PONV (Mordecai) Exam III Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common patient complaint postoperatively, as mentioned in the slide?

A) Nausea
B) Vomiting
C) Pain
D) Dizziness

A

B) Vomiting

Slide 3

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2
Q

What is the overall incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting?

A) 10-20%
B) 20-30%
C) 30-40%
D) 50-60%

A

B) 20-30%

Some studies reach as high as 80%

Slide 3

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3
Q

When does postoperative vomiting typically peak?

A) 1 hour postop
B) 3 hours postop
C) 6 hours postop
D) 12 hours postop

A

C) 6 hours postop

Slide 3

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4
Q

The incidence of intractable vomiting is ________.

A) 0.1%
B) 0.12%
C) 0.15%
D) 1.0%

A

A) 0.1%

most severe, the severe end of the spectrum

Intractable = hard to control or deal with

Slide 3

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5
Q

Postoperative vomiting can persist for ________.

A) 6-12 hours
B) 12-24 hours
C) 24-48 hours
D) 48-72 hours

A

C) 24-48 hours

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6
Q

True or False

The cause of PONV is well understood and we have identified multiple receptor sites that are targeted to help mitigate the severity of the PONV.

A

False

Mordecai - The cause of PONV is not thoroughly understood by us but we have identified multiple receptor sites that are implicated in PONV and we target those receptor sites to help mitigate the severity of the PONV.

Slide 3

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7
Q

Which of the following are patient-specific risk factors for PONV? Select 4

A) Non-smokers
B) Female gender
C) Enhanced gastric emptying
D) History of PONV
E) History of diabetes
F) History of motion sickness

A

A) Non-smokers
B) Female gender
D) History of PONV
F) History of motion sickness - history of sickness in vehicles, on cruises, on fishing trips, in airplanes..

I’m on a boat..

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8
Q

Select the factors that are associated with an increased risk of PONV:
Select 2

A) Preoperative anxiety
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) Male gender
D) Smokers

A

A) Preoperative anxiety
B) Delayed gastric emptying - patients with gastroparesis related to diabetes or autoimmune gastroparesis disorders

Slide 4

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9
Q

Which of the following anesthetic agents is associated with an increased risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

A) Propofol
B) Volatile anesthetics
C) Ketamine
D) Fentanyl

A

B) Volatile anesthetics

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10
Q

Gastric distention during surgery, often caused by the use of ________, can contribute to the risk of PONV.

A) Nitrous oxide
B) Volatile anesthetics
C) Propofol
D) Neostigmine

A

A) Nitrous oxide

M - Studies show that Nitrous oxide in concentrations greater than 50% have a positive coorelation with nausea and vomiting, so avoid in patients with hx of PONV

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11
Q

Select the things that are commonly associated with increased risk of PONV:
Select 3

A) Intra/Postop opioids
B) Non-volatiles
C) Postoperative opioids only
D) Local anesthetics
E) Preanesthesic medications
F) Duration of anesthesia

A

A) Intra/Postop opioids
E) Preanesthesic medications
F) Duration of anesthesia

M - The duration of anesthesia is associated with more nausea, probably because the longer the patient is under anesthesia, the more likely in the higher doses of exposure to volatile anesthetics and opioids and other drugs

Slide 5

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12
Q

Which of the following agents or situations can increase the risk of PONV in the postoperative period? Select 3

A) Neostigmine
B) Gastric distention
C) Propofol
D) Mandatory oral fluids before discharge
E) Postanesthetic medication
F) Sugammadex

A

A) Neostigmine
B) Gastric distention
D) Mandatory oral fluids before discharge

M - we know neostigmine increases free acetylcholine, and that is associated with nausea. We want to avoid excessive uses of neuromuscular blockers that will require high doses of neostigmine to reverse at the end of the case.

More recently we’re leaning heavier on sugammadex in situations where the patient has a history of PONV

Slide 5

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13
Q

Which type of surgery is considered high-risk for PONV?

A) Cataract surgery
B) Laparoscopy
C) Dermatologic surgery
D) Urologic surgery

A

B) Laparoscopy

M - laparoscopic surgery…this is where we’re insufflating the stomach and causing that CO2 gas is going to put pressure on the GI system and can cause some discomfort and nausea from that.

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14
Q

Which types of surgeries are linked to a higher incidence of PONV due to being close to the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) and emetic center? Select 2

A) Ear, nose, throat surgery
B) Breast surgery
C) Plastic surgery
D) Cataract surgery
E) Neurosurgery

A

A) Ear, nose, throat surgery (ENT)
E) Neurosurgery

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15
Q

Which of the following surgical factors are associated with an increased risk of PONV?
Select 3

A) Amputation
B) Laparotomy
C) Breast or plastic surgery
D) TIVA
D) Shorter duration of surgery
F) Strabismus

A

B) Laparotomy
C) Breast or plastic surgery
F) Strabismus

M - ...plastic surgery may be due to the fact that the patient population being younger females, not really clear…and so a lot of times we will do a propofol TIVA on these patients.

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16
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) in pediatric patients?

A) The risk increases with age until puberty
B) The risk decreases with age until puberty
C) Males are at higher risk than females
D) The risk is twice that of adults

A

A) The risk increases with age until puberty

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17
Q

The risk of PONV in pediatric patients is ________ that of adults.

A) Equal to
B) Twice
C) Half
D) Three times

A

B) Twice

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18
Q

Which of the following are true regarding PONV risk factors in pediatric patients?

A) Risk increases with age until mid-life crisis
B) Male and female patients have equal risk
C) Vomiting is twice as common as in peds
D) Risk decreases after puberty

A

B) Male and female patients have equal risk

Slide 7

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19
Q

Which of the following pediatric procedures are associated with an increased risk of PONV? Select 3

A) Orchiopexy
B) Arthroscopy
C) Strabismus repair
D) Hernia repair
E) Appendectomy

A

A) Orchiopexy
C) Strabismus repair
D) Hernia repair

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20
Q

Which of the following pediatric procedures are associated with a higher risk of PONV?
Select 2

A) Adenotonsillectomy
B) Orthopedic repair
C) Dental repair
D) Penile surgery
E) Rhinoplasty

A

A) Adenotonsillectomy
D) Penile surgery

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21
Q

Which of the following are effective strategies for reducing the incidence of PONV?
Select 2

A) Avoiding volatile anesthetics
B) Using steriods
C) Giving nitrous
D) Using propofol TIVA
E) Delaying ambulation after surgery

A

A) Avoiding volatile anesthetics
D) Using propofol TIVA

M - …we try reducing our volatile anesthetics, so we’ll try to rely more heavily on regional anesthesia and propofol induction TIVA. for anybody that is known to have high risk factors or have a history of PONV.

Helpful Mordecai Hints
Lets say you’re doing a long case, 5-6hr hour mommy makeover for a plastic surgeon. One option is to use your volatile anesthetics and then at the last hour of the case, switch over to a TIVA. Some studies show that’s actually almost as effective as doing a TIVA for the duration of the anesthetic.

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22
Q

What are effective strategies to minimize PONV during surgery?
Select 3

A) Regional anesthesia
B) Maximizing opioid use
C) Intraoperative supplemental O2
D) High doses of neostigmine
E. Adequate hydration

A

A) Regional anesthesia
C) Intraoperative supplemental O2
E. Adequate hydration

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23
Q

Which strategies are recommended to reduce the risk of PONV?
Select 2

A) Turning volatile on at end of case
B) Local Anesthetic infiltration
C) Non-steroidals
D) Limiting oxygen supplementation

A

B) Local Anesthetic infiltration
C) Non-steroidals

M - *We want to minimize our opioids, and so we lean on multimodal type medications, like Tylenol and Precedex, and infiltrating the surgical wound with local anesthetics, so that would be the surgeon helping us out there, and non -steroidal medications as well. *

Slide 8

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24
Q

What are effective strategies to minimize PONV during surgery?
Select 2

A) Minimize motion, early ambulation
B) Minimizing suggamadex
C) IM injections of Local Anesthetic
D) Minimize neostigmine

A

A) Minimize motion, early ambulation
D) Minimize neostigmine

M - it’s important to get them moving, but it needs to be kind of a slow and steady process, just like with the fluid intake. If they get up and moving too quickly, then that can be nausea inducing as well. So no forced ambulation.

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25
Q

Which of the following are consequences of PONV in surgical patients?
Select 3

A) Tension on suture lines
B) Wound strengthening
C) Aspiration
D) Decreased intraocular pressure
E) Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

A

A) Tension on suture lines
C) Aspiration
E) Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

Slide 9

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26
Q

Which factors related to PONV can increase hospital costs?
Select 3

A) Prolonged PACU stay
B) Wound dehiscence
C) Anticipated admissions
D) Reduced surgical time
E) Increased need for personnel
F) Relaxed suture lines

A

A) Prolonged PACU stay
B) Wound dehiscence
E) Increased need for personnel and resources

M - then if wound dehiscence occurs, then you have to worry about infection, use of antibiotics, unnecessary use of antibiotics, and then the potential for antibiotic resistance.

…whenever the patients are in PACU longer than anticipated, this can cause a backup and delay in new fresh post -op patients coming to recovery because there may not be room for them. This delays their time, and it actually adds to their operating room time, which will add to their cost of surgery.

Slide 9

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27
Q

What are some reasons we care about preventing PONV?
Select 3

A) Increased intracranial pressure
B) Short PACU stay
C) Unanticipated admissions
D) Overhydration and electrolyte balance
E) Increased intraocular pressure

A

A) Increased intracranial pressure
C) Unanticipated admissions
E) Increased intraocular pressure

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28
Q

Where is the emetic center located?

A) Cerebral cortex
B) Cerebellum
C) Lateral reticular formation
D) Hypothalamus

A

C) Lateral reticular formation of the brainstem

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29
Q

True of False

Medications act directly on the emetic center to cause nausea

A

False

No substances act directly on the emetic center

Slide 10

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30
Q

Which structures are involved in sending afferent input to the emetic center?
Select 3

A) Mediastinum
B) Larynx
C) GI tract
D) Vestibular portion of the 9th CN
E) Pharynx

A

A) Mediastinum
C) GI tract
E) Pharynx

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31
Q

A primary source of afferent input to the emetic center from higher brain centers is in the chemoreceptor trigger zone from ________.

A) Area postrema
B) Cerebral cortex
C) Olfactory nerve
D) Pons

A

A) Area postrema

Slide 10

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32
Q

Afferent input from the higher brain centers comes from the vestibular portion of the ________ cranial nerve.

A) 5th
B) 8th
C) 10th
D) 7th

A

B) 8th

Vestibulocochlear Nerve

Slide 10

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33
Q

Why is the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) particularly sensitive to chemicals and drugs?

A) It has a dense blood-brain barrier
B) It lacks a blood-brain barrier
C) It is located in the spinal cord
D) It only responds to physical stimuli

A

B) It lacks a blood-brain barrier

M - receptors in this area are sensitive to a variety of neurotransmitters, a variety of chemicals and drugs in the blood or CSF can trigger this area.

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34
Q

Which of the following receptor types are NOT involved in triggering the CTZ’s response to nausea and vomiting?

A) Dopamine
B) 5-HT3
C) Muscarinic
D) Opioid
E) Alpha-adrenergic
F) Cannabinoid

A

E) Alpha-adrenergic

Refresher: 5-HT3’s are a subtype of serotonin receptor (5-HT) that are found in the central nervous system and in the gastrointestinal tract

Slide 11

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35
Q

Which of the following receptor types are involved in triggering the CTZ’s response to nausea and vomiting?
Select 3

A) Histamine
B) GABA
C) Neurokinin-1
D) Serotonin
E) Leukotrienes

A

A) Histamine
C) Neurokinin-1
D) Serotonin (5-HT)

Slide 11

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36
Q

Which of the following are NOT true about the studies on PONV management?
Select 3

A) They have a large effect size
B) They are poorly powered
C) They lack standardization
D) They provide a definitive gold standard drug
E) They show consistent outcomes across trials

A

A) They have a large effect size
D) They provide a definitive gold standard drug
E) They show consistent outcomes across trials

Numerous studies showed:
* Poor effect size
* Poorly powered
* Lack standardization

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37
Q

No single drug is considered a ________ for PONV management.

A) Failure
B) Gold standard
C) Non-effective option
D) First-line choice

A

B) Gold standard

Slide 13

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38
Q

Which statements about PONV management are accurate?
Select 2

A) Patients should not receive the same drug for prophylaxis and treatment
B) There are multiple gold standard drugs to choose from for PONV
C) Patients should receive the same drug for both prophylaxis and treatment
D) Work should focus on identifying and preventing PONV rather than treating it
E) Standardization is present in most studies

A

A) Patients should not receive the same drug for prophylaxis and treatment
D) Work should focus on identifying and preventing PONV rather than treating it

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39
Q

When patients received one antiemetic, the incidence of PONV dropped to approximately:

A) 38%
B) 50%
C) 28%
D) 20%

A

A) 38%

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40
Q

The use of two antiemetics resulted in an incidence of approximately ________.

A) 50%
B) 38%
C) 28%
D) 20%

A

C) 28%

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41
Q

What was the incidence of PONV when ALL three antiemetics (Ondansetron, Dexamethasone, Droperidol) were used at the same time?

A) 38%
B) 50%
C) 28%
D) 20%

A

D) 20%

M - if the patient received all three drugs, so Zofran, dexamethasone, droparadol, they saw that it dropped to around 20%.
So significant improvement when you’re tacking on different drugs that target different receptors.

Slide 14

42
Q

Which of the following increases the risk of PONV when used for sedation?

A) Opioid premedication
B) Benzodiazepines (BZD)
C) Tylenol
D) Propofol

A

A) Opioid premedication

Slide 15

43
Q

Benzodiazepines may ________ the risk of PONV when used as sedation.

A) Increase
B) Have no effect on
C) Decrease
D) Exacerbate

A

C) Decrease

Slide 15

44
Q

Which of the following can increase the risk of PONV during induction?
Select 3

A) Ketamine
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Volatile anesthetics
D) Etomidate
E) Propofol

A

A) Ketamine
C) Volatile anesthetics
D) Etomidate

Propofol ↓…short duration; better if used induction and maintenance

M - a little bit of propofol will have a dramatic effect on PONV, and so it can be run at a low sub-hypnotic dose in the background throughout a case while volatile anesthetics are being used, and that can help as well if you don’t want to use the full TIVA dose of propofol

Slide 15

45
Q

Which of the following are true regarding the use of nitrous oxide in PONV prevention?
Select 2

A) It is associated with an increased risk of PONV
B) It is safe to use in high risk patients
C) Concentrations greater than 50% increase PONV
D) It decreases the need for antiemetic drugs
E) It is more effective than Propofol for PONV prevention

A

A) It is associated with an increased risk of PONV
C) Concentrations greater than 50% increase PONV

Slide 15

46
Q

True or False

A single dose of morphine is associated with increased PONV

A

True

Slide 16

47
Q

What is one strategy for opioid avoidance to reduce PONV risk?

A) Using high doses of morphine
B) Utilizing regional nerve blocks
C) Increasing the use of opioids for pain management
D) Administering low doses of ketamine

A

B) Utilizing regional nerve blocks

Slide 16

48
Q

Which strategies are recommended to reduce PONV?
Select 2

A) Single dose of morphine
B) Forcing ambulation
C) High-dose acetaminophen
D) Wound infiltration with local anesthetics
E) Increased ketamine use

A

C) High-dose acetaminophen
D) Wound infiltration with local anesthetics

Slide 16

49
Q

Which nursing interventions do we want to avoid and help reduce PONV risk?
Select 3

A) Forcing position changes
B) Forcing ambulation
C) Doing slow movements
D) Keeping the patient immobile postoperatively
E) Forcing early postoperative oral fluids

A

A) Forcing position changes
B) Forcing ambulation
E) Forcing early postoperative oral fluids

Slide 16

50
Q

Which of the following are associated with the use of anticholinesterases or NMBD reversal drugs?

A) Increased muscarinic actions on the GI tract
B) Decreased motility and secretions
C) Decreased muscarinic actions on the GI tract
D) Risk of aspiration PONV is decreased

A

A) Increased muscarinic actions on the GI tract

Refresher: Anticholinesterases (like Neostigmine), which are drugs that inhibit the enzyme AChe, increase the activity of the muscarinic receptors in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, causing a number of effects, including increased motility and secretions

Slide 16

51
Q

At what dose of neostigmine is there an increased risk of PONV?
A) 0.5 mg
B) 1 mg
C) 2 mg
D) 2.5 mg

A

D) Greater than 2.5 mg

M - studies show neostigmine >2.5mg is more likely to be nausea inducing. But usually when you give neostigmine and you’re using it as a reversal, you’re going to give more like 4-5mg, its not often you are giving less than 2.5mg

Slide 16

52
Q

Atropine is administered with neostigmine to ________ the risk of PONV.

A) Increase
B) Maintain
C) Reduce
D) Neutralize

A

C) Reduce

M - Atropine is known to reduce PONV. So if you’re going to have to use Neostigmine, you may consider mixing it with atropine instead of glycopyrrolate to get the anti-emetic effects of the atropine.

Slide 16

53
Q

True or False

Giving a NMDB that does not have to be reversed is another way to prevent PONV

A

True

M - you could obviously give neuromuscular blockers that don’t need to be reversed like succinylcholine if long acting muscle relaxation is not needed. And you can get away with just enough to get the breathing tube in for the procedure and the surgeon doesn’t need muscle relaxation or doesn’t want it for their case.

Slide 16

54
Q

Matching Question

A

0 risk factors → C. 10%
1 risk factor → D. 20%
2 risk factors → E. 39%
3 risk factors → A. 60%
4 risk factors → B. 79%

Slide 17

55
Q

Which of the following is a key finding from the development of the Apfel score related to anesthesia?
A) General anesthesia was identified as a protective factor.
B) Regional anesthesia was identified as a culprit for PONV.
C) General anesthesia was identified as a culprit for PONV.
D) Local anesthesia significantly increases the risk of PONV.

A

C) General anesthesia was identified as a culprit for PONV.

Slide 17

56
Q

Which of the following procedures are identified as high risk for PONV according to the Apfel score? (Select 4 that apply)
A) ENT surgery
B) Dental surgery
C) Breast surgery
D) Cardiac surgery
E) Laparoscopic Bilateral Tubal Ligation
F) Neurosurgery

A

A) ENT surgery
B) Dental surgery
C) Breast surgery
E) Laparoscopic Bilateral Tubal Ligation

Slide 17

57
Q

Which of the following is NOT a predictor of PONV according to the Apfel score?
A) Female gender
B) Smoking
C) Use of postoperative opioids
D) History of PONV or motion sickness

A

B) Smoking

Mordecai: and non-smokers being higher risk than smokers.

Slide 17

58
Q

At what number of risk factors, according to the Apfel score, is prophylaxis for PONV recommended?

A) 0 risk factors
B) 1 risk factor
C) 2 risk factors
D) 3 risk factors
E) 4 risk factors

A

C) 2 risk factors

Slide 17

59
Q

Matching

A

Low risk of PONV, Low risk of medical sequela → (B) Reduce baseline risk with NO prophylaxis with 5HT3 antagonist for rescue

*Low risk of PONV, High risk of medical sequela *→ (C) Reduce baseline risk with 5HT3 antagonist for prophylaxis, rescue using different class

Moderate risk of PONV, Any risk of medical sequela → (D) Reduce baseline risk with 5HT3 antagonist + steroid for prophylaxis, rescue using different class

High risk of PONV, Any risk of medical sequela → (A) Reduce baseline risk with 5HT3 antagonist + steroid + propofol TIVA + scopolamine for prophylaxis, rescue using different class

Slide 18

60
Q

When managing PONV, which of the following drugs can be used as rescue therapy from a different drug class if initial prophylaxis was with a 5HT3 antagonist? (Select 3 that apply)

A) Phenothiazine
B) Dexamethasone
C) Antihistamine
D) Metoclopramide
E) Ondansetron

A

A) Phenothiazine
C) Antihistamine
D) Metoclopramide

Mordecai: the tail end of things you would come at it targeting a different receptor using a different class of drug

Slide 18

61
Q

What is P6 stimulation, and how is it used in the management of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

A) P6 stimulation involves applying pressure or acupuncture to a specific point on the inner wrist.
B) P6 stimulation is a pharmacological intervention for PONV.
C) P6 stimulation targets a point on the outer wrist.
D) P6 stimulation is located approximately 5 finger widths above the elbow.
E) P6 stimulation requires the use of antiemetic medications for its effect.

A

A) P6 stimulation involves applying pressure or acupuncture to a specific point on the inner wrist.

Radial compression

Slide 20

62
Q

How is P6 stimulation thought to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

A) By inhibiting gastric motility through vagal stimulation.
B) By promoting the release of serotonin in the central nervous system.
C) Through hypophyseal secretion of β-endorphins, leading to inhibition of the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).
D) By stimulating dopamine release in the brainstem.

A

C) Through hypophyseal secretion of β-endorphins, leading to inhibition of the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).

Mordecai: basically the idea is that it decreases gastric acid secretion and can reduce some nausea.

Slide 20

63
Q

True or False

P6 manipulation is only effective for inhibiting nausea but has no effect on vomiting

A

TRUE

Mordecai: Show probably inhibits nausea more than vomiting, but studies show that it’s time limited and may only be mildly effective.

Slide 20

64
Q

The __ receptor antagonists are anti-emetic. They also can be used as __ drugs and __ drugs.

A) Serotonin, analgesic, antihypertensive
B) Dopamine, antipsychotic, neuroleptic
C) GABA, sedative, antianxiety
D) Histamine, antihistamine, anti-inflammatory

A

B) Dopamine, antipsychotic, neuroleptic

The Dopamine receptor antagonists are anti-emetic. They also can be used as antipsychotic drugs and neuroleptic drugs.

Anti-dopaminergics

Slide 21

65
Q

Which of the following are subtypes of anti-dopaminergic drugs that are used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)? (Select 2 that apply)

A) Butyrophenones
B) Serotonin antagonists
C) Phenothiazines
D) Antihistamines
E) Benzodiazepines

A

A) Butyrophenones
C) Phenothiazines

Slide 21

66
Q

Which of the following are common side effects of dopamine receptor antagonists? (Select 2 that apply)

A) Drowsiness/sedation
B) Hypertension
C) Extrapyramidal signs and symptoms
D) Hyperactivity
E) Tachycardia

A

A) Drowsiness/sedation
C) Extrapyramidal signs and symptoms

Slide 21

67
Q

Which of the following drugs are classified as butyrophenones? (Select 2 that apply)

A) Haloperidol
B) Ondansetron
C) Droperidol
D) Metoclopramide
E) Promethazine

A

A) Haloperidol
C) Droperidol

Memory trick: Halo and Dro for Butyro!

Slide 22

68
Q

What black box warning exists for Droperidol?

A) Respiratory depression and coma
B) Torsades de Pointes and sudden death
C) Seizures and liver toxicity
D) Hypertension and bradycardia

A

B) Torsades de Pointes and sudden death

Slide 22

69
Q

More than __ mg of Droperidol should never be given.

A) 1 mg
B) 0.625 mg
C) 2 mg
D) 5 mg

A

B) 0.625mg

Mordecai: initially when Droperidol came out, it was dosed at 1.25 to 2 1/2 milligrams, but they found that it can be effective at lower doses and really reduce the risks with the smaller doses.

Slide 22

70
Q

Droperidol is as effective as ___ for the treatment of PONV.

A) Metoclopramide 10 mg
B) Ondansetron 4 mg
C) Dexamethasone 8 mg
D) Scopolamine 1.5 mg

A

B) Ondansetron 4mg

Slide 22

71
Q

Droperidol also has effects as a ________ resulting in hypotension.

A) potent β blocker
B) weak α blocker
C) calcium channel blocker
D) potassium channel blocker

A

B) weak α blocker

Slide 22

72
Q

Which of the following statements about Haloperidol is true? (Select 2 that apply)

A) Haloperidol is commonly approved for the treatment of PONV.
B) Haloperidol is not approved for intravenous (IV) use.
C) Haloperidol is not approved for PONV.
D) Haloperidol is a common antiemetic drug.

A

B) Haloperidol is not approved for intravenous (IV) use.
C) Haloperidol is not approved for PONV.

Slide 22

73
Q

When combined with droperidol, __ mg of metoclopramide is more __.

A) 5 mg, effective
B) 10 mg, effective
C) 15 mg, potent
D) 20 mg, toxic

A

B) 10 mg, effective

Slide 22

74
Q

Which of the following drugs are classified as phenothiazines? (Select 3 that apply)

A) Prochlorperazine
B) Chlorpromazine
C) Ondansetron
D) Promethazine
E) Metoclopramide

A

A) Prochlorperazine
B) Chlorpromazine
D) Promethazine

Slide 23

75
Q

What black box warnings exist for Promethazine? (Select 2 that apply)

A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Tissue damage
C) Respiratory arrest in children under 2 years old
D) QT prolongation
E) Severe bradycardia

A

B) Tissue damage
C) Respiratory arrest in children under 2 years old

Slide 23

76
Q

In addition to dopamine receptors, Promethazine also antagonize which of the following receptors? (Select 3 that apply)

A) Alpha-adrenergic receptors
B) Histamine receptors
C) Muscarinic cholinergic receptors
D) Beta-adrenergic receptors
E) Serotonin receptors

A

A) Alpha-adrenergic receptors
B) Histamine receptors
C) Muscarinic cholinergic receptors

Slide 23

77
Q

Which of the following are known side effects of Promethazine? (Select 3 that apply)

A) Sedation
B) Hypertension
C) Hypotension
D) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
E) Tachycardia

A

A) Sedation
C) Hypotension
D) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

Slide 23

78
Q

The typical dose range for Promethazine is __ mg.

A) 5-10 mg
B) 12.5-25 mg
C) 25-50 mg
D) 50-100 mg

A

B) 12.5-25 mg

Slide 23

79
Q

How do 5HT3 antagonists work in the treatment of nausea and vomiting?

A) They block dopamine receptors in the brain.
B) They antagonize serotonin receptors on the vagal nerve and chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).
C) They inhibit histamine release in the GI tract.
D) They increase gastric motility by stimulating cholinergic receptors.

A

B) They antagonize serotonin receptors on the vagal nerve and chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).

Slide 24

80
Q

Which of the following are common side effects of 5HT3 antagonists? (Select 3 that apply)

A) Headache
B) Diarrhea
C) Constipation
D) Mild elevation in liver enzymes
E) Sedation

A

A) Headache
C) Constipation
D) Mild elevation in liver enzymesLiver enzymes

Slide 24

81
Q

When should Ondansetron 4 mg be administered to prevent PONV?

A) At the start of surgery
B) 4 mg within 15-20 minutes of the end of surgery
C) 4 mg immediately after induction of anesthesia
D) 4 mg 1 hour before surgery

A

B) 4mg within 15 - 20 min of surgery end.

unclear on 4mg vs. 8mg

Slide 24

82
Q

Which of the following are 5HT3 antagonists used for the treatment of PONV? (Select 4 that apply)

A) Dolasetron (Anzemet)
B) Granisetron (Kytril)
C) Ondansetron (Zofran)
D) Palonosetron
E) Metoclopramide

A

A) Dolasetron (Anzemet)
B) Granisetron (Kytril)
C) Ondansetron (Zofran)
D) Palonosetron

Memory Trick: TRON on anti-5HT3s

Slide 24

83
Q

Which anticholinergic drug is commonly given for PONV prophylaxis, and what is the recommended dosing?

A) Glycopyrrolate, 0.2 mg IV every 4-6 hours
B) Atropine, 1 mg transdermal patch; leave in place 24 hours
C) Scopolamine, 1.5 mg transdermal patch; leave in place 48-72 hours
D) Ipratropium, 1.5 mg transdermal patch; leave in place 48 hours

A

C) Scopolamine,
1.5 mg transdermal patch;
leave in place 48-72 hours

Blocks acetylcholine

Slide 25

84
Q

Which of the following are common side effects of Scopolamine? (Select 3 that apply)

A) Drowsiness
B) Dry mouth
C) Tachycardia
D) Dizziness
E) Diarrhea

A

A) Drowsiness
B) Dry mouth
D) Dizziness

Care with handling

Slide 25

85
Q

Which of the following is typical application site for a Scopolamine transdermal patch?

A) Behind the ear
B) On the upper chest
C) On the upper outer arm
D) On the lower abdomen
E) On the hip

A

A) Behind the ear

But can be placed on:
- upper chest
- upper outer arm
- lower abdomen
- the hip
- inner malleous of the ankle

Mordecai: you want to place it in an area where the skin is very thin and vascular so that it can absorb

Slide 25

86
Q

With the PONV prophylaxis dose of Dexamethasone, how does 4 mg compare to 8 mg?

A) 4 mg is less effective than 8 mg
B) 4 mg is as effective as 8 mg
C) 4 mg is more effective than 8 mg
D) 4 mg should be used only in pediatric patients

A

B) 4 mg is as effective as 8 mg

Mordecai: generally given right after induction and it really will significantly reduce airway swelling also.

Slide 26

87
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Dexamethasone ?

A) Dexamethasone decreases postoperative pain and edema.
B) Dexamethasone is effective as a rescue medication for PONV.
C) Dexamethasone has significant adverse side effects.

A

A) Dexamethasone decreases postoperative pain and edema.
Anti-inflammatory reaction

* No adverse side effects
Glycemic effect?
it could technically increase the blood sugars in our diabetic patients. So a lot of times we’ll avoid it in our brittle diabetics
* Not useful for rescue

Slide 26

88
Q

Which of the following statements are true about Metoclopramide and its role in treating PONV? (Select 3 that apply)

A) It increases LES (lower esophageal sphincter) tone.
B) It increases GI motility.
C) It is more efficacious than Droperidol.
D) It is less efficacious than Droperidol.
E) It decreases LES tone and gastric motility.

A

A) It increases LES (lower esophageal sphincter) tone.
B) It increases GI motility.
D) It is less efficacious than Droperidol.

Slide 27

89
Q

Which of the following are known side effects of Metoclopramide? (Select 2 that apply)

A) Sedation
B) Restlessness
C) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
D) Tachycardia
E) Respiratory depression

A

B) Restlessness
C) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

Slide 27

90
Q

The recommended IV dose of Metoclopramide for PONV is __ mg.

A) 5-10 mg
B) 10-20 mg
C) 20-30 mg
D) 25-50 mg

A

B) 10-20 mg
Short ½ life

Slide 27

91
Q

Aprepitant (Emend) is a NK-1 antagonist that antagonizes __ in the emetic center. Depress neural activity of the __. May also interfere with afferent messages from __ cells.

A) Serotonin, CTZ, epithelial

B) Dopamine, hippocampus, enterochromaffin

C) Substance P, nucleus tractus solitarius, enterochromaffin

D) Histamine, brainstem, parietal

A

Aprepitant is a NK-1 antagonist that antagonizes Substance P in the emetic center. Depresses neural activity of the nucleus tractus solitarius. May also interfere with afferent messages from enterochromaffin cells.

Slide 28

92
Q

True or False

Aprepitant (Emend) has lesser anti-vomiting effects than anti-nausea effects.

A

False

Aprepitant has greater anti-vomiting effects than anti-nausea effects.

Slide 28

93
Q

What is the recommended dose of Aprepitant (Emend) for PONV prophylaxis?

A) 10 mg or 25 mg
B) 20 mg or 50 mg
C) 40 mg or 125 mg
D) 200 mg or 300 mg

A

C) 40mg or 125mg

Slide 28

94
Q

When should Aprepitant (Emend) be administered for PONV prophylaxis?

A) 30 minutes before surgery
B) Immediately after surgery
C) 2-3 hours prior to induction
D) During postoperative recovery

A

C) 2-3 hours prior to induction

Slide 28

95
Q

How does Propofol prevent or treat PONV? (Select 2 that apply)

A) It blocks dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).
B) It blocks serotonin release in subhypnotic doses.
C) It inhibits acetylcholine release in the gut.
D) It may inhibit the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).
E) It enhances gastric motility.

A

B) It blocks serotonin release in subhypnotic doses.
D) It may inhibit the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).

Slide 29

96
Q

What is the subhypnotic/TIVA dose of Propofol used for PONV prophylaxis?

A) 10 mcg/kg/min
B) 16.7 mcg/kg/min
C) 25 mcg/kg/min
D) 50 mcg/kg/min

A

B) 16.7 mcg/kg/min

Slide 29

97
Q

Which drug is commonly given alongside Propofol to counteract bradycardia?

A) Atropine
B) Glycopyrrolate
C) Metoprolol
D) Epinephrine

A

B) Glycopyrrolate

Slide 29

98
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered an effective method for reducing nausea? (Select 3 that apply)

A) Isopropyl alcohol aromatherapy
B) Adequate pre-hydration (10-30 mL/kg)
C) Chewing gum
D) Peppermint aromatherapy
E) Carbohydrate loading
F) Ginger

A

D) Peppermint aromatherapy
M: Research doesn’t really show that peppermint is that effective, but there are some people that swear by peppermint

E) Carbohydrate loading
M: but research varies and the idea is that stabilizing blood glucose can reduce nausea.

F) Ginger
No significant reduction

Slide 30

99
Q

Which of the following should be considered as potential causes of nausea or other complications in a postoperative patient? (Select 5 that apply)

A) Elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)
B) Hypoxemia
C) Gastric bleeding
D) Hypotension
E) Hypoglycemia
F) Hypertension

A

A) Elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)

B) Hypoxemia
M: when the oxygen levels are low, that can trigger nausea

C) Gastric bleeding
M: because of gastric distention that’s going to occur with that

D) Hypotension
M: may be experiencing nausea due to hypotension and a lot of times in our pregnant women…if you’re taking them back for a C section and you do a spinal and their SVR drops, they’re going to have significant nausea as soon as that spinal.

E) Hypoglycemia
M: those patients that are cold, clammy, shaky with low blood sugar, they’re more likely to experience nausea as well.

Slide 31

100
Q

Case Study Question

A 14-year-old girl with a history of motion sickness is scheduled for adenotonsillectomy. She has had multiple episodes of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) despite receiving intraoperative, prophylactic antiemetic therapy during previous surgeries. After her last surgery, she was hospitalized for dehydration due to refractory postoperative emesis. What strategies could be employed to help prevent PONV in this patient? (Select 7 that apply)

A) Anxiolysis with benzodiazepines (BZD)
B) Use of Propofol TIVA and avoiding volatile agents
C) Minimal opioid use, supplemented with acetaminophen and nerve blocks
D) Avoidance of liberal IV fluids
E) Include steroids during induction and 5HT3 antagonists
F) Use of nitrous oxide as an anesthetic agent
G) Gentle, easy movements with no forced ambulation
H) Avoid the use of NMBDs that require neostigmine reversal
I) Aggressive treatment with multiple antiemetic classes if necessary

A

A) Anxiolysis with benzodiazepines (BZD)
B) Use of Propofol TIVA and avoiding volatile agents
C) Minimal opioid use, supplemented with acetaminophen and nerve blocks
E) Include steroids during induction and 5HT3 antagonists
G) Gentle, easy movements with no forced ambulation
H) Avoid the use of NMBDs that require neostigmine reversal
I) Aggressive treatment with multiple antiemetic classes if necessary

Slide 33