. Polychromatophilic normoblast
D. Orthochromic normoblast

Answer 406

C. Polychromatophilic normoblast

Question 407

What is the approximate total blood volume in an adult?
A. 1 L
B. 2 L
C. 6 L
D. 12 L

Answer 407

C. 6 L

Question 408

Stem cell mobilization:
1. G-CSF
2. GM-CSF
3. IL-2
4. IL-3
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4

Answer 408

D. 1, 2 and 4

Question 409

Which cell surface membrane marker is used for enumeration of hematopoietic progenictor cell (HPC) enumeration?
A. CD4
B. CD8
C. CD34
D. CD45

Answer 409

C. CD34

Question 410

Thoroughly clean between the fingers and under the fingernails for at least ______ ; include thumbs and wrists in the cleaning.
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 10 seconds
D. 20 seconds

Answer 410

D. 20 seconds

Question 411

A history of cancer, leukemia, or lymphoma is generally a cause for ______ deferral.
A. No deferral
B. 12 months deferral
C. 24 months deferral
D. Indefinite deferral

Answer 411

D. Indefinite deferral

Question 412

The cell selected for chromosome analysis is usually in the ____ stage of cellular division.
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Telophase
D. Anaphase

Answer 412

B. Metaphase

Question 413

Preanalytical (pre-examination) errors, except:
A. Blood specimens collected in the wrong order
B. Incorrect labeling of specimen
C. Improper processing of specimen
D. Wrong assay performed

Answer 413

D. Wrong assay performed

Question 414

Most frequently implicated infected body fluid in HIV and HBV exposure in the workplace:
A. Saliva
B. Blood
C. Urine
D. Seminal fluid

Answer 414

B. Blood

Question 415

Myeloblast stage lasts approximately:
A. 15 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 4.3 days

Answer 415

A. 15 hours

Question 416

Promyelocyte stage lasts about:
A. 15 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 4.3 days

Answer 416

B. 24 hours

Question 417

The stage from myelocyte to metamyelocyte lasts an average of:
A. 15 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 4.3 days

Answer 417

D. 4.3 days

Question 418

In general, cytoplasmic color in younger cells:
A. Pink
B. Red
C. Dark blue
D. Light blue

Answer 418

C. Dark blue

Question 419

Platelet adhesion defect:
A. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
B. Essential athrombia
C. Afibrinogenemia
D. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

Answer 419

A. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

Question 420

Primary platelet aggregation defect(s):
1. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
2. Essential athrombia
3. Afibrinogenemia
4. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 4

Answer 420

B. 2 and 4

Question 421

The most versatile type of stem cell, can develop into any human cell type, including development from embryo into fetus:
A. Multipotential stem cell
B. Pluripotential stem cell
C. Totipotential stem cell
D. None of these

Answer 421

C. Totipotential stem cell

Question 422

A process in which a segment of one chromosome BREAKS AWAY from its normal location:
A. Duplication
B. Deletion
C. Substitution
D. Translocation

Answer 422

D. Translocation

Question 423

Master regulatory hormone of systemic iron metabolism:
A. Ferritin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Hepcidin
D. Transferrin

Answer 423

C. Hepcidin

Question 424

Its most characteristic feature is that the nucleus begins to assume an indented or kidney bean shape, which will continue to elongate as the cell matures.
A. Promyelocyte
B. Myelocyte
C. Metamyelocyte
D. Band

Answer 424

C. Metamyelocyte

Question 425

Enzymes have an optimal reaction temperature, which is:
A. Usually 25C
B. Usually 37C
C. 25C and 37C
D. 40 to 50C

Answer 425

B. Usually 37C

Question 426

To calibrate the pH electrode in a pH/ blood gas analyzer, it is necessary that:
A. The barometric pressure be knownand used for adjustments
B. Calibrating gases of known high and low concentrations be used
C. The calibration be performed at room temperature
D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be used

Answer 426

D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be used

Question 427

Only carbohydrate directly used for energy:
A. Glucose
B. Maltose
C. Fructose
D. Lactose

Answer 427

A. Glucose

Question 428

Enzyme assay useful in forensic clinical chemistry:
A. CK
B. ACP
C. ALT
D. AST

Answer 428

B. ACP

Question 429

If the samples for lactate dehydrogenase (LD) determination cannot be analyzed immediately, it should be stored at ____ and analyzed within 48 hours.
A. 4C
B. 25C
C. 37C
D. -20C

Answer 429

B. 25C

Question 430

It is a measure of overall glucose homeostasis:
A. Random blood sugar
B. Fasting blood sugar
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. Glycosylated hemoglobin

Answer 430

B. Fasting blood sugar

Question 431

AST activity in decreasing order:
A. Heart, liver, skeletal muscles
B. Liver, heart, skeletal muscles
C. Heart, liver, smooth muscles
D. Liver, heart, smooth muscles

Answer 431

A. Heart, liver, skeletal muscles

Question 432

Urea is only a rough estimate of renal function and will not show any significant level of increased concentration until the GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE IS DECREASED BY AT LEAST ____.
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 80%

Answer 432

B. 50%

Question 433

Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

Answer 433

A. Metabolic acidosis

Question 434

In salicylate overdose, what is the first acid-base disturbance present?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

Answer 434

D. Respiratory alkalosis

Question 435

Nondestructive technique for determining the structure of organic compounds:
A. Scintillation counter
B. Freezing point osmometer
C. Mass spectroscopy
D. Nuclear magnetic resonance

Answer 435

D. Nuclear magnetic resonance

Question 436

All of the following inhibit growth hormone secretion, except:
A. Glucose loading
B. Insulin, nutritional deficiencies
C. Thyroxine deficiency
D. Amino acids, sleep, exercise

Answer 436

D. Amino acids, sleep, exercise

Question 437

A steroid hormone produced by the corpus luteum and placenta that prepares the endometrium for blastocyst implantation and maintains pregnancy:
A. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
C. Estriol
D. Progesterone

Answer 437

D. Progesterone

Question 438

Single best hormone to determine whether ovulation has occurred; THERMOGENIC EFFECT, in which basal body temperature rises after ovulation. This effect is of clinical use in marking the occurrence of ovulation.
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Testosterone
D. Thyroxine

Answer 438

B. Progesterone

Question 439

All of the following are naturally occurring opiates except:
A. Morphine
B. Codeine
C. Heroin
D. Opium

Answer 439

C. Heroin

Question 440

At temperature of 4C:
A. Decreased ALP and LD
B. Increased ALP and LD
C. Increased ALP and decreased LD
D. Decreased ALP and increased LD

Answer 440

C. Increased ALP and decreased LD

Question 441

All of the following are tropic hormones, EXCEPT:
A. GH
B. LH
C. FSH
D. TSH

Answer 441

A. GH

Question 442

A procedure with minimal complexity, instrumentation, and personnel requirements so that the results can be quickly determined:
A. Waived test
B. Nonwaived test
C. Definitive test
D. Presumptive test

Answer 442

D. Presumptive test

Question 443

Highly sensitive and specific test in which results can be used as legal evidence:
A. Waived test
B. Non-waived test
C. Definitive test
D. Presumptive test

Answer 443

C. Definitive test

Question 444

In the laboratory, a program that monitors the total testing process with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care:
A. Quality systems
B. Quality control
C. Quality assessment/assurance

Answer 444

C. Quality assessment/assurance

Question 445

A system that verifies the reliability of analytical test results through the use of standards, controls, and statistical analysis:
A. Quality systems
B. Quality control
C. Quality assessment
D. Quality assurance

Answer 445

B. Quality control

Question 446

In an institution, a comprehensive program in which all areas of operation are monitored to ensure quality with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care:
A. Quality systems
B. Quality control
C. Quality assessment
D. Quality assurance

Answer 446

A. Quality systems

Question 447

Electrolytes for acid-base balance:
A. Na+, Cl-, K+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
C. Bicarbonate, Cl-
D. Ca2+ Mg2+

Answer 447

B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-

Question 448

Electrolytes for coagulation:
A. Na+, Cl-, K+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
C. Bicarbonate, Cl-
D. Ca2+ Mg2+

Answer 448

D. Ca2+ Mg2+

Question 449

Which of the following can cause cardiac arrest in the absence of warning symptoms or signs?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia

Answer 449

C. Hyperkalemia

Question 450

Which of the following measurements is necessary to evaluate the cause of hypernatremia?
A. Chloride
B. Glucose
C. Plasma/serum osmolality
D. Urine osmolality

Answer 450

D. Urine osmolality

Question 451

Hyponatremia can be classified according to:
A. Chloride
B. Glucose
C. Plasma/serum osmolality
D. Urine osmolality

Answer 451

C. Plasma/serum osmolality

Question 452

A patient presents with Addison disease. Serum sodium and potassium analyses are performed. What would the results reveal?
A. Normal sodium, low potassium levels
B. Low sodium, low potassium levels
C. Low sodium, high potassium levels
D. High sodium, low potassium levels

Answer 452

C. Low sodium, high potassium levels

Question 453

Which of the following values is the threshold critical value (alert or action level) for low plasma potassium?
A. 1.5 mmol/L
B. 2.0 mmol/L
C. 2.5 mmol/L
D. 3.5 mmol/L

Answer 453

C. 2.5 mmol/L

Question 454

Which of the following values is the threshold critical value (alert or action level) for high plasma sodium?
A. 150 mmol/L
B. 160 mmol/L
C. 170 mmol/L
D. 180 mmol/L

Answer 454

B. 160 mmol/L

Question 455

Positive rheumatoid factor is generally associated with:
A. Hyperglobulinemia
B. Anemia
C. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
D. Azotemia

Answer 455

A. Hyperglobulinemia

Question 456

Sodium is a threshold substance, meaning that no sodium will be excreted in the urine until the renal threshold (a plasma sodium concentration of approximately ____ mmol/L) is exceeded.
A. 90 mmol/L
B. 100 mmol/L
C. 105 mmol/L
D. 120 mmol/L

Answer 456

D. 120 mmol/L

Question 457

Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure?
A. Chloride
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Bicarbonate

Answer 457

C. Sodium

Question 458

It is the major extracellular anion. It is involved in maintaining osmolality, blood volume, and electric neutrality.
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride

Answer 458

D. Chloride

Question 459

Hyponatremia due to increased water retention, EXCEPT:
A. Diuretic use
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Hepatic cirrhosis
D. Congestive heart failure

Answer 459

A. Diuretic use

Question 460

Seventy (70) percent recirculated to the cabinet work area through HEPA; 30% balance can be exhausted through HEPA back into the room or to outside through a canopy unit:
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2

Answer 460

B. BSC Class II, A1

Question 461

Thirty (30) percent recirculated, 70% exhausted. Exhaust cabinet air must pass through a dedicated duct to the outside through a HEPA filter.
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2

Answer 461

C. BSC Class II, B1

Question 462

No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter.
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2

Answer 462

D. BSC Class II, B2

Question 463

PT normal
APTT prolonged

• APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
• APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected
• APTT + aged serum = not corrected

Most likely coagulation factor deficient:
A. Factor I
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX

Answer 463

C. Factor VIII

Question 464

PT normal
APTT prolonged

• APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
• APTT + adsorbed plasma = not corrected
• APTT + aged serum = corrected

A. Factor I
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX

Answer 464

D. Factor IX

Question 465

PT prolonged
APTT prolonged

• APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
• APTT + adsorbed plasma = not corrected
• APTT + aged serum = not corrected

Most likely coagulation factor deficient:
A. Factor I
B. Factor V
C. Factor X
D. Factor II

Answer 465

D. Factor II

Question 466

Patient with severe bleeding
PT normal
APTT prolonged

• APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
• APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected
• APTT + aged serum = corrected

Most likely coagulation factor deficient:
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor XI
D. Factor XII

Answer 466

C. Factor XI

Question 467

Patient with no bleeding tendency
PT normal
APTT prolonged

• APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
• APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected
• APTT + aged serum = corrected

Most likely coagulation factor deficient:
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor XI
D. Factor XII

Answer 467

D. Factor XII

Question 468

In the anti-double-stranded DNA procedure, the antigen most commonly utilized is:
A. Rat stomach tissue
B. Mouse kidney tissue
C. Crithidia luciliae
D. Toxoplasma gondii

Answer 468

C. Crithidia luciliae

Question 469

An acute phase protein that binds to the membrane of certain microorganisms and activates the complement system is:
A. C-reactive protein
B. Tumor necrosis factor alpha
C. Neutrophils
D. Kinins

Answer 469

A. C-reactive protein

Question 470

Which of the following describes an antigen antibody reaction?
A. The reaction is reversible
B. The reaction is the same as a chemical reaction
C. A lattice is formed at prozone
D. A lattice is formed at postzone

Answer 470

A. The reaction is reversible

Question 471

A substrate is first exposed to a patient’s serum, then after washing, anti-human immunoglobulin labeled with a fluorochrome is added. The procedure described is:
A. Fluorescent quenching
B. Direct fluorescence
C. Indirect fluorescence
D. Fluorescence inhibition

Answer 471

C. Indirect fluorescence

Question 472

Patients suffering from Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia demonstrate excesively increased concentrations of which of the following?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD

Answer 472

C. IgM

Question 473

Which of the following is the most common humoral immune deficiency disease?
A. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
B. IgG deficiency
C. Selective IgA deficiency
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

Answer 473

C. Selective IgA deficiency

Question 474

Tumor markers found in the circulation are most frequently measured by:
A. Immunoassays
B. Thin-layer chromatography
C. High-pressure liquid chromatography
D. Colorimetry

Answer 474

A. Immunoassays

Question 475

Typical dilution for manual RBC count:
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200

Answer 475

C. 1:100

Question 476

Typical dilution for manual WBC count:
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200

Answer 476

B. 1:20

Question 477

Typical dilution for manual platelet count:
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200

Answer 477

C. 1:100

Question 478

Typical dilution for manual platelet count:
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200

Answer 478

C. 1:100

Question 479

If fewer than 50 platelets are counted on each side, the procedure should be repeated by diluting the blood to:
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200

Answer 479

B. 1:20

Question 480

If more than 500 platelets are counted on each side, a ___ dilution should be made.
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200

Answer 480

D. 1:200

Question 481

Area counted for manual RBC count:
A. 0.2 mm2
B. 0.4 mm2
C. 1 mm2
D. 4 mm2

Answer 481

A. 0.2 mm2

Question 482

Area counted for manual WBC count:
A. 0.2 mm2
B. 0.4 mm2
C. 1 mm2
D. 4 mm2

Answer 482

D. 4 mm2

Question 483

Area counted for manual platelet count:
A. 0.2 mm2
B. 0.4 mm2
C. 1 mm2
D. 4 mm2

Answer 483

C. 1 mm2

Question 484

For manual WBC count, allow the dilution to sit for ________ to ensure that the red blood cells have lysed.
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes

Answer 484

C. 10 minutes

Question 485

For manual WBC count, after charging the hemacytometer, place it in a moist chamber for _______ before counting the cells to give them time to settle.
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes

Answer 485

C. 10 minutes

Question 486

For manual platelet count, place the charged hemacytometer in a moist chamber for _________ to allow the platelets to settle.
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes

Answer 486

D. 15 minutes

Question 487

Values of the duplicate hematocrits should agree within ____.
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%

Answer 487

A. 1%

Question 488

To improve accuracy of the retic count, have another laboratorian count the other film; counts should agree within _____.
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%

Answer 488

D. 20%

Question 489

The difference between the total cells counted on each side of the counting chamber should be less than ______.
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%

Answer 489

C. 10%

Question 490

High WBC count that can cause turbidity and a falsely high hemoglobin result:
A. WBCs > 10 x 10 9th/L
B. WBCs > 20 x 10 9th/L
C. WBCs > 50 x 10 9th/L
D. WBCs > 70 x 10 9th/L

Answer 490

B. WBCs > 20 x 10 9th/L

Question 491

High platelet count that can cause turbidity and a falsely high hemoglobin result:
A. Platelets > 150 x 10 9th/L
B. Platelets > 200 x 10 9th/L
C. Platelets > 500 x 10 9th/L
D. Platelets > 700 x 10 9th/L

Answer 491

D. Platelets > 700 x 10 9th/L

Question 492

A patient being treated for metastatic carcinoma was found to have a white cell count of 5 × 10^9/L with 5 metarubricytes (nucleated red cells) per 100 white WBCs. What is the corrected white cell count for this patient?
A. 2.1 × 10^9/L
B. 2.4 × 10^9/L
C. 4.8 × 10^9/L
D. 5.2 × 10^9/L

Answer 492

C. 4.8 × 10^9/L

Question 493

The most commonly used dilution for sperm concentration is _____ prepared using a mechanical (positive-displacement) pipette.
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200

Answer 493

B. 1:20

Question 494

For sperm concentration, both sides of the hemocytometer are loaded and allowed to settle for 3 to 5 minutes; then they are counted, and the counts should agree within ____.
A. Within 10%
B. Within 15%
C. Within 20%
D. Within 25%

Answer 494

A. Within 10%

Question 495

When the correct area of a specimen from a patient with a normal RBC count is viewed, there are generally about ____ RBCs per 100x oil immersion field.
A. 10 to 15 RBCs per OIF
B. 20 to 25 RBCs per OIF
C. 100 to 150 RBCs per OIF
D. 200 to 250 RBCs per OIF

Answer 495

D. 200 to 250 RBCs per OIF

Question 496

To evaluate normal platelet numbers in an appropriate area of a blood smear, approximately how many platelets should be observed per oil immersion field?
A. 1-4
B. 4-10
C. 8-20
D. 20-50

Answer 496

C. 8-20

Question 497

To increase accuracy, it is advisable to count at LEAST 200 CELLS when the WBC count is:
A. Higher than 10 x 10^9/L
B. Higher than 20 x 10^9/L
C. Higher than 30 x 10^9/L
D. Higher than 40 x 10^9/L

Answer 497

D. Higher than 40 x 10^9/L

Question 498

If the WBC count is _____ or greater, it would be more precise and accurate to count 300 OR 400 CELLS.
A. 5 x 10^9/L or greater
B. 10 x 10^9/L or greater
C. 40 x 10^9/L or greater
D. 100 x 10^9/L or greater

Answer 498

D. 100 x 10^9/L or greater

Question 499

Which testing platform meets this description? An isolated colony is irradiated by laser, which ionizes the biomolecules and causes them to become accelerated in an electric field. The ionized biomolecules then enter a flight tube where they are separated by their MASS-TO-CHARGE ratio.
A. MALDI-TOF
B. Multiplex PCR
C. Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis
D. Sequencing

Answer 499

A. MALDI-TOF

Question 500

Signal amplification differs from target amplification when designing protocols for identification of nucleic acids. Which of the following is an example of a signal amplification technique?
A. Branched-chain DNA detection
B. Ligase chain reaction
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. Reverse-transcriptase PCR

Answer 500

A. Branched-chain DNA detection

Question 501

Which technique involves PROBE amplification rather than target amplification?
A. Southern blot
B. PCR
C. Transcription-mediated amplification
D. Ligase chain reaction

Answer 501

D. Ligase chain reaction

Question 502

An 18-year-old female with a hematocrit of 38%, temperature of 37C, and blood pressure of 175/ 90 mm Hg presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?
A. Accept
B. TD, blood pressure is too high for a person of her age
C. TD, temperature is too high
D. PD, for all values listed

Answer 502

A. Accept

Question 503

A 22-year-old female with a cousin with AIDS who had taken aspirin the day before and with needle marks on both arms presents to donate WHOLE BLOOD. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?
A. PD, needle marks on both arms
B. TD, needle marks on both arms
C. PD, cousin with AIDS
D. TD, because of the aspirin

Answer 503

A. PD, needle marks on both arms

Question 504

A 63-year-old man with a hemoglobin value of 130 g/L (13 g/dL) and pulse of 80 beats/min, who received human pituitary growth hormone (PGH) when he was 10 years old, presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD,) or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?
A. Accept the donor
B. TD, because of the human PGH
C. PD, because of the human PGH
D. PD, because of the high hemoglobin value

Answer 504

C. PD, because of the human PGH

Question 505

A 38-year-old female weighing 153 lbs, who received the rubella vaccine 2 months previously, presents to donate whole blood. She also received 2 units of packed cells after the delivery of her eighth child 8 weeks ago. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?
A. Accept the donor
B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago
C. PD because of receiving blood products
D. TD because of the rubella vaccine

Answer 505

B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago

Question 506

A decrease in serum haptoglobin accompanies which of the following?

A. Extravascular hemolysis
B. Intravascular hemolysis
C. Extramedullary hematopoiesis
D. Suppressed erythropoiesis

Answer 506

B. Intravascular hemolysis

Question 507

The decreased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) would result in which of the following actions from the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis?
A. Decreased release of TSH from the pituitary gland
B. Increased release of TSH from the thyroid gland
C. Decreased release of thyroid hormones from the thyroid glands
D. Increased release of thyroid hormones from the thyroid glands

Answer 507

C. Decreased release of thyroid hormones from the thyroid glands

Question 508

Which of the following is the best way to handle CAP Proficiency Testing samples?
A. Be extra careful and run the test samples several times before reporting to make sure your results are correct
B. Ensure that quality control and maintenance are acceptable before performing both patient testing and PT testing
C. Double-check your answers before mailing by checking your results with those from another laboratory
D. The most experienced MLS should do all proficiency testing to make sure it is right

Answer 508

B. Ensure that quality control and maintenance are acceptable before performing both patient testing and PT testing

Question 509

The most probable explanation for a patient who presents with an elevated osmolal gap, metabolic acidosis, and calcium oxalate crystals in the urine is:
A. Methanol intoxication
B. Ethanol overdose
C. Ethylene glycol intoxication
D. Cyanide poisoning

Answer 509

C. Ethylene glycol intoxication

Question 510

Alkaline phosphatase values are expected to be increased in all of the following situations except:
A. Child undergoing a growth spurt
B. During a time of increased bone remodeling
C. After a myocardial infarction
D. Paget’s disease

Answer 510

C. After a myocardial infarction

Question 511

Which of the following analytes is helpful in distinguishing a condition affecting the liver from bone disease in the presence of an elevation of ALP?
A. AST
B. ALT
C. ALP
D. GGT

Answer 511

D. GGT

Question 512

In patients with developing subclinical hypothyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______, and fT4 will likely be ______.
A. Decreased, increased
B. Increased, decreased
C. Decreased, normal
D. Increased, normal

Answer 512

D. Increased, normal

Question 513

Which of the following vitamins is less likely to accumulate at toxic levels?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E

Answer 513

B. Vitamin C

Question 514

Which of the following hormones involved in calcium regulation acts by increasing the amount of calcium in the blood by enhancing absorption through the intestines, stimulation of osteoclasts, and suppressing loss in the urine?
A. PTH
B. Calcitonin
C. Vitamin D
D. Cortisol

Answer 514

A. PTH

Question 515

Which enzyme deficiency is most commonly associated with familial hypertriglyceridemia associated with fasting plasma cholomicrons (formerly type I hyperlipoproteinemia)?
A. β Glucocerebrosidase deficiency
B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase deficiency
C. Apo-B deficiency
D. Apo-C-III deficiency

Answer 515

B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase deficiency

Question 516

Which of the following conditions is most consistently associated with secondary hypercholesterolemia?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Pancreatitis
C. Oral contraceptive therapy
D. Diabetes mellitus

Answer 516

A. Hypothyroidism

Question 517

Which of the following mechanisms accounts for the elevated plasma level of β lipoproteins seen in familial hypercholesterolemia (formerly type II hyperlipoproteinemia)?
A. Hyperinsulinemia
B. Apo B-100 receptor defect
C. Apo C-II activated lipase deficiency
D. Apo E3 deficiency

Answer 517

B. Apo B-100 receptor defect

Question 518

Identify the enzyme deficiency responsible for type 1 glycogen storage disease (von Gierke’s disease).
A. Glucose-6-phosphatase
B. Glycogen phosphorylase
C. Glycogen synthetase
D. β-Glucosidase

Answer 518

A. Glucose-6-phosphatase

Question 519

Which of the following abnormal laboratory results is found in von Gierke’s disease?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Increased glucose response to epinephrine administration
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Hyperlipidemia

Answer 519

D. Hyperlipidemia

Question 520

According to the National Cholesterol Education Program, which lipid or lipoprotein class is more important for therapeutic decision making (diet and medication decisions)?
A. Chylomicrons
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. Cholesterol

Answer 520

B. LDL

Question 521

A patient sample is assayed for fasting triglycerides and a triglyceride value of 1036 mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because of its association with which of the following conditions?
A. Coronary heart disease
B. Diabetes
C. Pancreatitis
D. Gout

Answer 521

C. Pancreatitis

Question 522

Which of the following is most likely to produce an elevated plasma potassium result?
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. Diarrhea
D. Hemolysis

Answer 522

D. Hemolysis

Question 523

Which of the following hormones involved in calcium regulation acts by decreasing both calcium and phosphorous?
A. PTH
B. Calcitonin
C. Vitamin D
D. Cortisol

Answer 523

B. Calcitonin

Question 524

Which of the following conditions can “physiologically” elevate serum alkaline phosphatase?
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Diabetes
C. Third-trimester pregnancy
D. Nephrotic syndrome

Answer 524

C. Third-trimester pregnancy

Question 525

One international unit of enzyme activity is theamount of enzyme that under specified reaction conditions of substrate concentration, pH, and temperature, causes usage of substrate at the rate of:
A. 1 millimole/min
B. 1 micromole/min
C. 1 nanomole/min
D. 1 picomole/min

Answer 525

B. 1 micromole/min

Question 526

Precursor for serotonin and melatonin:
A. Glutamine
B. Threonine
C. Tryptophan
D. Tyrosine

Answer 526

C. Tryptophan

Question 527

Thyroid hormones are derived from which of the following?
A. Histidine
B. Cholesterol
C. Tyrosine
D. Phenylalanine

Answer 527

C. Tyrosine

Question 528

The electrolytes sodium, chloride and bicarbonate, because they are present in high concentrations in the ECF, and contribute to over ___ of serum osmolality.
A. 8%
B. 35%
C. 68%
D. 92%

Answer 528

D. 92%

Question 529

Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

Answer 529

A. Metabolic acidosis

Question 530

Which of the following liver conditions shows an increase in both conjugated bilirubin and ALP, manifests with antimitochondrial antibodies, and shows a characteristic lipoprotein X on electrophoresis?
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
C. Alcoholic fatty liver
D. Hepatic tumors

Answer 530

B. Primary biliary cirrhosis

Question 531

Which of the following blood samples would serve best to assay lipoproteins because this anticoagulant acts to preserve lipoproteins?
A. EDTA plasma sample
B. Heparin plasma sample
C. Citrate plasma sample
D. Fluoride plasma sample

Answer 531

A. EDTA plasma sample

Question 532

A nurse calls the laboratory technologist on duty asking about blood collection for the analysis of enzymes (AST, ALP, ALT, GGT, CK). Which of the following tubes would you suggest the technologist collect?
A. Red top
B. EDTA
C. Oxalate
D. Fluoride

Answer 532

A. Red top

Question 533

Failure of laboratory personnel to document the time a semen sample is collected primarily affects the interpretation of semen:
A. Appearance
B. Volume
C. pH
D. Viscosity

Answer 533

D. Viscosity

Question 534

Anticoagulant suitable for most drug analysis.
A. Heparin
B. Citrate
C. Oxalate
D. EDTA

Answer 534

A. Heparin

Question 535

Nonspecific immunity includes all of the following except:
A. Inflammation
B. Phagocytosis by neutrophils
C. B-cell activation to produce antibodies
D. Resident normal flora

Answer 535

C. B-cell activation to produce antibodies

Question 536

Most laboratories use which type of fire extinguisher?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Combination ABC

Answer 536

D. Combination ABC

Question 537

All of the following are differential media except:
A. Blood agar
B. Chocolate agar
C. MacConkey’s agar
D. Eosin methylene blue agar

Answer 537

B. Chocolate agar

Question 538

What is the stain that binds to the nucleic acid of organisms but does not discriminate between gram-positive or gram-negative organisms called?
A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
B. Auramine-rhodamine stain
C. Gram stain
D. Acridine orange stain

Answer 538

D. Acridine orange stain

Question 539

What step in the Gram stain distinguishes between gram-positive and gram-negative organisms?
A. Fixing of the cells to the slide using heat or methanol
B. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone
C. Counterstain of the Gram stain using safranin
D. Application of the mordant, Gram’s iodine

Answer 539

B. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone

Question 540

Dark-field microscopy is used for the microscopic examination of what types of bacteria?
A. Gram-positive cocci such as Staphylococcus aureus
B. Yeast such as Candida tropicalis
C. Gram-negative bacilli such as Escherichia coli
D. Spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum

Answer 540

D. Spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum

Question 541

Which type of enrichment media is used to isolate Neisseria and Haemophilus organisms?
A. Hektoen enteric (HE) agar
B. Todd Hewitt broth
C. Regan Lowe agar
D. Chocolate agar

Answer 541

D. Chocolate agar

Question 542

The following are all bacterial phenotypic characteristics except:
A. Microscopic morphology and staining characteristics
B. Environmental requirements for growth
C. Nutritional requirements and metabolic capabilities
D. The presence of a particular nucleic acid sequence

Answer 542

D. The presence of a particular nucleic acid sequence

Question 543

What is the number of bacteria needed to cause turbidity in broth culture and to be seen with an unaided eye?
A. 10^2 organisms
B. 10^4 organisms
C. 10^6 organisms
D. 10^8 organisms

Answer 543

C. 10^6 organisms

Question 544

When examining fluids by direct microscopic examination, if one organism is seen per oil immersion field, how many organisms per milliliter of specimen are present?
A. 5^5
B. 7^5
C. 15^5
D. 10^5

Answer 544

D. 10^5

Question 545

What temperature is used to achieve DNA denaturation to a single strand?
A. 74 °C
B. 92 °C
C. 94 °C
D. 102 °C

Answer 545

C. 94 °C

Question 546

A widely used hemagglutination test for detecting antibody to Treponema pallidum is:
A. MHA-TP test
B. FTA-ABS test
C. VDRL test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition assay

Answer 546

A. MHA-TP test

Question 547

What substance added to the antigen in the RPR test allows for more macroscopically visible flocculation?
A. Latex particles
B. Extracellular antigens
C. Heparin-magnesium chloride particles
D. Charcoal particles

Answer 547

D. Charcoal particles

Question 548

The mechanism of action for tetracycline is inhibition of:
A. RNA synthesis
B. Cell wall synthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. Membrane function

Answer 548

C. Protein synthesis

Question 549

The two cations known to influence the activity of aminoglycosides are:
A. Sodium and potassium
B. Calcium and potassium
C. Calcium and magnesium
D. Sodium and magnesium

Answer 549

C. Calcium and magnesium

Question 550

Which of these antimicrobial agents inhibits DNA synthesis?
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Beta-lactam agents
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Glycopeptides

Answer 550

A. Fluoroquinolones

Question 551

The two cations known to influence the activity of aminoglycosides are:
A. Sodium and potassium
B. Calcium and potassium
C. Calcium and magnesium
D. Sodium and magnesium

Answer 551

C. Calcium and magnesium

Question 552

The standard inoculum size for AGAR DILUTION susceptibility testing is:
A. 1 × 10^4 CFU/mL
B. 5 × 10^5 CFU/mL
C. 1 × 10^7 CFU/mL
D. 5 × 10^8 CFU/mL

Answer 552

A. 1 × 10^4 CFU/mL

Question 553

All of the following media used for the cultivation of Micrococcaceae are selective except:
A. 5% sheep blood agar
B. Phenyl-ethyl alcohol agar
C. Mannitol salt agar
D. Colistin nalidixic acid agar

Answer 553

A. 5% sheep blood agar

Question 554

A chromogenic cephalosporin is used to detect resistance to:
A. Macrolides
B. Aminoglycosides
C. β-lactams
D. Tetracyclines

Answer 554

C. β-lactams

Question 555

Which test is used for the determination of inducible clindamycin resistance in staphylococci and streptococci?
A. E-test
B. D-zone test
C. A-test
D. CAMP test

Answer 555

B. D-zone test

Question 556

The D-zone susceptibility test is used to test inducible resistance on S. aureus strains demonstrating an initial antibiotic susceptibility profile of:
A. Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin sensitive
B. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive
C. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin resistant
D. Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin resistant

Answer 556

B. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive

Question 557

Resistance to clindamycin can be induced in vitro by
A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Penicillin

Answer 557

B. Erythromycin

Question 558

Necrotizing fasciitis is a serious infection associated with:
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus mitis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

Answer 558

C. Streptococcus pyogenes

Question 559

Which organism produces the CAMP factor enhancing beta hemolysis in the presence of the S. aureus beta lysin?
A. group A streptococci
B. group B streptococci
C. group C streptococci
D. group D streptococci

Answer 559

B. group B streptococci

Question 560

Optochin sensitivity is used to differentiate:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci
B. Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus agalactiae from Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Enterococci from non–group D enterococci

Answer 560

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci

Question 561

Which organism is able to hydrolyze esculin and is a serious nosocomial pathogen?
A. S. bovis
B. S. mitis
C. E. faecalis
D. S. pneumoniae

Answer 561

C. E. faecalis

Question 562

A large, aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rod is isolated from a blood culture. It can be further confirmed as B. anthracis if it is:
A. Hemolytic and motile
B. Hemolytic and nonmotile
C. Nonhemolytic and motile
D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile

Answer 562

D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile

Question 563

Which organism is most commonly associated with human disease, particularly in immunocompromised patients, such as those infected with HIV?
A. Nocardia asteroides
B. Rhodococcus equi
C. Gordonia sp.
D. Tsukamurella sp.

Answer 563

B. Rhodococcus equi

Question 564

Which of the following tests is most helpful in differentiating C.jejuni from the other Campylobacter spp.?
A. Nitrate reduction
B. Urease activity
C. Hippurate hydrolysis
D. Susceptibility to nalidixic acid

Answer 564

C. Hippurate hydrolysis

Question 565

A positive hippurate hydrolysis is a characteristic of:
A. Campylobacter coli
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Campylobacter lari
D. Campylobacter fetus

Answer 565

B. Campylobacter jejuni

Question 566

Campylobacter are:
A. Small, curved, motile, gram-positive bacilli
B. Small, curved, motile gram-negative bacilli
C. Small, curved, nonmotile, gram-negative bacilli
D. Small, curved, nonmotile, gram-negative bacilli

Answer 566

B. Small, curved, motile gram-negative bacilli

Question 567

Specimen characteristics of an anaerobic infection include:
A. Foul odor, presence of sulfur granules, and green fluorescence
B. Foul odor, presence of metachromatic granules, and green fluorescence
C. Foul odor, sulfur smell, and red fluorescence
D. Foul odor, presence of sulfur granules, and red fluorescence

Answer 567

D. Foul odor, presence of sulfur granules, and red fluorescence

Question 568

What is the safe volume of blood to be drawn for pediatric blood cultures?
A. <1 mL
B. 1 to 5 mL
C. 5 to 10 mL
D. 10to20mL

Answer 568

B. 1 to 5 mL

Question 569

When setting up a urine culture, a calibrated loop is used that delivers a specific amount of urine to the media plate. What is that amount?
A. 0.01 or 0.001 mL of urine
B. 0.10 or 0.01 mL of urine
C. 0.001 or 0.0001 mL of urine
D. None of the above is correct

Answer 569

A. 0.01 or 0.001 mL of urine

Question 570

Current recommendations include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of _____ species in serum samples:
A. Bordetella
B. Candida
C. Cryptococcus
D. Mycobacterium

Answer 570

B. Candida

Question 571

Method of choice for diagnosis of congenital toxoplasmosis:
A. Latex agglutination
B. EIA
C. IFA
D. PCR

Answer 571

B. EIA

Question 572

Prenatal congenital toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by performing ______ on amniotic fluid to detect T. gondii DNA:
A. Latex agglutination
B. EIA
C. IFA
D. PCR

Answer 572

D. PCR

Question 573

Method of choice to detect T. gondii DNA in CSF:
A. Latex agglutination
B. EIA
C. IFA
D. PCR

Answer 573

D. PCR

Question 574

Most common and easiest method to detect varicella-zoster virus (VZV) antibodies:
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
B. Fluorescent ab to membrane ag (FAMA)
C. Hemagglutination
D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Answer 574

A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

Question 575

It is considered as the reference method for VZV antibody; most sensitive and most reliable:
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
B. Fluorescent ab to membrane ag (FAMA)
C. Hemagglutination
D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Answer 575

B. Fluorescent ab to membrane ag (FAMA)

Question 576

Gold standard for detecting rickettsial antibodies:
A. ELISA and Immunoblot assays
B. ELISA and Immunoperoxidase assays (IPA)
C. Weil-Felix reaction
D. Indirect fluorescent assay (IFA) and micro-immunofluorescent assay (micro-IF)

Answer 576

D. Indirect fluorescent assay (IFA) and micro-immunofluorescent assay (micro-IF)

Question 577

AUTOFLUORESCENCE requires no stain and is recommended for the identification of:
A. Entamoeba histolytica cysts
B. Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites
C. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites
D. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts

Answer 577

D. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts

Question 578

Speed and time of rotation for serum VDRL test:
A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

Answer 578

C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes

Question 579

Speed and time of rotation for CSF VDRL test:
A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

Answer 579

D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

Question 580

Speed and time of rotation for RPR:
A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

Answer 580

B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes

Question 581

In the RPR test, what is the gauge of the needle for antigen delivery?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 20
D. 21

Answer 581

C. 20

Question 582

In preparation of packed RBCs, if CPDA-1 is used, how many mL of plasma can be removed from whole blood?
A. 50 to 100 mL
B. 100 to 150 mL
C. 200 to 250 mL
D. 250 to 300 mL

Answer 582

C. 200 to 250 mL

Question 583

In plateletpheresis, the total amount of plasma that can be removed along with the platelets is limited to:
A. 200 mL
B. 250 mL
C. 400 mL
D. 500 mL

Answer 583

D. 500 mL

Question 584

Infection mimics acute viral enteritis, bacillary dysentery, bacterial or other food poisonings, acute intestinal amebiasis, or “traveler’s diarrhea” (toxigenic Escherichia coli).
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Isospora belli
D. Cryptosporidum parvum

Answer 584

B. Giardia lamblia

Question 585

Small protozoa that have been missed on wet mounts or concentration methods are often detected with:
A. India ink
B. Iodine
C. Giemsa stain
D. Trichrome stain

Answer 585

D. Trichrome stain

Question 586

Electrolytes for acid-base balance:
A. Na+, Cl-, K+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
C. Bicarbonate, Cl-
D. Ca2+ Mg2+

Answer 586

B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-

Question 587

Electrolytes for coagulation:
A. Na+, Cl-, K+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
C. Bicarbonate, Cl-
D. Ca2+ Mg2+

Answer 587

D. Ca2+ Mg2+

Question 588

Measures the concentration of solute particles in a solution:
A. Fluorometry
B. Nephelometry
C. Osmometry
D. Turbidimetry

Answer 588

C. Osmometry

Question 589

Do not measure the concentration of solute particles in solution
1. Fluorometry
2. Nephelometry
3. Osmometry
4. Turbidimetry

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4

Answer 589

D. 1, 2 and 4

Question 590

Do not measure the concentration of solute particles in solution
1. Fluorometry
2. Nephelometry
3. Osmometry
4. Turbidimetry

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4

Question 591

Biochemically speaking, what type of molecules are Rh antigens?
A. Glycophorins
B. Simple sugars
C. Proteins
D. Lipids

Answer 591

C. Proteins

Question 592

How many stool samples should be collected when following the typical O & P collection protocol?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer 592

C. 3

Question 593

Which of the following parasitic stages is not usually detected after using a concentration technique?
A. Protozoan cysts
B. Protozoan trophozoites
C. Helminth eggs
D. Helminth larvae

Answer 593

B. Protozoan trophozoites

Question 594

The permanent stain of choice for the recovery of Cryptosporidium parvum is:
A. Iron hematoxylin
B. Modifed acid-fast
C. Gram
D. Trichrome

Answer 594

B. Modifed acid-fast

Question 595

Skin snips are the specimen of choice for diagnosis of infection with:
A. Loa loa
B. Onchocerca volvulus
C. Brugia malayi
D. Wuchereria bancrofti

Answer 595

B. Onchocerca volvulus

Question 596

The first intermediate host for all the trematodes is which of the following?
A. Fish
B. Snail
C. Shrimp
D. Water plant

Answer 596

B. Snail

Question 597

The typical transmission route of Paragonimus to humans consists of which of the following?
A. Consumption of contaminated crayfish or crabs
B. Swimming in contaminated water
C. Hand-to-mouth contamination
D. Walking barefoot on contaminated sandy soil

Answer 597

A. Consumption of contaminated crayfish or crabs

Question 598

The specimen of choice for the recovery of Schistosoma japonicum is which of the following?
A. Tissue biopsy
B. Urine
C. Sputum
D. Stool

Answer 598

D. Stool

Question 599

Which of the following genera contain the organisms responsible for the disease scabies caused by the itch mite?
A. Sarcoptes spp.
B. Pediculus spp.
C. Ornithodorus spp.
D. Dermatophagoides spp.

Answer 599

A. Sarcoptes spp.

Question 600

The Oriental rat flea, Xenopsylla cheopis, can be involved in transmitting which of the following microorganisms?
A. Rickettsia typhi
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. Yersinia pestis
D. Plasmodium spp.
E. A and C are correct

Answer 600

E. A and C are correct

Question 601

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of laboratory instrumentation to the hematology laboratory?
A. Produces faster results from specimens
B. Reduced cost on rarely performed procedures
C. Less variation in technique from technologist totechnologist
D. Increased accuracy because data are collected onmore cells counted or analyzed

Answer 601

B. Reduced cost on rarely performed procedures

Question 602

Which parameters are calculated rather than directly measured
A. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width
B. Erythrocyte count and leukocyte count
C. Leukocyte count and hematocrit
D. Platelet count and platelet volume

Answer 602

A. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width

Question 603

In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger than normal will be to the _____ of the normal distribution curve.
A. Right
B. Left
C. In the middle
D. All of these

Answer 603

A. Right

Question 604

The RDW and MCV are both quantitative descriptors of erythrocyte size. If both are increased, the most probable erythrocytic abnormality would be:
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Acquired aplastic anemia
C. megaloblastic anemia
D. Hemoglobinopathy

Answer 604

C. megaloblastic anemia

Question 605

The MPV is:
A. Analogous to the MCHC
B. A direct measure of the platelet count
C. A measurement of the average volume of platelets
D. A comparison of the patient’s value to the normal value

Answer 605

C. A measurement of the average volume of platelets

Question 606

Major systems in a flow cytometer include all of the following except:
A. Fluidics
B. Optics
C. Computerized electronics
D. Gating

Answer 606

D. Gating

Question 607

Normal PDW is:
A. Less than 5%
B. Less than 10%
C. Less than 15%
D. Less than 20%

Answer 607

D. Less than 20%

Question 608

The reagent used in the traditional sickle cell screening test is:
A. Sodium chloride
B. Sodium citrate
C. Sodium metabisulphite
D. Sodium potassium oxalate

Answer 608

C. Sodium metabisulphite

Question 609

A decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is seen in:
A. Polycythemia vera
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Leukemoid reactions
D. Acute myelogenous leukemia

Answer 609

B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Question 610

Which of the following procedures is used to detect the complement-sensitive cells in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
A. Sucrose lysis test
B. Donath-Landsteiner test
C. Acidified serum lysis (Ham test)
D. Both A and C

Answer 610

D. Both A and C

Question 611

Which of the following parameters can be abnormal in classic von Willebrand disease type I?
A. Bleeding time
B. PT
C. Platelet count
D. All of the above

Answer 611

A. Bleeding time

Question 612

At all times, approximately _____ of the total number ofplatelets are in the systemic circulation.
A. One fourth
B. One third
C. One half
D. Two thirds

Answer 612

D. Two thirds

Question 613

Aspirin ingestion has the following hemostatic effect in a normal person.
A. Prolongs the bleeding time
B. Prolongs the clotting time
C. Inhibits factor VIII
D. Has no effect

Answer 613

A. Prolongs the bleeding time

Question 614

The function of thromboplastin in the prothrombin test is to provide _____ to the assay.
A. Kaolin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Phospholipoprotein
D. Thrombin

Answer 614

C. Phospholipoprotein

Question 615

What is used to zero the spectrophotometer before reading the test sample?
A. Calibrator
B. Sample blank
C. Reagent blank
D. Standard

Answer 615

C. Reagent blank

Question 616

This is used to zero an instrument during a test procedure:
A. Calibrator
B. Sample blank
C. Reagent blank
D. Standard

Answer 616

B. Sample blank

Question 617

Establishing a reference interval:
A new reference interval is established when there is no existing analyte or methodology in the clinical or reference laboratory with which to conduct comparative studies. It is a costly and labor-intensive study that will involve laboratory resources at all levels and may require from ____ to as many as ≈700 study individuals.
A. 20 study individuals
B. 50 study individuals
C. 100 study individuals
D. 120 study individuals

Answer 617

D. 120 study individuals

Question 618

Verifying a reference interval (transference):
This is done to confirm the validity of an existing reference interval for an analyte using the same (identical) type of analytic system (method and/or instrument). These are the most common reference interval studies performed in the clinical laboratory and can require as few as ____ study individuals.
A. 20 study individuals
B. 50 study individuals
C. 100 study individuals
D. 120 study individuals

Answer 618

A. 20 study individuals

Question 619

The two species of flies responsible for the transmission are Glossina palpalis and Glossina tachinoides:
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania tropica
C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Answer 619

C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

Question 620

The two primary species of fly vectors responsible for transmitting are Glossina morsitans and Glossina pallidipes:
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania tropica
C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Answer 620

D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

Question 621

Errors in LDL-c become noticeable at triglyceride levels:
A. Over 150 mg/dL
B. Over 200 mg/dL
C. Over 350 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL

Answer 621

B. Over 200 mg/dL

Question 622

Errors in LDL-c become unacceptably large at triglyceride levels:
A. Over 150 mg/dL
B. Over 200 mg/dL
C. Over 350 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL

Answer 622

D. Over 400 mg/dL

Question 623

Friedewald formula is not valid for triglycerides:
A. Over 150 mg/dL
B. Over 200 mg/dL
C. Over 350 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL

Answer 623

D. Over 400 mg/dL