POPCORN 3 Flashcards
Testing specimens that contain high levels of ascorbate may effect the reading of all of these EXCEPT:
A. Bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Nitrite
D. Urobilinogen
D. Urobilinogen
Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:
A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite
B. Ketone and leukocytes
The principle of “protein error of indicators” is based on:
A. Protein changing the pH of the specimen.
B. Protein changing the pKa of the specimen.
C. Protein accepting hydrogen from the indicator.
D. Protein giving up hydrogen to the indicator.
C. Protein accepting hydrogen from the indicator.
Typically,the protocol for the performance of CSF analysis when three tubes are collected is which order for cell counts, chemistries, microbiology?
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 1, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 3, 2, 1
C. 3, 1, 2
If only a small amount of CSF is obtained, which is the most important procedure to perform first?
A. Cell count
B. Chemistries
C. Immunology
D. Microbiology
D. Microbiology
Green with carbocyanine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
Orange with phenathridine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
A. DNA
Enumeration of bacteria in automated slideless microscopy:
A. Spectrophotometric method
B. Small particle histogram
C. Nitrite determination
D. Reflectance photometry
B. Small particle histogram
A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine:
A. Prostatic infection
B. Presence of antisperm antibodies
C. A possible rape
D. Successful vasectomy
C. A possible rape
Normal neutral fats with increased amount of fatty acids:
A. Malabsorption
B. Maldigestion
C. Both of these
D. None of these
A. Malabsorption
Low to absent fructose level in the semen:
A. Low sperm concentration
B. Low sperm motility
C. Low sperm viability
D. Presence of antisperm antibodies
A. Low sperm concentration
Specimens for fructose levels should be tested within 2 hours of collection or _______ to prevent fructolysis.
A. Refrigerated
B. Frozen
C. Incubated at 37C
D. Maintained at room temperature
B. Frozen
Specimens can be screened for the presence of fructose using the resorcinol test that produces an _______color when fructose is present.
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Orange
D. Orange
Bacterial, viral, and protozoan infections produce increased secretion of water and electrolytes, which override the reabsorptive ability of the large intestine, leading to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these
B. Secretory diarrhea
Secretory diarrhea is caused by:
A. Antibiotic administration
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Celiac sprue
D. Vibrio cholerae
D. Vibrio cholerae
Maldigestion (impaired food digestion) and malabsorption (impaired nutrient absorption by the intestine) contribute to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these
A. Osmotic diarrhea
Wet preparation for demonstration of fecal leukocytes:
A. Methylene blue
B. Gram stain
C. Wright’s stain
D. All of these
A. Methylene blue
Small fleck of mucus or a drop of liquid stool is placed on a glass microscopic slide with a wooden applicator stick. Two drops of methylene blue are added and mixed thoroughly and carefully. A coverslip is placed on the mixture, which is allowed to stand for 2–3 minutes for good nuclear staining. Which of the following cells are included in the stool WBC differential using methylene blue?
A. Immune and non-immune cells
B. Phagocytes and non-phagocytic cells
C. Mononuclear and polymorphonuclear cells
D. T cells, B cells and NK cells
C. Mononuclear and polymorphonuclear cells
Unique portion of HCG:
A. Glycoprotein portion of alpha subunit
B. Glycoprotein portion of beta subunit
C. Amino acid portion of alpha subunit
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit
D. Amino acid portion of beta subunit
Urine for pregnancy test should have a specific gravity of at least:
A. 1.002
B. 1.003
C. 1.010
D. 1.015
D. 1.015
Refractometer results are valid up to _______; specimen with greater than (your answer) should be diluted and remeasured.
A. 1.020
B. 1.025
C. 1.030
D. 1.035
D. 1.035
The only tissue in the body that is hypertonic with respect to normal plasma (i.e., its osmolality is greater than 290 mOsm/kg):
A. Glomerulus
B. Convoluted tubules
C. Renal cortex
D. Renal medulla
D. Renal medulla
Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as TRISOMY 21 (DOWN SYNDROME), amniocentesis may be indicated at:
A. 1 to 7 weeks gestation
B. 7 to 14 weeks gestation
C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation
D. 20 to 42 weeks gestation
C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation
Excess CSF should be:
A. Discarded
B. Refrigerated
C. Frozen
D. Maintained at room temperature
C. Frozen
Specific gravity of 1.015 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
B. 3% NaCl
LEUKOREDUCED RED CELLS is a product in which the absolute WBC count in the unit is reduced to ____, and contains at least ______ of the original RBC mass.
A. 1 x 10 10th, 85%
B. 3.0 x 10 11th, 85%
C. 5.5 x 10 10th, 85%
D. 5 x 10 6th, 85%
D. 5 x 10 6th, 85%
The percentage of red cells recovered after thawing and deglycerolization of frozen blood is:
A. 35%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 80%
D. 80%
The use of plasma from only male donors for transfusion is a preventive method for which type of transfusion reaction:
A. Febrile
B. Allergic
C. TRALI
D. TACO
C. TRALI
Which of the following antibodies characteristically gives a refractile mixed-field appearance?
A. Anti-K
B. Anti-Dia
C. Anti-Sda
D. Anti-s
C. Anti-Sda
Anti-Sd has been identified in patient ALF. What substance would neutralize this antibody and allow detection of other alloantibodies?
A. Saliva
B. Hydatid cyst fluid
C. Urine
D. Human breast milk
C. Urine
RANDOM-DONOR PLATELETS (RDP) must contain at least:
A. 3.0 x 10 10th platelets
B. 5.5 x 10 10th platelets
C. 3.0 x 10 11th platelets
D. 5.5 x 10 11th platelets
B. 5.5 x 10 10th platelets
SINGLE-DONOR PLATELETS (SDP) must contain at least:
A. 3.0 x 10 10th platelets
B. 5.5 x 10 10th platelets
C. 3.0 x 10 11th platelets
D. 5.5 x 10 11th platelets
C. 3.0 x 10 11th platelets
Two standard deviations (2 SD) from the mean in a normal distribution curve would include:
A. 99% of all values
B. 95% of all values
C. 75% of all values
D. 68% of all values
B. 95% of all values
Acceptable limits of a control value must fall:
A. Within ±1 standard deviation of the mean
B. Between 1 and 2 standard deviations of the mean
C. Within ±2 standard deviations of the mean
D. Within ±3 standard deviations of the mean
C. Within ±2 standard deviations of the mean
Typically, a patient test result that EXCEEDS 3 SD of the mean value for analyte is found with a frequency of:
A. 1 in 5
B. 1 in 20
C. 1 in 100
D. Never
C. 1 in 100
When a serum sample has intrinsic color that absorbs at the same wavelength used to detect the reaction product, what technique could help distinguish the color produced by the analyte from the intrinsic color of the sample?
A. Blanking
B. Immunoturbidimetry
C. Ion-selective electrode
D. PETINIA
A. Blanking
What would be the value of 150 mg/dL glucose reported in SI units?
A. 1.61 mmol/L
B. 8.25 mmol/L
C. 0.367 mmol/L
D. None of the above values
B. 8.25 mmol/L
If total cholesterol is 4.0 mmol/L, what is the value in conventional units?
A. 154 mg/dL
B. 102 mg/dL
C. 40 mg/dL
D. None of the above values
A. 154 mg/dL
The lipoprotein particle that is used to determine increased risk of coronary artery disease and to determine and monitor treatment for high cholesterol is:
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. Apolipoprotein A1
D. Chylomicron
B. LDL
Which test might be used to assess a person who is disoriented or confused?
A. Cholesterol
B. Ammonia
C. CRPs
D. Iron
B. Ammonia
Which of the following sets of values for repeat analyses of a QC sample (target value of 50) reflects the best precision?
A. 50, 51, 52
B. 50, 52, 56
C. 48, 50, 52
D. 44, 50, 53
A. 50, 51, 52
Which of the following sets of values for repeat analyses of a sample (target value of 100) shows the least bias?
A. 100, 105, 110
B. 95, 100, 105
C. 90, 95, 100
D. 90, 100, 105
B. 95, 100, 105
Beer’s law is expressed as A = abc
A (capital A) in Beer’s law is:
A. Absorbance
B. Absorptivity constant
C. Concentration
D. Length of light path
A. Absorbance
a (small a) in Beer’s law is:
A. Absorbance
B. Absorptivity constant
C. Concentration
D. Length of light path
B. Absorptivity constant
b (small b) in Beer’s law is:
A. Absorbance
B. Absorptivity constant
C. Concentration
D. Length of light path
D. Length of light path
c (small c) in Beer’s law is:
A. Absorbance
B. Absorptivity constant
C. Concentration
D. Length of light path
C. Concentration
What is the best use for potentiometry?
A. Enzymes
B. Proteins
C. Electrolytes
D. Lipids
C. Electrolytes
Which monochromator specification is required in order to measure the true absorbance of a compound having a natural absorption bandwidth of 30 nm?
A. 50-nm bandpass
B. 25-nm bandpass
C. 15-nm bandpass
D. 5-nm bandpass
D. 5-nm bandpass
Which of the following protein methods has the highest analytical sensitivity?
A. Refractometry
B. Folin–Lowry
C. Turbidimetry
D. Direct ultraviolet absorption
B. Folin–Lowry
Which of the following dyes is the most specific for measurement of albumin?
A. Bromcresol green (BCG)
B. Bromcresol purple (BCP)
C. Tetrabromosulfophthalein
D. Tetrabromphenol blue
B. Bromcresol purple (BCP)
MPV values should be based on specimens that are between ______ old.
A. 1 and 4 hours old
B. 5 and 8 hours old
C. 8 and 12 hours old
D. 12 and 15 hours old
A. 1 and 4 hours old
High WBC count that can cause turbidity and a falsely high hemoglobin result:
A. WBCs > 10 x 10 9th/L
B. WBCs > 20 x 10 9th/L
C. WBCs > 50 x 10 9th/L
D. WBCs > 70 x 10 9th/L
B. WBCs > 20 x 10 9th/L
High platelet count that can cause turbidity and a falsely high hemoglobin result:
A. Platelets > 150 x 10 9th/L
B. Platelets > 200 x 10 9th/L
C. Platelets > 500 x 10 9th/L
D. Platelets > 700 x 10 9th/L
D. Platelets > 700 x 10 9th/L
In EDTA–anti-coagulated blood, platelets undergo a change in shape. This alteration (swelling) causes the MPV to increase approximately ___ % during the first hour.
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
D. 20%
Lipemia can cause turbidity in the cyanmethemoglobin method and a falsely high hemoglobin result. It can be corrected by:
A. Reagent-sample solution can be centrifuged and the supernatant measured
B. Adding 0.01 mL of the patient’s plasma to 5 mL of the cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the reagent blank
C. Making a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted sample plus 1 part water) and multiplying the results from the standard curve by 2.
D. Cannot be corrected
B. Adding 0.01 mL of the patient’s plasma to 5 mL of the cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the reagent blank
The modification of diet in renal disease (MDRD) formula for calculating eGFR requires which four parameters?
A. Urine creatinine, serum creatinine, height, weight
B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race
C. Serum creatinine, height, weight, age
D. Urine creatinine, gender, weight, age
B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race
Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated creatinine clearance calculations include all of the following except:
A. Serum creatinine
B. Weight
C. Age
D. Gender
B. Weight
The creatinine clearance is reported in:
A. mg/dL
B. mg/24 hours
C. mL/min
D mL/24 hours
C. mL/min
Benedict’s test 1+:
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange
B. Green
Positive result in the Ictotest:
A. Green
B. Orange
C. Purple
D. Red
C. Purple
Pathologically, these casts are increased in congestive heart failure:
A. Hyaline cast
B. Granular cast
C. Cellular cast
D. Waxy cast
A. Hyaline cast
The most frequent parasite encountered in the urine:
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Giardia lamblia
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
Fecal contamination of a urine specimen can also result in the presence of ova from intestinal parasites in the urine sediment. The most common contaminant is:
A. Schistosoma japonicum ovum
B. Schistosoma haematobium ovum
C. Enterobius vermicularis ovum
D. Giardia lamblia trophozoite
C. Enterobius vermicularis ovum
Symptoms of dyspnea, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion is most likely which type of reaction?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Hemolytic
C. Febrile
D. TRALI
D. TRALI
Congestive heart failure, severe headache and/or peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?
A. Hemolytic
B. Febrile
C. Anaphylactic
D. Circulatory overload
D. Circulatory overload
Synovial fluid is typically collected using sterile needle and syringe and then transferred to collection tubes for testing. Which of the following anticoagulants would be appropriate to use for the aliquot sent for manual cell count and crystal evaluation?
A. Liquid EDTA
B. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Lithium heparin
A. Liquid EDTA
Required tube for synovial fluid glucose determination:
A. SPS
B. EDTA
C. Heparin
D. Sodium fluoride
D. Sodium fluoride
Normal synovial fluid does not clot; however, fluid from a diseased joint may contain fibrinogen and will clot. Therefore, fluid is often collected in a syringe that has been moistened with:
A. EDTA
B. SPS
C. Heparin
D. Sodium fluoride
C. Heparin
Which transfusion reaction presents with fever, maculopapular rash, watery diarrhea, abnormal liver function, and pancytopenia?
A. Transfusion-associated sepsis
B. Transfusion-related acute lung injury
C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
D. Transfusion-associated allergic reaction
C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
Clinical signs and symptoms commonly include low birth weight (<2,500 g), skin hyperpigmentation (café au lait spots), and short stature.
* Other manifestations can include skeletal disorders (aplasia or hypoplasia of the thumb), renal malformations, microcephaly, hypogonadism, mental retardation, and strabismus.
A. Diamond-Blackfan anemia
B. Fanconi anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Thalassemia
B. Fanconi anemia
Microcytic, hypochromic anemia caused by inadequate supplies of the iron needed to synthesize hemoglobin and characterized by pallor, fatigue, and weakness. Often caused by low dietary iron intake or chronic blood loss.
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Thalassemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
Uncontrolled activation of thrombin and consumption of coagulation factors, platelets, and fibrinolytic proteins secondary to many initiating events, including infection, inflammation, shock, and trauma. Most commonly evidenced by diffuse mucocutaneous bleeding.
A. Christmas disease
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C. Hemophilia A
D. von Willebrand’s disease
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia?
A. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
D. Acute monocytic leukemia
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
Abnormal proliferation of both erythroid and granulocytic precursors; may include abnormal megakaryocytic and monocytic proliferations:
A. M1
B. M2
C. M4
D. M6
D. M6
Temperature of the flotation water bath:
A. 35 to 37C
B. 45 to 50C
C. 55 to 60C
D. At boiling point
B. 45 to 50C
Rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by complete absence of HDL:
A. Tangier disease
B. Anderson disease
C. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
D. Sitosterolemia
A. Tangier disease
Abetalipoproteinemia, patients present with undetectable plasma apoB containing lipoproteins:
A. Tangier disease
B. Anderson disease
C. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
D. Sitosterolemia
C. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
Chylomicron retention disease presents in childhood with fat malabsorption and low levels of plasma lipids. This syndrome is distinct from abetalipoproteinemia, as only apoB-48 appears to be affected:
A. Tangier disease
B. Anderson’s disease
C. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
D. Sitosterolemia
B. Anderson’s disease
It is the major extracellular anion. It is involved in maintaining osmolality, blood volume, and electric neutrality.
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride
D. Chloride
After warming, a cloudy urine clears. This is due to the presence of:
A. Urates
B. Phosphates
C. WBCs
D. Bacteria
A. Urates
Staphylococcus aureus toxin which disrupts the smooth muscle in blood vessels and is toxic to erythrocytes, leukocytes, hepatocytes, and platelets:
A. Alpha toxin
B. Beta toxin
C. Delta toxin
D. Gamma toxin
A. Alpha toxin
Which of the following is the most potent bacterial exotoxin known?
A. Botulinum toxin
B. Erythrogenic toxin
C. C. difficile toxin B
D. C. perfringens alpha-toxin
A. Botulinum toxin
Which animals were immunized that led to the discovery of the Rh blood group?
A. Rhesus macaque monkeys
B. Mice and rats
C. Frogs
D. Guinea pigs and rabbits
D. Guinea pigs and rabbits
Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group antigens?
A. Dominant
B. Recessive
C. Codominant
D. Corecessive
C. Codominant
What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive?
A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb theserum at 4°C
B. Retype the sample using a different lot numberof reagents
C. Use polyclonal typing reagents
D. Report the sample as group AB
A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb theserum at 4°C
Testing reveals a weak D that reacts 1+ after indirect antiglobulin testing (IAT). How is this result classified?
A. Rh-positive
B. Rh-negative, Du positive
C. Rh-negative
D. Rh-positive, Du positive
A. Rh-positive
What antibodies could an R1R1 make if exposed to R2R2 blood?
A. Anti-e and anti-C
B. Anti-E and anti-c
C. Anti-E and anti-C
D. Anti-e and anti-c
B. Anti-E and anti-c
The k (Cellano) antigen is a high-frequency antigen and is found on most red cells. How often would one expect to find the corresponding antibody?
A. Often
B. Rarely
C. It depends upon the population
D. Impossible to determine
B. Rarely
Can crossmatching be performed on October 14th using a patient sample drawn on October 12th?
A. Yes, a new sample would not be needed
B. Yes, but only if the previous sample has noalloantibodies
C. No, a new sample is needed because the 2-daylimit has expired
D. No, a new sample is needed for each testing
A. Yes, a new sample would not be needed
What ABO types may donate to any other ABO type?
A. A negative, B negative, AB negative, O negative
B. O negative
C. AB negative
D. AB negative, A negative, B negative
B. O negative
A patient showed positive results with screening cells and 4 donor units. The patient autocontrol was negative. What is the most likely antibody?
A. Anti-H
B. Anti-S
C. Anti-Kpa
D. Anti-k
D. Anti-k
What would be the result of group A blood given to an O patient?
A. Nonimmune transfusion reaction
B. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
D. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
B. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
What method can be employed to detect bacteria in random donor platelets?
A. pH
B. Glucose
C. Pan genera detection (PGD) assay
D. Gram stain
C. Pan genera detection (PGD) assay
What should be done if a noticeable clot is found in an RBC unit?
A. Issue the unit; the blood will be filtered
B. Issue the unit; note the presence of a clot on therelease form
C. Filter the unit in the blood bank before issue
D. Do not issue the unit
D. Do not issue the unit
Which immunization has the longest deferral period?
A. HBIG
B. Rubella vaccine
C. Influenza vaccine
D. Yellow fever vaccine
A. HBIG
HEPATITIS B IMMUNE GLOBULIN (HBIG) is an injected material used to prevent infection following an exposure to hepatitis B. HBIG does not prevent hepatitis B infection in every case, therefore persons who have received HBIG must wait _____ to donate blood to be sure they were not infected since hepatitis B can be transmitted through transfusion to a patient.
A. 4 weeks
B. 1 month
C. 12 months
D. No deferral
C. 12 months
A woman begins to breathe rapidly while donating blood. Choose the correct course of action.
A. Continue the donation; rapid breathing is not areason to discontinue a donation
B. Withdraw the needle, raise her feet, and administer ammonia
C. Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag
D. Tell her to sit upright and apply a cold compress to her forehead
C. Discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag
A whole-blood donor currently on clopidogrel (Plavix) is precluded from donating which product?
A. Platelets
B. Red blood cells
C. FFP
D. Cryoprecipitate
A. Platelets
Which of the following vaccinations carries no deferral period?
A. Rubella
B. Varicella zoster
C. Recombinant HPV
D. Smallpox
C. Recombinant HPV
Another formula to compute for FMH
= (Fetal cells divided by 2,000) x 5,000 mL
5,000 ML OR 5 LITERS MATERNAL BLOOD VOLUME
A Kleihauer–Betke acid elution test identifies 40 fetal cells in 2,000 maternal red cells. How many full doses of RhIg are indicated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
D. 4
All of the following are routinely performed on a cord blood sample except:
A. Forward ABO typing
B. Antibody screen
C. Rh typing
D. DAT
B. Antibody screen
The following results were obtained on a 51-year-old male with hepatitis C:
* Anti-A 4+
* Anti-B 4+
* Anti-D 4+
* A1 cells 0
* B cells 0
What should be done next?
A. Retype the patient’s sample to confirm group AB positive
B. Repeat the Rh typing
C. Run a saline control in forward grouping
D. Report the patient as group AB, Rh positive
C. Run a saline control in forward grouping
Immunologic analysis has shown that ______ is a major constituent of mucus.
A. Bence-Jones protein
B. Albumin
C. Transferrin
D. Uromodulin
D. Uromodulin
Guaiac tests for detecting occult blood rely on the:
A. Reaction of hemoglobin with hydrogen peroxide
B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin
C. Reaction of hemoglobin with ortho-toluidine
D. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hydrogen peroxide
B. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin
Thoroughly clean between the fingers and under the fingernails for at least ______ ; include thumbs and wrists in the cleaning.
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 10 seconds
D. 20 seconds
D. 20 seconds
The correct method for labeling urine specimen containers is to:
A. Attach the label to the lid
B. Attach the label to the bottom
C. Attach the label to the container
D. Use only a wax pencil for labeling
C. Attach the label to the container
The method for determining a urine specific gravity that is based on the principle that the frequency of a sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution is:
A. Colorimetric
B. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
C. Refractometry
D. Urinometry
B. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
In what circumstance might a sediment be slightly warmed prior to microscopic examination?
A. To hemolyze RBCs
B. To dissolve amorphous urates
C. To increase the specific gravity
D. To correct for temperature in determining the specific gravity
B. To dissolve amorphous urates
All of the following are reabsorbed by active transport in the tubules except:
A. Urea
B. Glucose
C. Sodium
D. Chloride
A. Urea
In SEVERE yeast infection:
A. Gram-negative coccobacilli
B. Pear-shaped flagellate with undulating membrane
C. Oval structures that may or may not contain a bud
D. Appear as branched, mycelial form
D. Appear as branched, mycelial form
Classic starburst pattern in Gram staining:
A. Candida
B. Cryptococus
C. Histoplasma
D. Pneumocystis
B. Cryptococus
If during drug testing, the urine temperature is not within range:
A. Accept the sample
B. Reject the sample
C. Report the patient
D. Tell the supervisor or employer, recollection will be necessary
D. Tell the supervisor or employer, recollection will be necessary
Albumin reagent strips utilizing the dye ________ has a higher sensitivity and specificity for albumin:
A. DIDNTB
B. TMB
C. DBDH
D. Tetrabromphenol blue
A. DIDNTB
Testing of specimen from an outside agency and comparison of results with participating laboratories:
A. External QC
B. Electronic QC
C. Internal QC
D. Proficiency testing
D. Proficiency testing
Which of the following light sources is used in atomic absorption spectrophotometry?
A. Hollow-cathode lamp
B. Xenon arc lamp
C. Tungsten light
D. Deuterium lamp
E. Laser
A. Hollow-cathode lamp
The most common light source for fluorometry is:
A. Hydrogen lamp
B. Mercury lamp
C. Tungsten lamp
D. Xenon lamp
D. Xenon lamp
Colligative properties include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Osmolality
B. Vapor pressure
C. Freezing point
D. Osmotic pressure
A. Osmolality
Which of the following bacteria are identified with the use of molecular techniques?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Lactobacillus
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Transcription is:
A. Producing DNA from DNA
B. Producing proteins from RNA
C. Creating chroosomes from DNA and histone proteins
D. Producing RNA from DNA
D. Producing RNA from DNA
How do enzymes catalyze many physiologic processes?
A. By increasing the activation energy
B. By lowering the activiation energy
C. By eliminating the activation energy
D. By adding energy to the reaction
B. By lowering the activiation energy
Basophils are known for secreting which of the following substances?
A. C1 convertase
B. Histamine
C. Kallikrein
D. Hagman factor
B. Histamine
Which of the following is the primary mechanism causing respiratory alkalosis?
A. Renal failure
B. Hyperventilation
C. Too much bicarbonate
D. Congestive heart failure
B. Hyperventilation
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of compensation for metabolic acidosis?
A. Hyperventilation
B. Aldosterone release
C. Release of epinephrine
D. Bicarbonate excretion
A. Hyperventilation
If a blood gas specimen is left exposed to the air for an extended period, which of the following changes will occur?
A. pO2 increases, pH and pCO2 decrease
B. pO2 decreases, pH and pCO2 increase
C. pO2 and pH increase, pCO2 decreases
D. pO2 and pH decrease, pCO2 increases
C. pO2 and pH increase, pCO2 decreases
The largest lipoprotein molecule:
A. LDL
B. VLDL
C. Chylomicron
D. HDL
C. Chylomicron
What is the smallest lipoprotein molecule?
A. Chylomicron
B. LDL
C. VLDL
D. HDL
D. HDL
Which of the following conditions is the result of alpha1-antitrypsin level lower than 11 mmol/L?
A. Emphysema
B. Asthma
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Sarcoidosis
A. Emphysema
Which of the following disease is associated with formation of gastrin-producing tumors?
A. Helicobacter pylori disease
B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
C. Pancreatitis
D. Tropical sprue
B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
The anti-acetylcholine receptor test is used to help diagnose which of the following diseases?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Myasthenia gravis
Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated proteins) is specifically associated with which autoimmune disease?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Autoimmune hepatitis
D. Goodpasture’s syndrome
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
Anti-epileptic drugs that are monitored by therapeutic drug monitoring include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Phenytoin
B. Theophylline
C. Carbamazepine
D. Ethosuximide
B. Theophylline
Carbon monoxide is toxic because:
A. Exposure occurs by inhalation and transdermal absorption.
B. It binds very tightly to hemoglobin and does not allow oxygen to attach to hemoglobin.
C. It binds very tightly to tissue cells and does not allow carbon dioxide to be released into the lungs.
D. It binds very tightly to the myoglobin and does not allow oxygen to attach to the myoglobin.
B. It binds very tightly to hemoglobin and does not allow oxygen to attach to hemoglobin.
The most serious effect of methanol ingestion is:
A. Hallucinations
B. Blindness
C. Psychosis
D. Liver damage
B. Blindness
Which of the following is the most common application of immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)?
A. Identification of the absence of a normal serum protein
B. Structural abnormalities of proteins
C. Screening for circulating immune complexes
D. Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies
D. Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies
Which test is the most sensitive in detecting early monoclonal gammopathies?
A. High-resolution serum protein electrophoresis
B. Urinary electrophoresis for monoclonal lightchains
C. Capillary electrophoresis of serum and urine
D. Serum-free light chain immunoassay
D. Serum-free light chain immunoassay
Which test is the most useful way to evaluate the response to treatment for multiple myeloma?
A. Measure of total immunoglobulin
B. Measurement of 24-hour urinary light chainconcentration (Bence–Jones protein)
C. Capillary electrophoresis of M-protein recurrence
D. Measurement of serum-free light chains
D. Measurement of serum-free light chains
Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure?
A. Chloride
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Bicarbonate
C. Sodium
Which of the following conditions will elevate ionized calcium?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Acidosis
D. Alkalosis
C. Acidosis
Which of the following hormones involved in calcium regulation acts by decreasing both calcium and phosphorous?
A. PTH
B. Calcitonin
C. Vitamin D
D. Cortisol
B. Calcitonin
What percentage of serum calcium is in the ionized form?
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 80%
B. 50%
Kinetic enzymatic assays are best performed during which phase of an enzymatic reaction?
A. Linear phase
B. Lag phase
C. Plateau phase
D. Any phase as long as temperature and pH areconstant
A. Linear phase
One international unit of enzyme activity is theamount of enzyme that under specified reaction conditions of substrate concentration, pH, and temperature, causes usage of substrate at the rate of:
A. 1 millimole/min
B. 1 micromole/min
C. 1 nanomole/min
D. 1 picomole/min
B. 1 micromole/min
Which of the following conditions is a result of catecholamine excess, includes two classifications (MEN 1 and MEN 2), and may result in death from severe cardiovascular complications?
A. Cushing’s syndrome
B. Conn’s syndrome
C. Addison’s disease
D. Pheochromocytoma
D. Pheochromocytoma
Dip and dunk tissue processor:
A. Fluid-transfer
B. Tissue-transfer
C. Specimens are held in a single process chamber or retort and fluids are pumped in and out as required
D. All of these
B. Tissue-transfer
Enclosed tissue processor:
A. Fluid-transfer
B. Tissue-transfer
C. Specimens are transferred from container to container to be processed
D. All of these
A. Fluid-transfer
Papanicolaou staining consists of how many stains?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
C. 3
Ratio of nuclear to cytoplasmic stains in Papanicolaou staining:
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 2:1
D. 3:1
A. 1:2
Ratio of cytoplasmic to nuclear stain in Papanicolaou staining:
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 2:1
D. 3:1
C. 2:1
What is the second stain in Papanicolaou staining procedure?
A. Sudan III
B. Harris hematoxylin
C. OG-6
D. Eosin azure
C. OG-6
Gaucher disease:
A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series
A. Monocyte-macrophage series
Niemann-Pick disease:
A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series
A. Monocyte-macrophage series
Chédiak-Higashi syndrome:
A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series
B. Neutrophilic series
Chronic granulomatous disease:
A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series
B. Neutrophilic series
Lazy leukocyte syndrome:
A. Monocyte-macrophage series
B. Neutrophilic series
C. Lymphocytic series
D. Erythrocytic series
B. Neutrophilic series
All work surfaces should be sanitized at the end of the shift with a solution of:
A. 5% bleach
B. 5% phenol
C. 10% bleach
D. Concentrated bleach
C. 10% bleach
The origin of a class A fire is:
A. Paper
B. Electrical
C. Gasoline
D. Hazardous chemicals
A. Paper
An example of a preanalytical (preexamination) error is:
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
B. Incorrect identification of a patient
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report.
D. Verbally reporting a laboratory result over the telephone
B. Incorrect identification of a patient
An example of an analytical (examination) error is:
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
B. Incorrect patient identification
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report
D. Use of the wrong anticoagulant in the patient sample tube
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
An example of a postanalytical (postexamination) error is:
A. Malfunction of a microprocessor that affects accuracy in testing
B. Incorrect patient identification
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report
D. Use of the wrong anticoagulant in the patient sample tube
C. Transposition of a numeric critical value in transmitting a report
Blood from the wrong patient is an example of a/an:
A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error
B. Analytical (examination) error
C. Postanalytical (postexamination) error
D. Either A or B
A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error
Quality control outside of acceptable limits is an example of a/an:
A. Preanalytical (preexamination) error
B. Analytical (examination) error
C. Postanalytical (postexamination) error
D. Either A or C
B. Analytical (examination) error
Highly purified substances of a known composition:
A. Control
B. Standard
C. Plasma
D. Urine
B. Standard
STANDARDS are defined as:
A. How close a test result is to the true value
B. Specimens that are similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent
C. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
D. Highly purified substances of known composition
D. Highly purified substances of known composition
A CONTROL is defined as:
A. How close a test result is to the true value
B. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent
C. Comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant
D. Measurement of a highly purified substance of known composition
B. Specimen that is similar to patient’s blood; known concentration of constituent
The MEAN is:
A. Another term for the average
B. Most frequently occurring number in a group of values
C. Number that is midway between the highest and lowest values
D. A representation of a true analyte value
A. Another term for the average
The MEDIAN is:
A. Another term for the average
B. Most frequently occurring number in a group of values
C. Number that is midway between the highest and lowest values
D. A representation of a true analyte value
C. Number that is midway between the highest and lowest values
The MODE is:
A. Another term for the average
B. Most frequently occurring number in a group of values
C. Number that is midway between the highest and lowest values
D. A representation of a true analytic value
B. Most frequently occurring number in a group of values
The purest type of reagent water is:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. All are equal
A. Type I
The concentration of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is generally at a particular level in serum about 2 to 3 days after implantation. This is the concentration at which most sensitive laboratory assays can give a positive serum hCG result. What is the lowest level of hormone for which most current serum hCG tests can give a positive result?
A. 25 mIU/mL
B. 50 mIU/mL
C. 100 mIU/mL
D. 100,000 mIU/mL
A. 25 mIU/mL
In a person with normal glucose metabolism, the blood glucose level usually increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal level after:
A. 30 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 120 minutes
D. 120 minutes
Which of the following organs uses glucose from digested carbohydrates and stores it as glycogen for later use as a source of immediate energy by the muscles?
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Thyroid
B. Liver
Which of the following electrolytes is the chief cation in the plasma, is found in the highest concentration in the extravascular fluid, and has the main function of maintaining osmotic pressure?
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
B. Sodium
Which of the following laboratory values is considered a positive risk factor for the occurrence of coronary heart disease?
A. HDL cholesterol >60 mg/dL
B. HDL cholesterol <35 mg/dL
C. LDL cholesterol <130 mg/dL
D. Total cholesterol <200 mg/dL
B. HDL cholesterol <35 mg/dL
In analyzing cardiac markers, which marker increases first?
A. Myoglobin
B. CK-MB fraction
C. Troponin T
D. Troponin I
A. Myoglobin
Which of the following leukemias is most frequently associated with the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?
A. Acute lymphocytic
B. Acute myelogenous
C. Chronic lymphocytic
D. Chronic myelogenous
D. Chronic myelogenous
The final identification of crystals in crystal-induced arthritis is best accomplished with:
A. Brightfield microscopy
B. Compensated polarized light microscopy
C. Phase-contrast microscopy
D. Polarized light microscopy
B. Compensated polarized light microscopy
PRC function:
Administers, implements, and enforce the laws and policies with respect to the regulation and licensing of the various professions and occupations, including the enhancement and maintenance of professional and occupational standards and ethics.
A. Quasi-Legislative
B. Quasi-Judicial
C. Executive
D. None of these
C. Executive
PRC function:
Investigates motu proprio or upon the filing of a verified complaint, any registered professional, any member of the professional regulatory boards, officers and employees under the jurisdiction of the Commission; Issues summons, subpoena and subpoena duces tecum; May hold in contempt erring party or person; May revoke or suspend certificates of registration and professional licenses.
A. Quasi-Legislative
B. Quasi-Judicial
C. Executive
D. None of these
B. Quasi-Judicial
PRC function:
Formulates rules and policies on professional regulation. Reviews, revises and approves resolutions embodying policies promulgated by the Professional Regulatory Boards.
A. Quasi-Legislative
B. Quasi-Judicial
C. Executive
D. None of these
A. Quasi-Legislative
The Professional Regulation Commission, otherwise known as the PRC, is a ____-man commission attached to office of the President for general direction and coordination.
A. Two-man
B. Three-man
C. Four-man
D. Five-man
B. Three-man
It refers to the individual from whom a specimen for drug testing is collected.
A. Practitioner
B. Pusher
C. Protector/coddler
D. Donor/client
D. Donor/client
According to RA 9165, a person who knowingly and willfully consents to the unlawful acts and uses his/her influence, power or position in shielding, harboring, screening or facilitating the escape of any person he/she knows, or has reasonable grounds to believe on or suspects:
A. Practitioner
B. Pusher
C. Protector/coddler
D. Donor
C. Protector/coddler
A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
C. One year
The chairman and members of the BOARD OF MT shall hold office for ___ year(s) after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified.
A. 1 year or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
B. 2 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
C. 3 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
D. 5 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
C. 3 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
Qualification of BOARD EXAMINERS (Board of MT) EXCEPT:
A. Filipino citizen, good moral character
B. Qualified pathologist or duly RMTs
C. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment
D. Not a member of the faculty of any medical technology school for at least two years prior to appointment
C. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment
Subject to RANDOM drug test:
A. Applicants for firearm’s license
B. Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcers
C. Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or local government
D. Students of secondary and tertiary schools
D. Students of secondary and tertiary schools
Phenol derivatives found in certain intravenous medications produce ______urine on oxidation.
A. Yellow
B. Orange
C. Green
D. Purple
C. Green
The only tissue in the body that is hypertonic with respect to normal plasma (i.e., its osmolality is greater than 290 mOsm/kg):
A. Glomerulus
B. Convoluted tubules
C. Renal cortex
D. Renal medulla
D. Renal medulla
The sample of choice for measuring blood osmolality is:
A. Serum
B. Plasma
C. Whole blood
D. Serum or plasma may be used
A. Serum
Which of the following is a marker for bone resorption?
A. β-trace protein
B. Adiponectin
C. Fibronectin
D. Crosslinked C-telopeptide
D. Crosslinked C-telopeptide
Which of the following is a marker for bone formation?
A. Osteocalcin
B. Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP)
C. Urinary pyridinoline and deoxypyridinoline
D. Urinary C-telopeptide and N-telopeptide crosslinks (CTx and NTx)
A. Osteocalcin
Which of the following ISO standard applies to the clinical laboratory?
A. ISO 9000
B. ISO 7000
C. ISO 15189
D. ISO 15436
C. ISO 15189
Which of the ff. published standards for GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP)?
A. CDC
B. DOH
C. WHO
D. OSHA
C. WHO
It is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the standard deviations of two groups of data.
A. f test
B. t test
C. Variance
D. Standard deviation index
A. f test
It is used to determine whether there is statistically significant difference between the means of two groups of data.
A. f test
B. t test
C. Variance
D. Standard deviation index
B. t test
Which of the following plots is best for detecting all types of QC errors?
A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Linear regression
A. Levy–Jennings
Which of the following plots is best for comparison of precision and accuracy among laboratories?
A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Linear regression
B. Tonks–Youden
Which plot will give the earliest indication of a shift or trend?
A. Levy–Jennings
B. Tonks–Youden
C. Cusum
D. Histogram
C. Cusum
Which Westgard rule determines random error?
A. 1:3s
B. 4:1s
C. 2:2s
D. 10:x
A. 1:3s
Low temperature storage prior to testing:
A. Decreased LD4, LD5 and ALP
B. Decreased LD4 and LD5, increased ALP
C. Increased LD4, LD5 and ALP
D. Increased LD4 and LD5, decreased ALP
B. Decreased LD4 and LD5, increased ALP
Which one of the following values obtained are diagnostic of diabetes mellitus?
A. 2-hour specimen = 150 mg/dL (8.3 mmol/L)
B. Fasting plasma glucose = 126 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L)
C. Fasting plasma glucose = 110 mg/dL (6.1 mmol/L)
D. 2-hour specimen = 180 mg/dL (9.9 mmol/L)
B. Fasting plasma glucose = 126 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L)
To what class of enzymes does lactate dehydrogenase belong?
A. Isomerases
B. Ligases
C. Oxidoreductases
D. Transferases
C. Oxidoreductases
In pesticide poisoning, cholinesterase activity is:
A. Normal
B. Decreased
C. Increased
D. Variable
B. Decreased
Pathological level are decreased from the normal values by as much as 80 to 90%.
A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Cholinesterase
D. Creatine kinase
C. Cholinesterase
Highest elevation of ALP is seen in:
A. Healing bone fracture
B. Hepatitis and cirrhosis
C. Paget’s disease
D. Biliary tract obstruction
C. Paget’s disease
The normal ratio of bicarbonate ion to carbonic acid in arterial blood is:
A. 0.03:1
B. 1:20
C. 20:1
D. 6.1:7.4
C. 20:1
Four children are admitted with malaise, anorexia, and abdominal pain. Further evaluations reveal mild anemia, erythrocyte basophilic stippling, and profound pica habits. Poisoning by which heavy metal is most likely responsible?
A. Arsenic
B. Iron
C. Mercury
D. Lead
D. Lead
The formation of this crystal in urine, although not a constant finding is an important diagnostic clue of ethylene glycol poisoning:
A. Uric acid
B. Ammonium biurate
C. Dihydrate CaoOx
D. Monohydrate CaOx
D. Monohydrate CaOx
The system of choice for drug analysis because of its specificity and sensitivity is:
A. HPLC
B. TLC
C. GC/mass spectrometry
D. None of these
C. GC/mass spectrometry
The major toxicities of this antibiotic are RED MAN SYNDROME, nephrotoxicity, and ototoxicity:
A. Choramphenicol
B. Penicillin
C. Sulfonamide
D. Vancomycin
D. Vancomycin
The Biosafety Level that includes most common laboratory microorganisms and involves organisms such as HBV, HIV and enteric pathogens is:
A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4
B. BSL-2
Which one of the following viruses is the leading cause of congenital malformations?
A. Rabies
B. Rhinovirus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
C. Cytomegalovirus
The preferred specific gravity of zinc sulfate solution for the flotation method is:
A. 1.01
B. 1.04
C. 1.18
D. 1.48
C. 1.18
The malaria parasite characterized by the presence of multiple ring forms or “banana-shaped” gametocytes in red blood cells is:
A. P. malariae
B. P. vivax
C. P. falciparum
D. P. ovale
C. P. falciparum
Cryptosporidium spp. oocysts are best detected in fecal specimens using the:
A. Gram stain
B. Iodine stain
C. Methenamine silver stain
D. Modified acid-fast stain
D. Modified acid-fast stain
Small protozoa that have been missed on wet mounts or concentration methods are often detected with:
A. India ink
B. Iodine
C. Giemsa stain
D. Trichrome stain
D. Trichrome stain
Urine for pregnancy test should have a specific gravity of at least:
A. 1.002
B. 1.003
C. 1.010
D. 1.015
D. 1.015
Refractometer results are valid up to _______; specimen with greater than (your answer) should be diluted and remeasured.
A. 1.020
B. 1.025
C. 1.030
D. 1.035
D. 1.035
The method for determining a specific gravity that is based on the principle that the frequency of a sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution is:
A. Colorimetric
B. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
C. Refractometry
D. Urinometry
B. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
It enhances the visualization of elements with low refractive indices such as hyaline cats, mixed cellular casts, mucuous threads and Trichomonas.
A. Bright-field microscopy
B. Polarizing microscopy
C. Phase-contrast microscopy
D. Interference-contrast microscopy
C. Phase-contrast microscopy
A decrease in seminal fluid NEUTRAL ALPHA-GLUCOSIDASE suggests a disorder of:
A. Epididymis
B. Prostate
C. Semindal vesicles
D. Any of these
A. Epididymis
Powdered anticoagulants should not be sued in tubes for synovial fluid testing because it interferes with:
A. Cell counts
B. Glucose tests
C. Crystal examination
D. Differentials
C. Crystal examination
APT test may be requested to distinguish between the presence of fetal blood and maternal blood in an infant’s stool or vomitus. What is the reagent for the test?
A. 1% HCl
B. 2% HCl
C. 1% NaOH
D. 10% NaOH
C. 1% NaOH
It serves as the pivotal point for all three complement pathways:
A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C5
C. C3
A patient sample is assayed for fasting triglycerides and a triglyceride value of 1036 mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because of its association with which of the following conditions?
A. Coronary heart disease
B. Diabetes
C. Pancreatitis
D. Gout
C. Pancreatitis
Which of the following are products of HLA class III genes?
A. T-cell immune receptors
B. HLA-D antigens on immune cells
C. Complement proteins C2, C4, and Factor B
D. Immunoglobulin VL regions
C. Complement proteins C2, C4, and Factor B
There is a strong association between ankylosing spondylitis and:
A. HLA-B27
B. HLA-DR3
C. HLA-DR4
D. HLA-A3
E. HLA-BW47
A. HLA-B27
Which of the following cell surface molecules is classified as an MHC class II antigen?
A. HLA-A
B. HLA-B
C. HLA-C
D. HLA-DR
D. HLA-DR
Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis?
A. Late stage of salicylate poisoning
B. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
C. Renal failure
D. Excessive vomiting
D. Excessive vomiting
Severe diarrhea causes:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
A. Metabolic acidosis
A patient with emphysema who has fluid accumulation in the alveolar sacs (causing decreased ventilation) is likely to be in which of the following acid-base clinical states?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
A. Metabolic acidosis
The following conditions are all causes of alkalosis. Which condition is associated with respiratory (rather than metabolic) alkalosis?
A. Anxiety
B. Hypovolemia
C. Hyperaldosteronism
D. Hypoparathyroidism
A. Anxiety
Drug associated with rhabdomyolysis:
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Penicillin
C. Statins
D. Aspirin
C. Statins
A cloudy urine specimen received in the laboratory may have been preserved using:
A. Boric acid
B. Chloroform
C. Refrigeration
D. Formalin
C. Refrigeration
When testing for drugs of abuse in urine, which of the following test results indicate dilution and would be cause for REJECTING the sample?
A. Temperature upon sample submission 92°F
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL
C. pH 5.8; temperature 94°F
D. Specific gravity 1.012, creatinine 25 mg/dL
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL
SITUATION: A urine sample is received in the laboratory with the appropriate custody control form, and a request for drug of abuse screening. Which test result would be cause for REJECTING the sample?
A. Temperature after collection 95°F
B. pH 5.0
C. Specific gravity 1.005
D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL
D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL
Retention of paraffin blocks:
A. 7 days
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 10 years
D. 10 years
Serum sickness:
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
Urine specimen needed for microscopic analysis, additional specimen for repeat analysis, and enough room for the specimen to be mixed by swirling the container:
A. 2 mL
B. 6 mL
C. 8 mL
D. 12 mL
D. 12 mL
Centrifugation for urine microscopic examination:
A. RCF of 100 for 2 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
C. RCF of 500 for 5 minutes
D. RCF of 500 for 10 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
To be considered as polyuria, urine volume:
A. Greater than 1 liters
B. Greater than 1.5 liters
C. Greater than 2 liters
D. Greater than 2.5 liters
D. Greater than 2.5 liters
Paraffin sections are usually cut in the microtome for routine histologic procedures with a thickness of:
A. 1-2 micra
B. 2-4 micra
C. 4-6 micra
D. 6-8 micra
C. 4-6 micra
For manual impregnation, at least ___ changes of wax are required at 15 minutes interval to ensure complete removalof the clearing agent from the tissue.
A. Two (2) changes
B. Three (3) changes
C. Four (4) changes
D. Five (5) changes
C. Four (4) changes
It is considered to be as the best vital dye.
A. Janus green
B. Neutral red
C. Nile blue
D. Toluidine blue
B. Neutral red
It is used for demonstrating mitochondria during vital staining:
A. Janus green
B. Neutral red
C. Nile blue
D. Toluidine blue
A. Janus green
IgA in serum:
A. Monomer
B. Dimer
C. Pentamer
D. Any of these
A. Monomer
IgA in secretion:
A. Monomer
B. Dimer
C. Pentamer
D. Any of these
B. Dimer
The HLA complex is located primarily on:
A. Chromosomes
B. Chromosome 6
C. Chromosome 9
D. Chromosome 17
B. Chromosome 6
The portion of an antigen that binds to an antibody or T cell receptor is called a(n):
A. Allergin
B. Paratope
C. Epitope
D. Valence
C. Epitope
A patient report states the presence of serum antibodies to OspC. What disease does the patient most likely have?
A. Syphilis
B. Strep throat
C. Lyme disease
D. Rubella
C. Lyme disease
Why does vaccination against hepatitis B virus (HBV) also prevent hepatitis D virus (HDV) infections?
A. An immunogen from HBV in thevaccine is also associated with HDV.
B. The HBV vaccine induces formationof heterophile antibodies that crossreact with HDV.
C. The HBV vaccine stimulates liver cells to produce antiviral molecules active against all hepatitis viruses.
D. HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV.
D. HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV.
The three complement activation pathways converge at the point of cleavage of complement component _____.
A. C3
B. C5
C. C7
D. C8
A. C3
Which complement component is present in the greatest quantity in plasma?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
B. 3
Patients with Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia exhibit abnormally large amounts of:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgA
A. IgM
Reagent for the APT’s test:
A. Guaiac
B. 1% sodium hydroxide
C. 95% ethanol
D. 10% eosin
B. 1% sodium hydroxide
Fetal hemoglobin (Hb F) in Apt’s test
A. Pink solution
B. Pink precipitate
C. Yellow-brown supernatant
D. Yellow-brown precipitate
A. Pink solution
Adult hemoglobin (Hb A) in Apt’s test
A. Pink solution
B. Pink precipitate
C. Yellow-brown supernatant
D. Yellow-brown precipitate
C. Yellow-brown supernatant
MSDS information includes:
A. General and emergency information.
B. Highly technical chemical formulas.
C. Information on competitor products.
D. Product manufacturing conditions.
A. General and emergency information.
Which of the following patients would require CONTACT precautions pending a diagnosis?
A. A child with a maculopapular rash highly suggestive of rubeola (measles)
B. A diapered patient with symptoms of infection with an enteric pathogen
C. An HIV-positive patient who has a cough, fever, and pulmonary infiltrate
D. A man with a severe persistent cough indica- tive of Bordetella pertussis
B. A diapered patient with symptoms of infection with an enteric pathogen
This equipment is required when one is collecting a specimen from a patient in airborne isolation.
A. Eye protection
B. Full face shield
C. Mask and goggles
D. N95 respirator
D. N95 respirator
You accidentally splash a bleach solution into your eyes while preparing it for cleaning purposes. What is the first thing to do?
A. Dry your eyes quickly with a clean paper towel or tissue.
B. Flush your eyes with water for a minimum of 15 minutes.
C. Proceed to the emergency room as quickly as possible.
D. Put 10 to 20 drops of saline into your eyes immediately.
B. Flush your eyes with water for a minimum of 15 minutes.
What is the best way to clean up blood that has dripped on the arm of a phlebotomy chair?
A. Absorb it with a gauze pad and clean the area with disinfectant.
B. Rub it with a damp cloth and wash the area with soap and water.
C. Wait for it to dry and then scrape it into a biohazard container.
D. Wipe it with an alcohol pad using an outward circular motion.
A. Absorb it with a gauze pad and clean the area with disinfectant.
Which of the following is considered the best means of preventing nosocomial infection?
A. Current immunization
B. Glove use if indicated
C. Isolation procedures
D. Proper hand hygiene
D. Proper hand hygiene
What precautions are to be used for a patient who has an enteric pathogen?
A. Airborne
B. Contact
C. Droplet
D. Standard
B. Contact
The first thing to do in the event of electrical shock to a coworker or patient is to:
A. Call for medical assistance.
B. Keep the patient warm.
C. Shut off the electricity source.
D. Start CPR if indicated.
C. Shut off the electricity source.
This gland produces “fight or flight” hormones.
A. Adrenal
B. Pancreas
C. Pituitary
D. Thyroid
A. Adrenal
Which of the following are all anticoagulants that remove calcium from the specimen by forming insoluble calcium salts and therefore preventing coagulation?
A. EDTA, lithium heparin, citrate
B. NaF, sodium heparin, EDTA
C. Oxalate, SPS, sodium heparin
D. Sodium citrate, EDTA, oxalate
D. Sodium citrate, EDTA, oxalate
Which of the following is one reason the ETS is the preferred blood collection system?
A. Exposure of the blood to contaminants is avoided.
B. It is easier to see the flash when entering a vein.
C. The collector’s exposure to blood is eliminated.
D. Using a syringe can collapse a vein more easily.
A. Exposure of the blood to contaminants is avoided.
Which of the following is a disinfectant?
A. Benzalkonium chloride
B. Chlorhexidine gluconate
C. Household bleach
D. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Household bleach
Which is the best tube for collecting an ETOH(ethanol) specimen?
A. Gray top
B. Green top
C. Lavender top
D. Light-blue top
A. Gray top
Identify the tubes needed to collect a CBC, PTT, and STAT potassium by color and in the proper order of collection for a multitube draw:
A. Gold top, yellow top, light-blue top
B. Lavender top, serum separator tube (SST), royal-blue top
C. Light-blue top, green top, lavender top
D. Red top, gray top, light-blue top
C. Light-blue top, green top, lavender top
A pink-top tube containing EDTA is primarily used for:
A. Blood bank tests.
B. Chemistry tests.
C. Coagulation tests.
D. Microbiology tests.
A. Blood bank tests.
A test that is ordered STAT should be collected:
A. As soon as it is possible to do so.
B. Immediately, without any hesitation.
C. On the next closest scheduled sweep.
D. Within 1 hour of the test request.
B. Immediately, without any hesitation.
When a test is ordered ASAP, it means that:
A. The patient is in critical condition and needs immediate attention.
B. The patient requires a test in which timing of collection is critical.
C. Results are needed soon for an appropriate response.
D. Results from blood work are needed for medication.
C. Results are needed soon for an appropriate response.
A patient who is NPO:
A. Cannot have any food or drink.
B. Cannot have anything but water.
C. Is in critical but stable condition.
D. Is recovering from minor surgery.
A. Cannot have any food or drink.
Which liquid is acceptable to drink when one is fasting?
A. Black coffee
B. Diet soda
C. Plain water
D. Sugarless tea
C. Plain water
There is a sign above the patient’s bed that reads, “No blood pressures or venipuncture, right arm”. The patient has an intravenous (IV) line in the left forearm. You have a request to collect a complete blood count (CBC) on the patient. How should you proceed?
A. Ask the patient’s nurse to collect the specimen from the IV.
B. Ask the patient’s nurse what to do when the sign is posted.
C. Collect a CBC from the right arm without using a tourniquet.
D. Collect the specimen from the left hand by finger puncture.
D. Collect the specimen from the left hand by finger puncture.
The medical record number on the ID band matches the number on your requisition, but the patient’s name is spelled differently than the one on your requisition. What should you do?
A. Collect the specimen and report the error to the patient’s nurse.
B. Do not collect the specimen until the difference is resolved.
C. Draw the specimen because the medical record number matches.
D. Make the correction on the requisition and draw the specimen.
B. Do not collect the specimen until the difference is resolved.
Your patient is not wearing an ID band. You see that the ID band is taped to the nightstand. The information matches your requisition. What do you do?
A. Ask the patient to state her name; if it matches the requisition, continue.
B. Ask the patient’s nurse to attach an ID band and proceed when it is attached.
C. Go to the nurses’ station, get an ID bracelet, attach it, and then proceed.
D. Tell the nurse that you will not collect the specimen and return to the lab.
B. Ask the patient’s nurse to attach an ID band and proceed when it is attached.
An unconscious inpatient does not have an ID band. The name on an envelope on the patient’s nightstand matches with the requisition. What should you do?
A. Ask the nurse to verify the patient’s ID and collect the specimen.
B. Complete the required procedure and then file an incident report.
C. Do not start any procedure until the nurse attaches an ID bracelet.
D. Make a computer entry to will alert other phlebotomists of the issue.
C. Do not start any procedure until the nurse attaches an ID bracelet.
What is the best angle to use for needle insertion during routine venipuncture?
A. Less than 15 degrees
B. 30 degrees or less
C. 35 to 45 degrees
D. 45 to 60 degrees
B. 30 degrees or less
A diabetic outpatient has had a mastectomy on her right side and cannot straighten her left arm because of arthritis. The best place to collect a blood specimen is:
A. An ankle or foot vein on either of her legs.
B. The left forearm or hand, using a butterfly.
C. The right arm below the antecubital fossa.
D. The right hand, using a capillary puncture.
B. The left forearm or hand, using a butterfly.
The best specimens to use for establishing inpatient reference ranges for blood tests are:
A. Basal-state specimens.
B. Fasting specimens.
C. Postprandial specimens.
D. Steady-state specimens.
A. Basal-state specimens.
If you have no choice but to collect a specimen from an arm with a hematoma, collect the specimen:
A. Above it.
B. Beside it.
C. Distal to it.
D. Through it.
C. Distal to it.
According to CLSI, depth of heel puncture should not exceed:
A. 1.5 mm.
B. 2.0 mm.
C. 2.4 mm.
D. 4.9 mm.
B. 2.0 mm.
Which of the following tests would not be subject to therapeutic drug monitoring?
A. Digitoxin
B. Gentamicin
C. Phenylalanine
D. Theophylline
C. Phenylalanine
Which of the following is one of the most common bedside or POCT tests?
A. Bilirubin
B. Cholesterol
C. Glucose
D. Troponin
C. Glucose
Specimens can be delivered to the laboratory by which of the following methods?
A. Elevators
B. Internal mail systems
C. Pneumatic tubes
D. Phone calls
C. Pneumatic tubes
A pneumatic tube is a:
A. Pressurized air transportation system.
B. Temporary computer data storage unit.
C. Tube connection between two computers.
D. Type of collection tube for blood gases.
A. Pressurized air transportation system.
A sample of blood is collected for glucose in a sodium fluoride tube before the patient has had breakfast. The physician calls 2 hours later and requests that determination of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) be performed on the same sample rather than obtaining another specimen.
The automated analyzer in your laboratory utilizes the urease method to quantify BUN. What should you tell the physician?
A. Will gladly do the test if sufficient specimen remains
B. Could do the test using a micromethod
C. Can do the BUN determination on the automated analyzer
D. Cannot perform the procedure
D. Cannot perform the procedure
To prepare 100 mL of a 1:10 dilution of bleach, add:
A. 1 mL water to 100 mL bleach.
B. 1 mL bleach to 99 mL water.
C. 10 mL bleach to 90 mL water.
D. 10 mL water to 100 mL bleach.
C. 10 mL bleach to 90 mL water.
Convert 20% to ratio:
A. 1:2
B. 1:5
C. 1:10
D. 1:20
B. 1:5
How much NaCl should be dissolved to 1 liter water to prepare NSS? normal saline is 0.9% NaCl…
A. 0.9 grams
B. 9 grams
C. 90 grams
D. 45 grams
B. 9 grams
How much NaCl should be dissolved to 2 liters water to prepare NSS? normal saline is 0.9% NaCl…
A. 0.18 grams
B. 18 grams
C. 180 grams
D. 360 grams
B. 18 grams
How many liters are in 4 dL?
A. 400
B. 40
C. 0.4
D. 0.04
C. 0.4
How many liters are in 3 uL?
A. 0.003
B. 0.000003
C. 0.0000003
D. 0.000000003
B. 0.000003
How many micrograms are in 10 mg?
A. 100
B. 1,000
C. 10,000
D. 100,000
C. 10,000
In the calculation of the mean, what does “n” represent?
A. The sum of the values
B. The number of values in the set
C. The average of the values
D. The middle number of the set
B. The number of values in the set
Which of the following pairs of concepts are correctly matched?
A. Sensitivity: prevent false negatives; specificity:prevent false positives
B. Sensitivity: prevent false positives; specificity:prevent false negatives
C. Sensitivity: precision; specificity: accuracy
D. Sensitivity: coefficient of variation; specificity: standard deviation
A. Sensitivity: prevent false negatives; specificity:prevent false positives
Which of the following statistics is equivalent to the square root of the variance?
A. Coefficient of variation
B. Standard deviation
C. Sensitivity
D. Specificity
B. Standard deviation
To prevent the formation of formalin pigment in tissues, formalin should be:
A. Heated
B. Cooled
C. Buffered
D. Acidified
C. Buffered
Tissue stored for long periods of time in unbuffered formalin or in acetate-buffered formalin may show brown, crystalline pigment in stained sections. To remove this pigment prior to staining it is necessary to treat the section in:
A. Saturated alcoholic picric acid
B. Alcoholic lithium chloride
C. Iodine and sodium thiosulfate
D. Potassium permanganate and oxalic acid
A. Saturated alcoholic picric acid
A physical agent used in fixation is:
A. Stabilization of protein
B. Heat
C. Coagulation
D. Alcohol
B. Heat
For good fixation it is recommended that the tissue be no larger than:
A. 2 cm square and 1 to 2 mm thick
B. 2 cm square and 3 to 4 mm thick
C. 3 cm square and 1 to 2 mm thick
D. 3 cm square and 3 to 4 mm thick
B. 2 cm square and 3 to 4 mm thick
A universal fixative used for routine purposes and which allows a broad spectrum of staining procedures is:
A. Zenker fluid
B. Zamboni PAF
C. 10% neutral buffered formalin
D. Carnoy solution
C. 10% neutral buffered formalin
A microwave oven can be used for fixation because it:
A. Causes cross-linking of proteins
B. Induces physical fixation
C. Increases tissue basophilia
D. Inactivates enzymes with beta-radiation
B. Induces physical fixation
Tissue sections were stained for the recommended time with an H and E procedure using Harris hematoxylin. A quality control check shows pale nuclear staining. A likely cause of this could be:
A. Too much alum mordant in the stock hematoxylin solution
B. Insufficient time in the acid differentiator
C. Too much time in the acid differentiator
D. Prolonged dehydration and clearing
C. Too much time in the acid differentiator
A method for demonstrating the nucleic acids, in which the DNA stains green and the RNA stains red, is:
A. Feulgen reaction
B. Methyl green-pyronin
C. Masson trichrome
D. Gomori trichrome
B. Methyl green-pyronin
The pigment commonly known as “wear and tear pigment” or “brown atrophy” is:
A. Hemofuscin
B. Ceroid
C. Lipofuscin
D. Hemosiderin
C. Lipofuscin
Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain:
A. 4% formaldehyde
B. 10% formaldehyde
C. 37% to 40% formaldehyde
D. 98% to 100% formaldehyde
C. 37% to 40% formaldehyde
For best results when using formalin as a routine fixative, it must be made:
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. Isoelectric
C. Neutral
Generally, an increase in the temperature of the fixative solution:
A. Decreases the tissue autolysis
B. Decreases the fixative penetration
C. Increases the speed of fixation
D. Increases the volume of fixative needed
C. Increases the speed of fixation
The criteria for a GOOD STANDARD CURVE:
A. The line is straight
B. The line connects all points
C. The line goes through the origin, or intersect, of the two axes
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
At 0730, the phlebotomist receives requests for a cortisol level on Unit 4B, a fasting blood sugar (FBS) on Unit 4A, and a stat crossmatch in the ER. In which order should the phlebotomist collect these samples?
A. Cortisol, FBS, crossmatch
B. FBS, cortisol, crossmatch
C. Crossmatch, FBS, cortisol
D. FBS, crossmatch, cortisol
C. Crossmatch, FBS, cortisol
Calculation of the anion gap is useful for quality control for:
A. Calcium
B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate)
C. Phosphorus
D. Magnesium
B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate)
Creatinine concentration in the blood is affected by:
A. Muscle mass
B. Age and gender
C. Dietary protein intake
D. A and B
D. A and B
The variants demonstrate a wide variety of cellular interactions including roles in cell adhesion, tissue differentiation, growth, and wound healing:
A. Adiponectin
B. Cystatin
C. Fibronectin
D. Troponin
C. Fibronectin
It is defined as parts per hundred parts:
A. Percent
B. Ratio
C. Molarity
D. Normality
A. Percent
Which group of tests best differentiates Helicobacter pylori from C. jejuni?
A. Catalase, oxidase, and Gram stain
B. Catalase, oxidase, and nalidixic acid sensitivity
C. Catalase, oxidase, and cephalothin sensitivity
D. Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis
D. Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis
It is more frequent in populations living in conditions of poverty or poor hygiene, in day care centers, and in persons living in institutional settings or prisons.
A. Diphyllobothrim latum
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. Taenia solium
D. Taenia saginata
B. Hymenolepis nana
Neutrophils lyse rapidly in:
A. Acetic acid
B. Ether
C. Dilute acid urine
D. Dilute alkaline urine
D. Dilute alkaline urine
Reverse isolation may be used for:
A. A patient with the measles
B. An adult patient with the flu
C. A patient with tuberculosis
D. A patient with severe burns
D. A patient with severe burns
The recommended cleaner for removing oil from objectives is:
A. 70% isopropyl alcohol or lens cleaner
B. Xylene
C. Water
D. Benzene
A. 70% isopropyl alcohol or lens cleaner
Abnormal proliferation of both erythroid and granulocytic precursors; may include abnormal megakaryocytic and monocytic proliferations, Also known as Di Guglielmo syndrome:
A. M4
B. M5
C. M6
D. M7
C. M6
All of the following statements are true for IgE, except:
A. Most heat-stable of all immunoglobulins
B. Activate mast cells and basophils
C. Least abundant immunoglobulin in the serum
D. Serve a protective role by triggering an acute inflammatory reaction that recruits neutrophils and eosinophils to the area
A. Most heat-stable of all immunoglobulins
Papain digestion of an IgG molecule results in which of the following?
A. 2 Fab’ and 1 Fc’ fragment
B. F(ab’)2 and 1 Fc’ fragment
C. 2 Fab and 2 Fc fragments
D. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment
D. 2 Fab and 1 Fc fragment
A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
C. One year
Cell death due to ischemia is known as Infarction and is manifested by a characteristic histologic appearance which is:
A. Coagulation necrosis
B. Liquefaction necrosis
C. Fat necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
A. Coagulation necrosis
A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
C. One year
These knives are used to cut block for ELECTRON MICROSCOPY (EM):
A. Disposal blades
B. Steel knives
C. Diamond or glass knives
D. Magnetic blades
C. Diamond or glass knives
Microtome knives for PARAFFIN SECTIONING are usually made of:
A. Carbon steel
B. Diamond
C. Glass
D. Iron
A. Carbon steel
A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
C. One year
Of all the urine sediment elements, ___ are the MOST DIFFICULT TO RECOGNIZE.
A. Bacteria
B. Epithelial cells
C. RBCs
D. WBCs
C. RBCs
All of the following are important to protect the integrity of reagent strips EXCEPT:
A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle
B. Storing in an opaque bottle
C. Storing at room temperature
D. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip
A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle
Positive for the cyanide nitroprusside test:
A. Uric acid crystals
B. Cystine
C. Tyrosine
D. Leucine
B. Cystine
During seminal fluid microscopic examination, WBCs must be differentiated from:
A. RBCs
B. Yeasts
C. Immature sperms (spermatids)
D. Bacteria
C. Immature sperms (spermatids)
Malarial parasites appear bright green and yellow under a fluorescent microscope in the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method. This method uses capillary tube coated with:
A. Auramine-rhodamine
B. Methyl green-pyronine
C. Acridine orange
D. Fluoresceine isothiocyanate
C. Acridine orange
Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method for malaria diagnosis:
A. Brightfield microscope
B. Fluorescent microscope
C. Phase-contrast microscope
D. Electron microscope
B. Fluorescent microscope
What could be the possible interpretation?
* HBsAg: negative
* Anti-HBc: positive
* Anti-HBs: positive
A. Recovering from acute HBV infection
B. Immune because of natural infection
C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination
D. Chronically infected
B. Immune because of natural infection
What could be the possible interpretation?
* HBsAg: negative
* Anti-HBc: negative
* Anti-HBs: positive
A. Recovering from acute HBV infection
B. Immune because of natural infection
C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination
D. Chronically infected
C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination
The presence of distinct “drumstick” appendage on the nucleus of a mature neutrophil indicates:
A. Reaction to a toxic material
B. Reaction to bacteria in the blood or tissues
C. A genetic defect in nuclear maturation
D. The presence of a second X chromosome (female sex)
D. The presence of a second X chromosome (female sex)
Which of the following would be considered a significant finding in GRAVES DISEASE?
A. Increased TSH levels
B. Antibody to TSHR
C. Decreased T3 and T4
D. Anti-thyroglobulin antibody
B. Antibody to TSHR
Autofluorescence is characteristic of this organism:
A. E. histolytica
B. T. vaginalis
C. C. cayetanensis
D. C. parvum
C. C. cayetanensis
First-stage larva of flukes that emerge from the egg in fresh water, equipped with cilia, which aid in movement:
A. Cercaria
B. Metacercaria
C. Redia
D. Miracidium
D. Miracidium
Schistosomal infection occurs through skin penetration by infected ______ released from a freshwater snail containing the intermediate stages of the schistosome life cycle.
A. Miracidium
B. Redia
C. Cercaria
D. Metacercaria
C. Cercaria
During a blood meal, a malaria-infected female Anopheles mosquito INOCULATES ______into the human host.
A. Gametocytes
B. Hypnozoites
C. Merozoites
D. Sporozoites
D. Sporozoites
Ingested by an Anopheles mosquito during a blood meal:
A. Gametocytes
B. Hypnozoites
C. Merozoites
D. Sporozoites
A. Gametocytes
Location of sperm nucleus:
A. No nucleus
B. Head
C. Neck
D. Tail
B. Head
False negative urobilinogen reagent strip:
A. Formalin
B. Methyldopa
C. Porphobilinogen
D. Sulfonamides
A. Formalin
A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
C. One year
RBC casts are easily detected under low power by their ____color.
A. Blue color
B. Purple color
C. Yellow color
D. Orange-red color
D. Orange-red color
A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
C. One year
A urine specimen with a specific gravity of 1.008 has been diluted 1:5. The actual specific gravity is:
A. 1.008
B. 1.040
C. 1.055
D. 5.040
B. 1.040
Red cell suspension in ABO tube typing:
A. Undiluted red cells
B. 2 to 5% in normal saline
C. 20 to 50% in normal saline
D. 20 to 50% in patient’s own serum
B. 2 to 5% in normal saline
In 1956, Wiener and coworkers, gave a name to one such agglutinin. The ANTIBODY REACTED WITH MOST BLOOD SPECIMENS TESTED.
A. Anti-P
B. Anti-I
C. Anti-Rh
D. Anti-M
B. Anti-I
Antigens were shown to be located on complement receptor 1 (CR1):
A. Diego
B. Indian
C. Cromer
D. Knops
D. Knops
Antibody enhanced by acidification:
A. Anti-S
B. Anti-U
C. Anti-N
D. Anti-M
D. Anti-M
RBCs of the Gerbich or Leach phenotypes have WEAK EXPRESSION OF _____BLOOD GROUP ANTIGENS,
A. DIEGO
B. KIDD
C. KELL
D. LUTHERAN
C. KELL
False negative results at the antiglobulin phase of an antibody screening test are most likely due to:
A. Excessive washing of the red cells
B. Inadequate washing of the red cells
C. Warm autoantibody present in the patient’s serum
D. Failure to allow the blood to clot properly
B. Inadequate washing of the red cells
All of the following apply to a double red cell unit apheresis collection EXCEPT:
A. The hematocrit must be at least 38%
B. The weight for a female is at least 150 lbs
C. The height for a male is at least 5 ft 1 in.
D. The deferral period following collection is 16 weeks
A. The hematocrit must be at least 38%
Minimum weight of female donors for double RBC pheresis (2RBCs):
A. 90 lbs
B. 110 lbs
C. 130 lbs
D. 150 lbs
D. 150 lbs
Minimum weight of male donors for double RBC pheresis (2RBCs):
A. 90 lbs
B. 110 lbs
C. 130 lbs
D. 150 lbs
C. 130 lbs
Frequent plasma donors have a total serum protein of at least ___ g/dL:
A. 2 g/dL
B. 3 g/dL
C. 6 g/dL
D. 10 g/dL
C. 6 g/dL
A whole-blood donor currently on clopidogrel (Plavix) is precluded from donating which product?
A. Platelets
B. Red blood cells
C. FFP
D. Cryoprecipitate
A. Platelets
A donor taking Feldene will not be able to donate platelets for:
A. 2 days
B. 7 days
C. 2 weeks
D. 4 weeks
A. 2 days
Minimum hematocrit of male donors for double RBC pheresis (2RBCs):
A. 33%
B. 38%
C. 39%
D. 40%
D. 40%
Each unit of whole blood will yield approximately how many units of cryoprecipitated AHF?
A. 40
B. 80
C. 130
D. 250
B. 80
LEUKOREDUCED RED CELLS is a product in which the absolute WBC count in the unit is reduced to ____, and contains at least ______ of the original RBC mass.
A. 1 x 10 10th, 85%
B. 3.0 x 10 11th, 85%
C. 5.5 x 10 10th, 85%
D. 5 x 10 6th, 85%
D. 5 x 10 6th, 85%
Which transfusion reaction presents with fever, maculopapular rash, watery diarrhea, abnormal liver function, and pancytopenia?
A. Transfusion-associated sepsis
B. Transfusion-related acute lung injury
C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
D. Transfusion-associated allergic reaction
C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
Pain at infusion site and hypotension are observed with what type of reaction?
A. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
B. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Allergic reaction
D. Febrile nonhemolytic reaction
B. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in which of the following blood group systems?
A. ABO
B. Rh
C. MN
D. Duffy
A. ABO
Which of the following most commonly causes an individual to type RhD positive yet possess anti-D?
A. Genetic weak D
B. Partial D
C. C in trans to RHD
D. D epitopes on RhCE protein
B. Partial D
Excluding ABO, ___ is rated second only to Rh(D) in terms of immunogenicity.
A. Lewis
B. Kidd
C. Kell
D. Duffy
C. Kell
The only presenting sign most often accompanying a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is?
A. Renal failure
B. Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin
C. Active bleeding
D. Hives
B. Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin
What may be found in the serum of a person who is exhibiting signs of TRALI (transfusion-related acute lung injury)?
A. Red blood cell alloantibody
B. IgA antibody
C. Antileukocyte antibody
D. Allergen
C. Antileukocyte antibody
What antibodies could an R1R1 make if exposed to R2R2 blood?
A. Anti-e and anti-C
B. Anti-E and anti-c
C. Anti-E and anti-C
D. Anti-e and anti-c
A. Anti-e and anti-C
Of the following therapeutic agents, those considered to be anti-platelet medications are:
A. Aspirin and Plavix®
B. Coumadin® and heparin
C. Heparin and protamine sulfate
D. Tissue plasminogen activator and streptokinase
A. Aspirin and Plavix®
A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least _____ Todd units in an adult.
A. 200 Todd units
B. 240 Todd units
C. 320 Todd units
D. 340 Todd units
B. 240 Todd units
A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least _____ Todd units in a child.
A. 200 Todd units
B. 240 Todd units
C. 320 Todd units
D. 340 Todd units
C. 320 Todd units
The MOST COMMON INITIAL clinical manifestation of hemolytic transfusion reaction is:
A. Shock
B. Shortness of breath
C. Fever
D. Bleeding
C. Fever
HLA-B8 antigen has been associated with which of the following pairs of diseases?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis and myasthenia gravis
B. Celiac disease and akylosing spondylitis
C. Myasthenia gravis and celiac disease
D. Reiter disease and multiple sclerosis
C. Myasthenia gravis and celiac disease
What techniques are necessary for weak D testing?
A. Saline + 22°C incubation
B. Albumin or LISS + 37°C incubation
C. Saline + 37°C incubation
D. 37°C incubation + IAT
D. 37°C incubation + IAT
Testing reveals a weak D that reacts 1+ after indirect antiglobulin testing (IAT). How is this result classified?
A. Rh-positive
B. Rh-negative, Du positive
C. Rh-negative
D. Rh-positive, Du positive
A. Rh-positive
What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results are negative?
A. Perform additional testing such as typing withanti-A1 lectin and anti-A,B
B. Incubate at 22°C or 4°C to enhance weak expression
C. Repeat the test with new reagents
D. Run an antibody identification panel
B. Incubate at 22°C or 4°C to enhance weak expression
A 55-year-old male with early stage prostate cancer diagnosed by biopsy had his prostate gland removed (simple prostatectomy). His PSA prior to surgery was 10.0 ng/mL. If the surgery was successful in completely removing the tumor cells, what would the PSA result be 1 month after surgery?
A. Undetectable
B. 1–3 ng/mL
C. Less than 4 ng/mL
D. Less than 10 ng/mL
A. Undetectable
A patient has a prostate-specific antigen level of 60 ng/mL the day before surgery to remove a localized prostate tumor. One week following surgery, the serum PSA was determined to be 8 ng/mL by the same method. What is the most likely cause of these results?
A. Incomplete removal of the malignancy
B. Cross reactivity of the antibody with another tumor antigen
C. Testing too soon after surgery
D. Hook effect with the PSA assay
C. Testing too soon after surgery
A newborn is to be tested for a vertically transmitted HIV infection. Which of the following tests is most useful?
A. HIV PCR
B. CD4 count
C. Rapid HIV antibody test
D. HIV IgM antibody test
A. HIV PCR
Which of the following is the most sensitive test to detect congenital syphilis?
A. VDRL
B. RPR
C. Microhemagglutinin test for T. pallidum (MHA-TP)
D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Fibrinogen, which has been implicated as a primary risk factor for thrombotic disorders, increases approximately ___ mg/dL per decade in the elderly (65 to 79 years).
A. 5 mg/dL
B. 8 mg/dL
C. 10 mg/dL
D. 12 mg/dL
C. 10 mg/dL
In END-STAGE LIVER DISEASE, the fibrinogen level may fall to less than ____mg/dL, which is a mark of liver failure.
A. Less than 100 mg/dL
B. Less than 150 mg/dL
C. Less than 200 mg/dL
D. Less than 250 mg/dL
A. Less than 100 mg/dL
An indicator of PREECLAMPSIA:
A. Cylindruria
B. Ketonuria
C. Hematuria
D. Proteinuria
D. Proteinuria
Shelf-life of FFP stored at -18C or colder:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 7 years
D. 10 years
A. 1 year
Frozen plasma stored at -65C:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 7 years
D. 10 years
C. 7 years
Neutrophil in the maturation-storage phase:
A. 7 to 10 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
Basophil in the maturation-storage phase:
A. 7 to 10 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours
D. 12 hours
Eosinophil in the maturation-storage phase:
A. 2.5 days
B. 3.5 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours
A. 2.5 days
Average life span of neutrophils in circulating blood:
A. 7 to 10 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours
A. 7 to 10 hours
Average life span of basophils in circulating blood:
A. 7 to 10 hours
B. 7 to 10 days
C. 8.5 hours
D. 12 hours
C. 8.5 hours
Which of the following tumor markers is used to monitor persons with breast cancer for recurrence of disease?
A. Cathepsin-D
B. CA-15-3
C. Retinoblastoma gene
D. Estrogen receptor (ER)
B. CA-15-3
Which tumor marker is used to determine the usefulness of TRASTUZUMAB (HERCEPTIN) therapy for breast cancer?
A. PR
B. CEA
C. HER-2/neu
D. Myc
C. HER-2/neu
The heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule consists of ____ iron (Fe2+) atom(s) and ____ pyrrole rings that are joined to each other.
A. One iron and two pyrrole rings
B. One iron and four pyrrole rings
C. Two iron and four pyrrole rings
D. Four iron and four pyrrole rings
B. One iron and four pyrrole rings
INR range recommended for most indications (e.g., treatment or prophylaxis of deep venous thrombosis [DVT], or prevention of further clotting in patients who have had a myocardial infarction):
A. 1.0 to 1.5
B. 1.5 to 2.0
C. 2.0 to 3.0
D. 2.5 to 3.5
C. 2.0 to 3.0
INR recommended for patients with prosthetic heart valves:
A. 1.0 to 1.5
B. 1.5 to 2.0
C. 2.0 to 3.0
D. 2.5 to 3.5
D. 2.5 to 3.5
The target INR for pulmonary embolism (PE) treatment is ____ for the duration of anticoagulation.
A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
D. 3.0
A patient on therapeutic warfarin will most likely have a(n)
A. Normal PT/INR, increased APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count
B. Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
C. Normal PT/INR, normal APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
D. Increased PT/INR, normal APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count
B. Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
Which type of urine sample is needed for a D-xylose absorption test on an adult patient?
A. 24-hour urine sample collected with 20 mL of 6 N HCl
B. 2-hour timed postprandial urine preserved with boric acid
C. 5-hour timed urine kept under refrigeration
D. Random urine preserved with formalin
C. 5-hour timed urine kept under refrigeration
Hemoglobin appears for the first time:
A. Pronormoblast
B. Basophilic normoblast
C. Polychromatophilic normoblast
D. Orthochromic normoblast
C. Polychromatophilic normoblast
What is the approximate total blood volume in an adult?
A. 1 L
B. 2 L
C. 6 L
D. 12 L
C. 6 L
Stem cell mobilization:
1. G-CSF
2. GM-CSF
3. IL-2
4. IL-3
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4
Which cell surface membrane marker is used for enumeration of hematopoietic progenictor cell (HPC) enumeration?
A. CD4
B. CD8
C. CD34
D. CD45
C. CD34
Thoroughly clean between the fingers and under the fingernails for at least ______ ; include thumbs and wrists in the cleaning.
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 10 seconds
D. 20 seconds
D. 20 seconds
A history of cancer, leukemia, or lymphoma is generally a cause for ______ deferral.
A. No deferral
B. 12 months deferral
C. 24 months deferral
D. Indefinite deferral
D. Indefinite deferral
The cell selected for chromosome analysis is usually in the ____ stage of cellular division.
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Telophase
D. Anaphase
B. Metaphase
Preanalytical (pre-examination) errors, except:
A. Blood specimens collected in the wrong order
B. Incorrect labeling of specimen
C. Improper processing of specimen
D. Wrong assay performed
D. Wrong assay performed
Most frequently implicated infected body fluid in HIV and HBV exposure in the workplace:
A. Saliva
B. Blood
C. Urine
D. Seminal fluid
B. Blood
Myeloblast stage lasts approximately:
A. 15 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 4.3 days
A. 15 hours
Promyelocyte stage lasts about:
A. 15 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 4.3 days
B. 24 hours
The stage from myelocyte to metamyelocyte lasts an average of:
A. 15 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 4.3 days
D. 4.3 days
In general, cytoplasmic color in younger cells:
A. Pink
B. Red
C. Dark blue
D. Light blue
C. Dark blue
Platelet adhesion defect:
A. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
B. Essential athrombia
C. Afibrinogenemia
D. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
A. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Primary platelet aggregation defect(s):
1. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
2. Essential athrombia
3. Afibrinogenemia
4. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 4
B. 2 and 4
The most versatile type of stem cell, can develop into any human cell type, including development from embryo into fetus:
A. Multipotential stem cell
B. Pluripotential stem cell
C. Totipotential stem cell
D. None of these
C. Totipotential stem cell
A process in which a segment of one chromosome BREAKS AWAY from its normal location:
A. Duplication
B. Deletion
C. Substitution
D. Translocation
D. Translocation
Master regulatory hormone of systemic iron metabolism:
A. Ferritin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Hepcidin
D. Transferrin
C. Hepcidin
Its most characteristic feature is that the nucleus begins to assume an indented or kidney bean shape, which will continue to elongate as the cell matures.
A. Promyelocyte
B. Myelocyte
C. Metamyelocyte
D. Band
C. Metamyelocyte
Enzymes have an optimal reaction temperature, which is:
A. Usually 25C
B. Usually 37C
C. 25C and 37C
D. 40 to 50C
B. Usually 37C
To calibrate the pH electrode in a pH/ blood gas analyzer, it is necessary that:
A. The barometric pressure be knownand used for adjustments
B. Calibrating gases of known high and low concentrations be used
C. The calibration be performed at room temperature
D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be used
D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be used
Only carbohydrate directly used for energy:
A. Glucose
B. Maltose
C. Fructose
D. Lactose
A. Glucose
Enzyme assay useful in forensic clinical chemistry:
A. CK
B. ACP
C. ALT
D. AST
B. ACP
If the samples for lactate dehydrogenase (LD) determination cannot be analyzed immediately, it should be stored at ____ and analyzed within 48 hours.
A. 4C
B. 25C
C. 37C
D. -20C
B. 25C
It is a measure of overall glucose homeostasis:
A. Random blood sugar
B. Fasting blood sugar
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. Glycosylated hemoglobin
B. Fasting blood sugar
AST activity in decreasing order:
A. Heart, liver, skeletal muscles
B. Liver, heart, skeletal muscles
C. Heart, liver, smooth muscles
D. Liver, heart, smooth muscles
A. Heart, liver, skeletal muscles
Urea is only a rough estimate of renal function and will not show any significant level of increased concentration until the GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE IS DECREASED BY AT LEAST ____.
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 80%
B. 50%
Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
A. Metabolic acidosis
In salicylate overdose, what is the first acid-base disturbance present?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Nondestructive technique for determining the structure of organic compounds:
A. Scintillation counter
B. Freezing point osmometer
C. Mass spectroscopy
D. Nuclear magnetic resonance
D. Nuclear magnetic resonance
All of the following inhibit growth hormone secretion, except:
A. Glucose loading
B. Insulin, nutritional deficiencies
C. Thyroxine deficiency
D. Amino acids, sleep, exercise
D. Amino acids, sleep, exercise
A steroid hormone produced by the corpus luteum and placenta that prepares the endometrium for blastocyst implantation and maintains pregnancy:
A. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
C. Estriol
D. Progesterone
D. Progesterone
Single best hormone to determine whether ovulation has occurred; THERMOGENIC EFFECT, in which basal body temperature rises after ovulation. This effect is of clinical use in marking the occurrence of ovulation.
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Testosterone
D. Thyroxine
B. Progesterone
All of the following are naturally occurring opiates except:
A. Morphine
B. Codeine
C. Heroin
D. Opium
C. Heroin
At temperature of 4C:
A. Decreased ALP and LD
B. Increased ALP and LD
C. Increased ALP and decreased LD
D. Decreased ALP and increased LD
C. Increased ALP and decreased LD
All of the following are tropic hormones, EXCEPT:
A. GH
B. LH
C. FSH
D. TSH
A. GH
A procedure with minimal complexity, instrumentation, and personnel requirements so that the results can be quickly determined:
A. Waived test
B. Nonwaived test
C. Definitive test
D. Presumptive test
D. Presumptive test
Highly sensitive and specific test in which results can be used as legal evidence:
A. Waived test
B. Non-waived test
C. Definitive test
D. Presumptive test
C. Definitive test
In the laboratory, a program that monitors the total testing process with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care:
A. Quality systems
B. Quality control
C. Quality assessment/assurance
C. Quality assessment/assurance
A system that verifies the reliability of analytical test results through the use of standards, controls, and statistical analysis:
A. Quality systems
B. Quality control
C. Quality assessment
D. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
In an institution, a comprehensive program in which all areas of operation are monitored to ensure quality with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care:
A. Quality systems
B. Quality control
C. Quality assessment
D. Quality assurance
A. Quality systems
Electrolytes for acid-base balance:
A. Na+, Cl-, K+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
C. Bicarbonate, Cl-
D. Ca2+ Mg2+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
Electrolytes for coagulation:
A. Na+, Cl-, K+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
C. Bicarbonate, Cl-
D. Ca2+ Mg2+
D. Ca2+ Mg2+
Which of the following can cause cardiac arrest in the absence of warning symptoms or signs?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
C. Hyperkalemia
Which of the following measurements is necessary to evaluate the cause of hypernatremia?
A. Chloride
B. Glucose
C. Plasma/serum osmolality
D. Urine osmolality
D. Urine osmolality
Hyponatremia can be classified according to:
A. Chloride
B. Glucose
C. Plasma/serum osmolality
D. Urine osmolality
C. Plasma/serum osmolality
A patient presents with Addison disease. Serum sodium and potassium analyses are performed. What would the results reveal?
A. Normal sodium, low potassium levels
B. Low sodium, low potassium levels
C. Low sodium, high potassium levels
D. High sodium, low potassium levels
C. Low sodium, high potassium levels
Which of the following values is the threshold critical value (alert or action level) for low plasma potassium?
A. 1.5 mmol/L
B. 2.0 mmol/L
C. 2.5 mmol/L
D. 3.5 mmol/L
C. 2.5 mmol/L
Which of the following values is the threshold critical value (alert or action level) for high plasma sodium?
A. 150 mmol/L
B. 160 mmol/L
C. 170 mmol/L
D. 180 mmol/L
B. 160 mmol/L
Positive rheumatoid factor is generally associated with:
A. Hyperglobulinemia
B. Anemia
C. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
D. Azotemia
A. Hyperglobulinemia
Sodium is a threshold substance, meaning that no sodium will be excreted in the urine until the renal threshold (a plasma sodium concentration of approximately ____ mmol/L) is exceeded.
A. 90 mmol/L
B. 100 mmol/L
C. 105 mmol/L
D. 120 mmol/L
D. 120 mmol/L
Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure?
A. Chloride
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Bicarbonate
C. Sodium
It is the major extracellular anion. It is involved in maintaining osmolality, blood volume, and electric neutrality.
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Calcium
D. Chloride
D. Chloride
Hyponatremia due to increased water retention, EXCEPT:
A. Diuretic use
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Hepatic cirrhosis
D. Congestive heart failure
A. Diuretic use
Seventy (70) percent recirculated to the cabinet work area through HEPA; 30% balance can be exhausted through HEPA back into the room or to outside through a canopy unit:
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2
B. BSC Class II, A1
Thirty (30) percent recirculated, 70% exhausted. Exhaust cabinet air must pass through a dedicated duct to the outside through a HEPA filter.
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2
C. BSC Class II, B1
No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter.
A. BSC Class I
B. BSC Class II, A1
C. BSC Class II, B1
D. BSC Class II, B2
D. BSC Class II, B2
PT normal
APTT prolonged
- APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
- APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected
- APTT + aged serum = not corrected
Most likely coagulation factor deficient:
A. Factor I
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX
C. Factor VIII
PT normal
APTT prolonged
- APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
- APTT + adsorbed plasma = not corrected
- APTT + aged serum = corrected
A. Factor I
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX
D. Factor IX
PT prolonged
APTT prolonged
- APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
- APTT + adsorbed plasma = not corrected
- APTT + aged serum = not corrected
Most likely coagulation factor deficient:
A. Factor I
B. Factor V
C. Factor X
D. Factor II
D. Factor II
Patient with severe bleeding
PT normal
APTT prolonged
- APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
- APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected
- APTT + aged serum = corrected
Most likely coagulation factor deficient:
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor XI
D. Factor XII
C. Factor XI
Patient with no bleeding tendency
PT normal
APTT prolonged
- APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
- APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected
- APTT + aged serum = corrected
Most likely coagulation factor deficient:
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor XI
D. Factor XII
D. Factor XII
In the anti-double-stranded DNA procedure, the antigen most commonly utilized is:
A. Rat stomach tissue
B. Mouse kidney tissue
C. Crithidia luciliae
D. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Crithidia luciliae
An acute phase protein that binds to the membrane of certain microorganisms and activates the complement system is:
A. C-reactive protein
B. Tumor necrosis factor alpha
C. Neutrophils
D. Kinins
A. C-reactive protein
Which of the following describes an antigen antibody reaction?
A. The reaction is reversible
B. The reaction is the same as a chemical reaction
C. A lattice is formed at prozone
D. A lattice is formed at postzone
A. The reaction is reversible
A substrate is first exposed to a patient’s serum, then after washing, anti-human immunoglobulin labeled with a fluorochrome is added. The procedure described is:
A. Fluorescent quenching
B. Direct fluorescence
C. Indirect fluorescence
D. Fluorescence inhibition
C. Indirect fluorescence
Patients suffering from Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia demonstrate excesively increased concentrations of which of the following?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD
C. IgM
Which of the following is the most common humoral immune deficiency disease?
A. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
B. IgG deficiency
C. Selective IgA deficiency
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Selective IgA deficiency
Tumor markers found in the circulation are most frequently measured by:
A. Immunoassays
B. Thin-layer chromatography
C. High-pressure liquid chromatography
D. Colorimetry
A. Immunoassays
Typical dilution for manual RBC count:
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200
C. 1:100
Typical dilution for manual WBC count:
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200
B. 1:20
Typical dilution for manual platelet count:
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200
C. 1:100
Typical dilution for manual platelet count:
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200
C. 1:100
If fewer than 50 platelets are counted on each side, the procedure should be repeated by diluting the blood to:
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200
B. 1:20
If more than 500 platelets are counted on each side, a ___ dilution should be made.
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200
D. 1:200
Area counted for manual RBC count:
A. 0.2 mm2
B. 0.4 mm2
C. 1 mm2
D. 4 mm2
A. 0.2 mm2
Area counted for manual WBC count:
A. 0.2 mm2
B. 0.4 mm2
C. 1 mm2
D. 4 mm2
D. 4 mm2
Area counted for manual platelet count:
A. 0.2 mm2
B. 0.4 mm2
C. 1 mm2
D. 4 mm2
C. 1 mm2
For manual WBC count, allow the dilution to sit for ________ to ensure that the red blood cells have lysed.
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes
C. 10 minutes
For manual WBC count, after charging the hemacytometer, place it in a moist chamber for _______ before counting the cells to give them time to settle.
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes
C. 10 minutes
For manual platelet count, place the charged hemacytometer in a moist chamber for _________ to allow the platelets to settle.
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes
D. 15 minutes
Values of the duplicate hematocrits should agree within ____.
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
A. 1%
To improve accuracy of the retic count, have another laboratorian count the other film; counts should agree within _____.
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
D. 20%
The difference between the total cells counted on each side of the counting chamber should be less than ______.
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
C. 10%
High WBC count that can cause turbidity and a falsely high hemoglobin result:
A. WBCs > 10 x 10 9th/L
B. WBCs > 20 x 10 9th/L
C. WBCs > 50 x 10 9th/L
D. WBCs > 70 x 10 9th/L
B. WBCs > 20 x 10 9th/L
High platelet count that can cause turbidity and a falsely high hemoglobin result:
A. Platelets > 150 x 10 9th/L
B. Platelets > 200 x 10 9th/L
C. Platelets > 500 x 10 9th/L
D. Platelets > 700 x 10 9th/L
D. Platelets > 700 x 10 9th/L
A patient being treated for metastatic carcinoma was found to have a white cell count of 5 × 10^9/L with 5 metarubricytes (nucleated red cells) per 100 white WBCs. What is the corrected white cell count for this patient?
A. 2.1 × 10^9/L
B. 2.4 × 10^9/L
C. 4.8 × 10^9/L
D. 5.2 × 10^9/L
C. 4.8 × 10^9/L
The most commonly used dilution for sperm concentration is _____ prepared using a mechanical (positive-displacement) pipette.
A. 1:10
B. 1:20
C. 1:100
D. 1:200
B. 1:20
For sperm concentration, both sides of the hemocytometer are loaded and allowed to settle for 3 to 5 minutes; then they are counted, and the counts should agree within ____.
A. Within 10%
B. Within 15%
C. Within 20%
D. Within 25%
A. Within 10%
When the correct area of a specimen from a patient with a normal RBC count is viewed, there are generally about ____ RBCs per 100x oil immersion field.
A. 10 to 15 RBCs per OIF
B. 20 to 25 RBCs per OIF
C. 100 to 150 RBCs per OIF
D. 200 to 250 RBCs per OIF
D. 200 to 250 RBCs per OIF
To evaluate normal platelet numbers in an appropriate area of a blood smear, approximately how many platelets should be observed per oil immersion field?
A. 1-4
B. 4-10
C. 8-20
D. 20-50
C. 8-20
To increase accuracy, it is advisable to count at LEAST 200 CELLS when the WBC count is:
A. Higher than 10 x 10^9/L
B. Higher than 20 x 10^9/L
C. Higher than 30 x 10^9/L
D. Higher than 40 x 10^9/L
D. Higher than 40 x 10^9/L
If the WBC count is _____ or greater, it would be more precise and accurate to count 300 OR 400 CELLS.
A. 5 x 10^9/L or greater
B. 10 x 10^9/L or greater
C. 40 x 10^9/L or greater
D. 100 x 10^9/L or greater
D. 100 x 10^9/L or greater
Which testing platform meets this description? An isolated colony is irradiated by laser, which ionizes the biomolecules and causes them to become accelerated in an electric field. The ionized biomolecules then enter a flight tube where they are separated by their MASS-TO-CHARGE ratio.
A. MALDI-TOF
B. Multiplex PCR
C. Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis
D. Sequencing
A. MALDI-TOF
Signal amplification differs from target amplification when designing protocols for identification of nucleic acids. Which of the following is an example of a signal amplification technique?
A. Branched-chain DNA detection
B. Ligase chain reaction
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. Reverse-transcriptase PCR
A. Branched-chain DNA detection
Which technique involves PROBE amplification rather than target amplification?
A. Southern blot
B. PCR
C. Transcription-mediated amplification
D. Ligase chain reaction
D. Ligase chain reaction
An 18-year-old female with a hematocrit of 38%, temperature of 37C, and blood pressure of 175/ 90 mm Hg presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?
A. Accept
B. TD, blood pressure is too high for a person of her age
C. TD, temperature is too high
D. PD, for all values listed
A. Accept
A 22-year-old female with a cousin with AIDS who had taken aspirin the day before and with needle marks on both arms presents to donate WHOLE BLOOD. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?
A. PD, needle marks on both arms
B. TD, needle marks on both arms
C. PD, cousin with AIDS
D. TD, because of the aspirin
A. PD, needle marks on both arms
A 63-year-old man with a hemoglobin value of 130 g/L (13 g/dL) and pulse of 80 beats/min, who received human pituitary growth hormone (PGH) when he was 10 years old, presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD,) or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?
A. Accept the donor
B. TD, because of the human PGH
C. PD, because of the human PGH
D. PD, because of the high hemoglobin value
C. PD, because of the human PGH
A 38-year-old female weighing 153 lbs, who received the rubella vaccine 2 months previously, presents to donate whole blood. She also received 2 units of packed cells after the delivery of her eighth child 8 weeks ago. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?
A. Accept the donor
B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago
C. PD because of receiving blood products
D. TD because of the rubella vaccine
B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago
A decrease in serum haptoglobin accompanies which of the following?
A. Extravascular hemolysis
B. Intravascular hemolysis
C. Extramedullary hematopoiesis
D. Suppressed erythropoiesis
B. Intravascular hemolysis
The decreased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) would result in which of the following actions from the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis?
A. Decreased release of TSH from the pituitary gland
B. Increased release of TSH from the thyroid gland
C. Decreased release of thyroid hormones from the thyroid glands
D. Increased release of thyroid hormones from the thyroid glands
C. Decreased release of thyroid hormones from the thyroid glands
Which of the following is the best way to handle CAP Proficiency Testing samples?
A. Be extra careful and run the test samples several times before reporting to make sure your results are correct
B. Ensure that quality control and maintenance are acceptable before performing both patient testing and PT testing
C. Double-check your answers before mailing by checking your results with those from another laboratory
D. The most experienced MLS should do all proficiency testing to make sure it is right
B. Ensure that quality control and maintenance are acceptable before performing both patient testing and PT testing
The most probable explanation for a patient who presents with an elevated osmolal gap, metabolic acidosis, and calcium oxalate crystals in the urine is:
A. Methanol intoxication
B. Ethanol overdose
C. Ethylene glycol intoxication
D. Cyanide poisoning
C. Ethylene glycol intoxication
Alkaline phosphatase values are expected to be increased in all of the following situations except:
A. Child undergoing a growth spurt
B. During a time of increased bone remodeling
C. After a myocardial infarction
D. Paget’s disease
C. After a myocardial infarction
Which of the following analytes is helpful in distinguishing a condition affecting the liver from bone disease in the presence of an elevation of ALP?
A. AST
B. ALT
C. ALP
D. GGT
D. GGT
In patients with developing subclinical hypothyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______, and fT4 will likely be ______.
A. Decreased, increased
B. Increased, decreased
C. Decreased, normal
D. Increased, normal
D. Increased, normal
Which of the following vitamins is less likely to accumulate at toxic levels?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin C
Which of the following hormones involved in calcium regulation acts by increasing the amount of calcium in the blood by enhancing absorption through the intestines, stimulation of osteoclasts, and suppressing loss in the urine?
A. PTH
B. Calcitonin
C. Vitamin D
D. Cortisol
A. PTH
Which enzyme deficiency is most commonly associated with familial hypertriglyceridemia associated with fasting plasma cholomicrons (formerly type I hyperlipoproteinemia)?
A. β Glucocerebrosidase deficiency
B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase deficiency
C. Apo-B deficiency
D. Apo-C-III deficiency
B. Post–heparin-activated lipoprotein lipase deficiency
Which of the following conditions is most consistently associated with secondary hypercholesterolemia?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Pancreatitis
C. Oral contraceptive therapy
D. Diabetes mellitus
A. Hypothyroidism
Which of the following mechanisms accounts for the elevated plasma level of β lipoproteins seen in familial hypercholesterolemia (formerly type II hyperlipoproteinemia)?
A. Hyperinsulinemia
B. Apo B-100 receptor defect
C. Apo C-II activated lipase deficiency
D. Apo E3 deficiency
B. Apo B-100 receptor defect
Identify the enzyme deficiency responsible for type 1 glycogen storage disease (von Gierke’s disease).
A. Glucose-6-phosphatase
B. Glycogen phosphorylase
C. Glycogen synthetase
D. β-Glucosidase
A. Glucose-6-phosphatase
Which of the following abnormal laboratory results is found in von Gierke’s disease?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Increased glucose response to epinephrine administration
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Hyperlipidemia
D. Hyperlipidemia
According to the National Cholesterol Education Program, which lipid or lipoprotein class is more important for therapeutic decision making (diet and medication decisions)?
A. Chylomicrons
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. Cholesterol
B. LDL
A patient sample is assayed for fasting triglycerides and a triglyceride value of 1036 mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because of its association with which of the following conditions?
A. Coronary heart disease
B. Diabetes
C. Pancreatitis
D. Gout
C. Pancreatitis
Which of the following is most likely to produce an elevated plasma potassium result?
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. Diarrhea
D. Hemolysis
D. Hemolysis
Which of the following hormones involved in calcium regulation acts by decreasing both calcium and phosphorous?
A. PTH
B. Calcitonin
C. Vitamin D
D. Cortisol
B. Calcitonin
Which of the following conditions can “physiologically” elevate serum alkaline phosphatase?
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Diabetes
C. Third-trimester pregnancy
D. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Third-trimester pregnancy
One international unit of enzyme activity is theamount of enzyme that under specified reaction conditions of substrate concentration, pH, and temperature, causes usage of substrate at the rate of:
A. 1 millimole/min
B. 1 micromole/min
C. 1 nanomole/min
D. 1 picomole/min
B. 1 micromole/min
Precursor for serotonin and melatonin:
A. Glutamine
B. Threonine
C. Tryptophan
D. Tyrosine
C. Tryptophan
Thyroid hormones are derived from which of the following?
A. Histidine
B. Cholesterol
C. Tyrosine
D. Phenylalanine
C. Tyrosine
The electrolytes sodium, chloride and bicarbonate, because they are present in high concentrations in the ECF, and contribute to over ___ of serum osmolality.
A. 8%
B. 35%
C. 68%
D. 92%
D. 92%
Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
A. Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following liver conditions shows an increase in both conjugated bilirubin and ALP, manifests with antimitochondrial antibodies, and shows a characteristic lipoprotein X on electrophoresis?
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
C. Alcoholic fatty liver
D. Hepatic tumors
B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
Which of the following blood samples would serve best to assay lipoproteins because this anticoagulant acts to preserve lipoproteins?
A. EDTA plasma sample
B. Heparin plasma sample
C. Citrate plasma sample
D. Fluoride plasma sample
A. EDTA plasma sample
A nurse calls the laboratory technologist on duty asking about blood collection for the analysis of enzymes (AST, ALP, ALT, GGT, CK). Which of the following tubes would you suggest the technologist collect?
A. Red top
B. EDTA
C. Oxalate
D. Fluoride
A. Red top
Failure of laboratory personnel to document the time a semen sample is collected primarily affects the interpretation of semen:
A. Appearance
B. Volume
C. pH
D. Viscosity
D. Viscosity
Anticoagulant suitable for most drug analysis.
A. Heparin
B. Citrate
C. Oxalate
D. EDTA
A. Heparin
Nonspecific immunity includes all of the following except:
A. Inflammation
B. Phagocytosis by neutrophils
C. B-cell activation to produce antibodies
D. Resident normal flora
C. B-cell activation to produce antibodies
Most laboratories use which type of fire extinguisher?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Combination ABC
D. Combination ABC
All of the following are differential media except:
A. Blood agar
B. Chocolate agar
C. MacConkey’s agar
D. Eosin methylene blue agar
B. Chocolate agar
What is the stain that binds to the nucleic acid of organisms but does not discriminate between gram-positive or gram-negative organisms called?
A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
B. Auramine-rhodamine stain
C. Gram stain
D. Acridine orange stain
D. Acridine orange stain
What step in the Gram stain distinguishes between gram-positive and gram-negative organisms?
A. Fixing of the cells to the slide using heat or methanol
B. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone
C. Counterstain of the Gram stain using safranin
D. Application of the mordant, Gram’s iodine
B. Decolorization using alcohol or acetone
Dark-field microscopy is used for the microscopic examination of what types of bacteria?
A. Gram-positive cocci such as Staphylococcus aureus
B. Yeast such as Candida tropicalis
C. Gram-negative bacilli such as Escherichia coli
D. Spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum
D. Spirochetes such as Treponema pallidum
Which type of enrichment media is used to isolate Neisseria and Haemophilus organisms?
A. Hektoen enteric (HE) agar
B. Todd Hewitt broth
C. Regan Lowe agar
D. Chocolate agar
D. Chocolate agar
The following are all bacterial phenotypic characteristics except:
A. Microscopic morphology and staining characteristics
B. Environmental requirements for growth
C. Nutritional requirements and metabolic capabilities
D. The presence of a particular nucleic acid sequence
D. The presence of a particular nucleic acid sequence
What is the number of bacteria needed to cause turbidity in broth culture and to be seen with an unaided eye?
A. 10^2 organisms
B. 10^4 organisms
C. 10^6 organisms
D. 10^8 organisms
C. 10^6 organisms
When examining fluids by direct microscopic examination, if one organism is seen per oil immersion field, how many organisms per milliliter of specimen are present?
A. 5^5
B. 7^5
C. 15^5
D. 10^5
D. 10^5
What temperature is used to achieve DNA denaturation to a single strand?
A. 74 °C
B. 92 °C
C. 94 °C
D. 102 °C
C. 94 °C
A widely used hemagglutination test for detecting antibody to Treponema pallidum is:
A. MHA-TP test
B. FTA-ABS test
C. VDRL test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition assay
A. MHA-TP test
What substance added to the antigen in the RPR test allows for more macroscopically visible flocculation?
A. Latex particles
B. Extracellular antigens
C. Heparin-magnesium chloride particles
D. Charcoal particles
D. Charcoal particles
The mechanism of action for tetracycline is inhibition of:
A. RNA synthesis
B. Cell wall synthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. Membrane function
C. Protein synthesis
The two cations known to influence the activity of aminoglycosides are:
A. Sodium and potassium
B. Calcium and potassium
C. Calcium and magnesium
D. Sodium and magnesium
C. Calcium and magnesium
Which of these antimicrobial agents inhibits DNA synthesis?
A. Fluoroquinolones
B. Beta-lactam agents
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Glycopeptides
A. Fluoroquinolones
The two cations known to influence the activity of aminoglycosides are:
A. Sodium and potassium
B. Calcium and potassium
C. Calcium and magnesium
D. Sodium and magnesium
C. Calcium and magnesium
The standard inoculum size for AGAR DILUTION susceptibility testing is:
A. 1 × 10^4 CFU/mL
B. 5 × 10^5 CFU/mL
C. 1 × 10^7 CFU/mL
D. 5 × 10^8 CFU/mL
A. 1 × 10^4 CFU/mL
All of the following media used for the cultivation of Micrococcaceae are selective except:
A. 5% sheep blood agar
B. Phenyl-ethyl alcohol agar
C. Mannitol salt agar
D. Colistin nalidixic acid agar
A. 5% sheep blood agar
A chromogenic cephalosporin is used to detect resistance to:
A. Macrolides
B. Aminoglycosides
C. β-lactams
D. Tetracyclines
C. β-lactams
Which test is used for the determination of inducible clindamycin resistance in staphylococci and streptococci?
A. E-test
B. D-zone test
C. A-test
D. CAMP test
B. D-zone test
The D-zone susceptibility test is used to test inducible resistance on S. aureus strains demonstrating an initial antibiotic susceptibility profile of:
A. Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin sensitive
B. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive
C. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin resistant
D. Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin resistant
B. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive
Resistance to clindamycin can be induced in vitro by
A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Penicillin
B. Erythromycin
Necrotizing fasciitis is a serious infection associated with:
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus mitis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
Which organism produces the CAMP factor enhancing beta hemolysis in the presence of the S. aureus beta lysin?
A. group A streptococci
B. group B streptococci
C. group C streptococci
D. group D streptococci
B. group B streptococci
Optochin sensitivity is used to differentiate:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci
B. Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus agalactiae from Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Enterococci from non–group D enterococci
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci
Which organism is able to hydrolyze esculin and is a serious nosocomial pathogen?
A. S. bovis
B. S. mitis
C. E. faecalis
D. S. pneumoniae
C. E. faecalis
A large, aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rod is isolated from a blood culture. It can be further confirmed as B. anthracis if it is:
A. Hemolytic and motile
B. Hemolytic and nonmotile
C. Nonhemolytic and motile
D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile
D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile
Which organism is most commonly associated with human disease, particularly in immunocompromised patients, such as those infected with HIV?
A. Nocardia asteroides
B. Rhodococcus equi
C. Gordonia sp.
D. Tsukamurella sp.
B. Rhodococcus equi
Which of the following tests is most helpful in differentiating C.jejuni from the other Campylobacter spp.?
A. Nitrate reduction
B. Urease activity
C. Hippurate hydrolysis
D. Susceptibility to nalidixic acid
C. Hippurate hydrolysis
A positive hippurate hydrolysis is a characteristic of:
A. Campylobacter coli
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Campylobacter lari
D. Campylobacter fetus
B. Campylobacter jejuni
Campylobacter are:
A. Small, curved, motile, gram-positive bacilli
B. Small, curved, motile gram-negative bacilli
C. Small, curved, nonmotile, gram-negative bacilli
D. Small, curved, nonmotile, gram-negative bacilli
B. Small, curved, motile gram-negative bacilli
Specimen characteristics of an anaerobic infection include:
A. Foul odor, presence of sulfur granules, and green fluorescence
B. Foul odor, presence of metachromatic granules, and green fluorescence
C. Foul odor, sulfur smell, and red fluorescence
D. Foul odor, presence of sulfur granules, and red fluorescence
D. Foul odor, presence of sulfur granules, and red fluorescence
What is the safe volume of blood to be drawn for pediatric blood cultures?
A. <1 mL
B. 1 to 5 mL
C. 5 to 10 mL
D. 10to20mL
B. 1 to 5 mL
When setting up a urine culture, a calibrated loop is used that delivers a specific amount of urine to the media plate. What is that amount?
A. 0.01 or 0.001 mL of urine
B. 0.10 or 0.01 mL of urine
C. 0.001 or 0.0001 mL of urine
D. None of the above is correct
A. 0.01 or 0.001 mL of urine
Current recommendations include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of _____ species in serum samples:
A. Bordetella
B. Candida
C. Cryptococcus
D. Mycobacterium
B. Candida
Method of choice for diagnosis of congenital toxoplasmosis:
A. Latex agglutination
B. EIA
C. IFA
D. PCR
B. EIA
Prenatal congenital toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by performing ______ on amniotic fluid to detect T. gondii DNA:
A. Latex agglutination
B. EIA
C. IFA
D. PCR
D. PCR
Method of choice to detect T. gondii DNA in CSF:
A. Latex agglutination
B. EIA
C. IFA
D. PCR
D. PCR
Most common and easiest method to detect varicella-zoster virus (VZV) antibodies:
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
B. Fluorescent ab to membrane ag (FAMA)
C. Hemagglutination
D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
It is considered as the reference method for VZV antibody; most sensitive and most reliable:
A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
B. Fluorescent ab to membrane ag (FAMA)
C. Hemagglutination
D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
B. Fluorescent ab to membrane ag (FAMA)
Gold standard for detecting rickettsial antibodies:
A. ELISA and Immunoblot assays
B. ELISA and Immunoperoxidase assays (IPA)
C. Weil-Felix reaction
D. Indirect fluorescent assay (IFA) and micro-immunofluorescent assay (micro-IF)
D. Indirect fluorescent assay (IFA) and micro-immunofluorescent assay (micro-IF)
AUTOFLUORESCENCE requires no stain and is recommended for the identification of:
A. Entamoeba histolytica cysts
B. Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites
C. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites
D. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts
D. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts
Speed and time of rotation for serum VDRL test:
A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes
C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
Speed and time of rotation for CSF VDRL test:
A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes
D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes
Speed and time of rotation for RPR:
A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes
D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes
B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes
In the RPR test, what is the gauge of the needle for antigen delivery?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 20
D. 21
C. 20
In preparation of packed RBCs, if CPDA-1 is used, how many mL of plasma can be removed from whole blood?
A. 50 to 100 mL
B. 100 to 150 mL
C. 200 to 250 mL
D. 250 to 300 mL
C. 200 to 250 mL
In plateletpheresis, the total amount of plasma that can be removed along with the platelets is limited to:
A. 200 mL
B. 250 mL
C. 400 mL
D. 500 mL
D. 500 mL
Infection mimics acute viral enteritis, bacillary dysentery, bacterial or other food poisonings, acute intestinal amebiasis, or “traveler’s diarrhea” (toxigenic Escherichia coli).
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Isospora belli
D. Cryptosporidum parvum
B. Giardia lamblia
Small protozoa that have been missed on wet mounts or concentration methods are often detected with:
A. India ink
B. Iodine
C. Giemsa stain
D. Trichrome stain
D. Trichrome stain
Electrolytes for acid-base balance:
A. Na+, Cl-, K+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
C. Bicarbonate, Cl-
D. Ca2+ Mg2+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
Electrolytes for coagulation:
A. Na+, Cl-, K+
B. Bicarbonate, K+, Cl-
C. Bicarbonate, Cl-
D. Ca2+ Mg2+
D. Ca2+ Mg2+
Measures the concentration of solute particles in a solution:
A. Fluorometry
B. Nephelometry
C. Osmometry
D. Turbidimetry
C. Osmometry
Do not measure the concentration of solute particles in solution
1. Fluorometry
2. Nephelometry
3. Osmometry
4. Turbidimetry
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4
Do not measure the concentration of solute particles in solution
1. Fluorometry
2. Nephelometry
3. Osmometry
4. Turbidimetry
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4
Biochemically speaking, what type of molecules are Rh antigens?
A. Glycophorins
B. Simple sugars
C. Proteins
D. Lipids
C. Proteins
How many stool samples should be collected when following the typical O & P collection protocol?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
C. 3
Which of the following parasitic stages is not usually detected after using a concentration technique?
A. Protozoan cysts
B. Protozoan trophozoites
C. Helminth eggs
D. Helminth larvae
B. Protozoan trophozoites
The permanent stain of choice for the recovery of Cryptosporidium parvum is:
A. Iron hematoxylin
B. Modifed acid-fast
C. Gram
D. Trichrome
B. Modifed acid-fast
Skin snips are the specimen of choice for diagnosis of infection with:
A. Loa loa
B. Onchocerca volvulus
C. Brugia malayi
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Onchocerca volvulus
The first intermediate host for all the trematodes is which of the following?
A. Fish
B. Snail
C. Shrimp
D. Water plant
B. Snail
The typical transmission route of Paragonimus to humans consists of which of the following?
A. Consumption of contaminated crayfish or crabs
B. Swimming in contaminated water
C. Hand-to-mouth contamination
D. Walking barefoot on contaminated sandy soil
A. Consumption of contaminated crayfish or crabs
The specimen of choice for the recovery of Schistosoma japonicum is which of the following?
A. Tissue biopsy
B. Urine
C. Sputum
D. Stool
D. Stool
Which of the following genera contain the organisms responsible for the disease scabies caused by the itch mite?
A. Sarcoptes spp.
B. Pediculus spp.
C. Ornithodorus spp.
D. Dermatophagoides spp.
A. Sarcoptes spp.
The Oriental rat flea, Xenopsylla cheopis, can be involved in transmitting which of the following microorganisms?
A. Rickettsia typhi
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. Yersinia pestis
D. Plasmodium spp.
E. A and C are correct
E. A and C are correct
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of laboratory instrumentation to the hematology laboratory?
A. Produces faster results from specimens
B. Reduced cost on rarely performed procedures
C. Less variation in technique from technologist totechnologist
D. Increased accuracy because data are collected onmore cells counted or analyzed
B. Reduced cost on rarely performed procedures
Which parameters are calculated rather than directly measured
A. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width
B. Erythrocyte count and leukocyte count
C. Leukocyte count and hematocrit
D. Platelet count and platelet volume
A. Hematocrit and erythrocyte distribution width
In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger than normal will be to the _____ of the normal distribution curve.
A. Right
B. Left
C. In the middle
D. All of these
A. Right
The RDW and MCV are both quantitative descriptors of erythrocyte size. If both are increased, the most probable erythrocytic abnormality would be:
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Acquired aplastic anemia
C. megaloblastic anemia
D. Hemoglobinopathy
C. megaloblastic anemia
The MPV is:
A. Analogous to the MCHC
B. A direct measure of the platelet count
C. A measurement of the average volume of platelets
D. A comparison of the patient’s value to the normal value
C. A measurement of the average volume of platelets
Major systems in a flow cytometer include all of the following except:
A. Fluidics
B. Optics
C. Computerized electronics
D. Gating
D. Gating
Normal PDW is:
A. Less than 5%
B. Less than 10%
C. Less than 15%
D. Less than 20%
D. Less than 20%
The reagent used in the traditional sickle cell screening test is:
A. Sodium chloride
B. Sodium citrate
C. Sodium metabisulphite
D. Sodium potassium oxalate
C. Sodium metabisulphite
A decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score is seen in:
A. Polycythemia vera
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Leukemoid reactions
D. Acute myelogenous leukemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Which of the following procedures is used to detect the complement-sensitive cells in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
A. Sucrose lysis test
B. Donath-Landsteiner test
C. Acidified serum lysis (Ham test)
D. Both A and C
D. Both A and C
Which of the following parameters can be abnormal in classic von Willebrand disease type I?
A. Bleeding time
B. PT
C. Platelet count
D. All of the above
A. Bleeding time
At all times, approximately _____ of the total number ofplatelets are in the systemic circulation.
A. One fourth
B. One third
C. One half
D. Two thirds
D. Two thirds
Aspirin ingestion has the following hemostatic effect in a normal person.
A. Prolongs the bleeding time
B. Prolongs the clotting time
C. Inhibits factor VIII
D. Has no effect
A. Prolongs the bleeding time
The function of thromboplastin in the prothrombin test is to provide _____ to the assay.
A. Kaolin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Phospholipoprotein
D. Thrombin
C. Phospholipoprotein
What is used to zero the spectrophotometer before reading the test sample?
A. Calibrator
B. Sample blank
C. Reagent blank
D. Standard
C. Reagent blank
This is used to zero an instrument during a test procedure:
A. Calibrator
B. Sample blank
C. Reagent blank
D. Standard
B. Sample blank
Establishing a reference interval:
A new reference interval is established when there is no existing analyte or methodology in the clinical or reference laboratory with which to conduct comparative studies. It is a costly and labor-intensive study that will involve laboratory resources at all levels and may require from ____ to as many as ≈700 study individuals.
A. 20 study individuals
B. 50 study individuals
C. 100 study individuals
D. 120 study individuals
D. 120 study individuals
Verifying a reference interval (transference):
This is done to confirm the validity of an existing reference interval for an analyte using the same (identical) type of analytic system (method and/or instrument). These are the most common reference interval studies performed in the clinical laboratory and can require as few as ____ study individuals.
A. 20 study individuals
B. 50 study individuals
C. 100 study individuals
D. 120 study individuals
A. 20 study individuals
The two species of flies responsible for the transmission are Glossina palpalis and Glossina tachinoides:
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania tropica
C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
The two primary species of fly vectors responsible for transmitting are Glossina morsitans and Glossina pallidipes:
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania tropica
C. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
D. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
Errors in LDL-c become noticeable at triglyceride levels:
A. Over 150 mg/dL
B. Over 200 mg/dL
C. Over 350 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL
B. Over 200 mg/dL
Errors in LDL-c become unacceptably large at triglyceride levels:
A. Over 150 mg/dL
B. Over 200 mg/dL
C. Over 350 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL
Friedewald formula is not valid for triglycerides:
A. Over 150 mg/dL
B. Over 200 mg/dL
C. Over 350 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL
D. Over 400 mg/dL
