Oncology and Chemotherapy (Mordecai) Exam III Flashcards
The normal behavior of cells is to grow and divide when needed, what happens when they are damaged or old?
A) They continue to grow and divide
B) They die
C) They become cancer cells
D) They stop growing but do not die
B) They die
Slide 2
What characterizes the behavior of cancer cells compared to normal cells?
A) They die when they should die
B) They form only when needed
C) They survive when they should die
D) They grow at a slower rate
C) They survive when they should die
Form when they are NOT needed
Slide 2
Matching
Match the stages of tissue changes with their definitions
1 → B
2 → D
3 → C
4 → A
Slide 3
What is the definition of cancer according to the National Cancer Institute?
A) A single disease caused by viruses
B) A collection of related diseases
C) A genetic disorder with no external causes
D) A disease only affecting solid organs
B) A collection of related diseases
Slide 4
Cancer cells differ from normal cells because they ________ without stopping and spread into surrounding tissues.
A) Regenerate
B) Die
C) Grow
D) Divide
D) Divide
May form solid tumors or not (leukemias like blood cancers)
Slide 4
Which factors can cause cancer? Select 2
A) Inherited from parents
B) Direct or indirect contact
C) Excessive cell death
D) Mutations to DNA
E) Mobile phones
A) Inherited from parents
D) Mutations to DNA - exposure to things like radiation, chemicals and various drugs
Slide 4
Which characteristics describe how cancer cells differ from normal cells? Select 3
A) Cancer cells are less specialized
B) Cancer cells divide for shorter than needed
C) Abnormally influence normal cells
D) Cancer cells stop dividing when they receive apoptosis signals
E) Cancer cells evade the immune system
A) Cancer cells are less specialized
C) Abnormally influence normal cells
E) Cancer cells evade the immune system
Slide 5
How do cancer cells interact with normal cells?
Select 3
A) They encourage normal cells to die
B) They influence normal cells to feed the tumor by forming blood vessels
C) Can ignore pre-programmed apoptosis signals
D) They destroy blood vessels
E) They use the immune system to prevent cancer cell damage
B) They influence normal cells to feed the tumor by forming blood vessels - this is called angiogenesis
C) Can ignore pre-programmed apoptosis signals - these cells can ignore that pre-programmed apoptosis signals that keep them from dividing and multiplying out of control
E) They use the immune system to prevent cancer cell damage - they can basically influence things like the neutrophils and influence phagocyte production and activity to kind of prevent themselves from being broken down and gobbled up the way they should.
Slide 5
What are proto-oncogenes involved in under normal conditions?
A) Preventing cell division
B) Normal cell growth and division
C) DNA repair
D) Apoptosis (cell death)
B) Normal cell growth and division
Slide 6
What happens when proto-oncogenes become altered?
A) They slow down cell division
B) They become tumor suppressor genes
C) They become cancer-causing genes
D) They repair DNA damage
C) They become cancer-causing genes, allowing cells to grow and survive
Slide 6
What is the function of tumor suppressor genes when they are altered?
A) They allow genes to divide uncontrollably
B) They help the immune system attack cancer cells
C) They repair damaged DNA
D) They stop cell growth entirely
A) They allow genes to divide uncontrollably
Slide 6
DNA repair gene mutations can cause ________ in the cells.
A) Increased growth
B) Correct repair of damage
C) Other mutations
D) No impact
C) Other mutations
M - there can be alterations in DNA repair genes. And so the DNA helixes get damaged. And they replicate. And so this is sort of an incorrect damage repair and causes other mutations to occur along the way.
Slide 6
There are more than __________ types of cancers
A) 50
B)75
C) 90
D) 100
D) 100
Slide 7
How are cancers typically named?
A) Based on the age of the patient
B) Based on where the cancer originates
C) Based on the duration of the illness
D) Based on the color of the tumor
B) Based on the organs, tissues, or types of cells where the cancer originates
Slide 7
What type of cancer originates from the basal layer of the epidermis?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Basal cell carcinoma
D) Sarcoma
C) Basal cell carcinoma
Slide 7
Adenocarcinoma typically affects ________ tissues that produce mucus, like the breast or prostate.
A) Glandular
B) Epithelial
C) Muscular
D) Bone
A) Glandular
Slide 7
What type of cancer affects epithelial cells, such as those lining the stomach, intestines, and bladder?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Sarcoma
D) Leukemia
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
slide 7
Sarcomas are cancers that affect the ________.
A) Blood-forming tissues
B) Glandular tissues
C) Epithelial tissues
D) Bone and soft tissues
D) Bone and soft tissues
Bone cancer = osteosarcomas
Slide 7
What type of cancer begins in blood-forming tissues, such as the bone marrow?
A) Lymphoma
B) Sarcoma
C) Leukemia
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Leukemia
Slide 7
Which type of cancer begins in lymphocytes (T or B cells) and can build up in lymph nodes and vessels?
A) Leukemia
B) Lymphoma
C) Sarcoma
D) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Lymphoma
Slide 7
Which of the following are related to environmental exposure as risk factors for cancer?
Select 3
A) Radiation
B) Sunlight
C) Immunosuppression
D) Tobacco
E) Genetics
A) Radiation
B) Sunlight
D) Tobacco
Slide 8
Which factors are known to contribute to cancer risk through genetic and environmental pathways?
Select 3
A) Genetics
B) Gender
C) Diet
D) Immunosuppression
E) Lack of physical activity
A) Genetics
C) Diet
D) Immunosuppression
Obesity
Slide 8
Which of the following are general risk factors for cancer?
Select 3
A) Age
B) Alcohol
C) Cachexia
D) Cold weather
E) Hormones
A) Age
B) Alcohol
E) Hormones
M - both endogenous hormones and hormone replacement therapy have been linked to cancers
Slide 8
Why can some cancer screenings like colonoscopies cause problems?
Select 2
A) Burns
B) Airway complications
C) Perforation
D) Constipation
B) Airway complications
C) Perforation
M - There is potential for perforation, although that’s super rare.There’s also potential for airway complications and obstruction, if they lose their airway reflexes and they turned out have some some contents in their stomach, there’s potential for aspiration. So a colonoscopy isn’t completely benign, but usually the benefits outweigh the risk there.
Slide 9
Which of the following statements describe potential issues with cancer screenings? Select 2
A) Screenings have rare complications
B) Screenings are always accurate without false results
C) Screenings can produce false-positive results
D) Screenings are only useful for late-stage cancers
E) Screenings can produce false-negative results
C) Screenings can produce false-positive results
E) Screenings can produce false-negative results
Slide 9
Cancer screenings are considered effective when they show:
Select 3
A) More early-stage cancers found
B) Less late-stage cancers found
C) More false positives
D) Fewer deaths from cancer
E) Screenings only detecting late-stage cancers
A) More early-stage cancers found
B) Less late-stage cancers found
D) Fewer deaths from cancer
Slide 9
What does absolute risk measure?
A) The number of people who avoid cancer in a population
B) How many people get a specific condition in a certain period of time
C) The relative likelihood of developing cancer based on lifestyle
D) The percentage of people in an exposed group who get cancer
B) How many people get a specific condition in a certain period of time
- How many people get “x” in a certain period.
Ex. If 4 people out of a group of 100,000 get “x” then risk is 4 in 100,000
Slide 10
Relative risk compares the percentage of people in the ________ group who develop a disease to the unexposed group.
A) Exposed
B) Elderly
C) Control
D) Average
A) Exposed
M - for example, if the exposure was cigarette smoking and the disease is cancer -> then you would say the number of cigarette smokers with cancer divided by the number of people that don’t smoke with cancer
Slide 10
A relative risk greater than 1 means a trait is linked to ________ disease risk.
A) Decreased
B) Increased
C) No change in
D) No relationship to
B) Increased
M - if RR>1 then there’s a positive correlation with the exposure and the disease.
Slide 10
What does a relative risk (RR) of less than 1 suggest?
A) The trait is not linked to the disease
B) The trait is linked to an increased likelihood of disease
C) The trait is linked to a decreased likelihood of disease
D) The trait has no relationship to disease
C) The trait is linked to a decreased likelihood of disease
M - RR < 1, then there is a negative correlation. If less smokers have cancer than non-smokers
Slide 10
What does a relative risk (RR) of 1 indicate?
A) The trait is linked to an increased risk of disease
B) The trait is linked to a decreased risk of disease
C) The trait has no association with the risk of disease
D) The trait causes the disease in all cases
C) The trait has no association with the risk of disease
M - RR=1, there are an equal amount of smokers with cancer as non-smokers with cancer, then there would be no link between smoking and cancer, then there is a negative correlation.
Sldie 10
Which of the following statements are true about standard cancer screenings that insurance covers based on the research? Select 3
A) Colonoscopies can detect pre-cancerous polyps early.
B) Pap smears are used to detect breast cancer.
C) Mammograms are recommended annually for women over 40.
D) Pap smears are shown to reduce cervical cancers
E) Colonoscopies are generally non-invasive and can be performed at any age.
A) Colonoscopies can detect pre-cancerous polyps early.
C) Mammograms are recommended annually for women over 40.
D) Pap smears are shown to reduce cervical cancers
Slide 11
Tumor staging refers to (2):
A) How fast the tumor is growing
B) If the tumor has metastasized
C) The tumor’s ability to resist treatment
D) The tumor’s recurrence rate
E) How large the tumor is
B) If the tumor has metastasized
E) How large the tumor is
Slide 12
True or False
As cancer progresses it changes in diagnosis and staging.
FALSE
M - *patients don’t get restaged as cancer changes and progresses or is treated. You just get one staging and it’s done *
slide 12
Matching
Match the tumor staging and its definition
T: size/extent of primary tumor
N: # of nearby lymph nodes which are +
M: is there metastasis
slide 12
Which of the following are correct regarding the Primary tumor or “T” in the TNM staging system? Select 3
A) TX means the tumor cannot be measured.
B) T0 means the tumor cannot be found.
C) T1-T4 refers to the size and/or extent of the tumor.
D) T1 indicates metastasis.
E) T0 indicates the tumor is very small.
A) TX means the tumor cannot be measured.
B) T0 means the tumor cannot be found.
C) T1, T2, T3, T4 refer to the size and/or extent of the tumor. The larger the tumor or the more it has grown into nearby tissues and invasive.
slide 13
Which of the following statements are correct about the Regional Lymph Nodes “N” in the TNM staging system? Select 3
A) NX means the lymph nodes cannot be measured.
B) N0 means no cancer in nearby lymph nodes.
C) N3 indicates that there are no lymph nodes involved.
D) N1-N3 means the cancer has spread to distant organs.
E) N1-N3 refer to the number and location of lymph nodes with cancer.
A) NX means the lymph nodes cannot be measured.
B) N0 means no cancer in nearby lymph nodes.
E) N1-N3 refer to the number and location of lymph nodes with cancer. The higher the number after the N, the more lymph nodes that contain cancer.
Slide 13
Which of the following are true about the distant metastasis “M” in the TNM staging system? Select 3
A) MX means metastasis cannot be measured.
B) M0 indicates that the cancer has not spread to other parts of the body.
C) M1 indicates cancer has spread to the lungs only.
D) M0 means the cancer has spread to distant organs.
E) M1 means the cancer has spread to other parts of the body.
A) MX means metastasis cannot be measured.
B) M0 indicates that the cancer has not spread to other parts of the body.
E) M1 means the cancer has spread to other parts of the body.
Slide 13
Matching
Match the staging name with its definition
In situ = C
Localized = D
Regional = A
Distant = E
Unknown = B
These are all staged based on the degree of spread.
Slide 14
Which of the following conditions are linked to a median survival of 6 months or less in cancer patients? Select 3
A) Patient spends > ½ day in bed
B) Serum calcium < 10 mg/dL
C) DVT or PE
D) Spleen, muscle, or thyroid metastases
E) Malignant pericardial effusion
A) Patient spends > ½ day in bed
C) DVT or PE
E) Malignant pericardial effusion
Slide 15
In cancer patients with a median survival of 6 months or less, serum albumin is typically ________.
A) > 3.5 mg/dL
B) < 3.5 mg/dL
C) between 3.5 - 4.5 mg/dL
D) higher than 5 mg/dL
B) < 3.5 mg/dL
Slide 15
For cancer patients with poor prognosis, serum calcium levels are often above ________.
A) 9.0 mg/dL
B) 10.5 mg/dL
C) 11.2 mg/dL
D) 12.0 mg/dL
C) 11.2 mg/dL
M- we know there’s some bone involvement,breakdown, maybe some kidney involvement as well
Slide 15
Which of the following indicate a poor cancer prognosis? Select 3
A) 2 or more brain metastases
B) Patients spends 10 hrs in bed
C) 2 or less brain metastases
D) Spinal cord compression
E) Weight loss > 10% in 6 months
A) 2 or more brain metastases
D) Spinal cord compression with limited mobility
E) Weight loss > 10% in 6 months
Slide15
Which of the following conditions are linked to a median survival of 6 months or less in cancer patients? Select 2
A) Patient spends < ½ day in bed
B) Recurrence of disease after chemotherapy
C) Spinal cord decompression
D) Hepatic, bone, or adrenal metastases
E) Non-Malignant pericardial effusion
B) Recurrence of disease after chemotherapy
D) Hepatic, bone, or adrenal metastases
Slide 15
Which types of cancer frequently metastasize to the bone?
A) Breast, lung, kidney, and prostate
B) Colon, liver, and pancreas
C) Skin, liver, and brain
D) Stomach, esophagus, and thyroid
A) Breast, lung, kidney, and prostate
Slide 16
One potential intervention for managing bone metastasis pain is ________.
A) Radiation therapy only
B) NSAIDs and/or opioids
C) Surgery only
D) Physical therapy
B) NSAIDs and/or opioids
M - NSAIDs and opioids can be utilized for pain. There is the risk of addiction with opioids, but if it’s a late stage cancer, then we the concern about addiction kind of goes out the window.
Slide 16
Cancer metastasis to the bone can present as _______ lesions.
A) Osteoblastic and osteoclastic
B) Osteclastic and osteolytic
C) Osteolytic and osteoblastic
D) None of the above
C) Both osteolytic and osteoblastic
M - these metastasis tend to radiate to the bone, and it becomes very painful. We can see these osteolytic and osteoblastic lesions as the bone starts to break down and attempts to rebuild itself. We start to see these lesions on X-ray when the cancer has metastasized to the bones.
Slide 16
Which of the following treatments may be used for bone metastasis from cancers like breast or prostate? Select 3
A) Radiotherapy
B) Hormonal therapy
C) Vestibuloplasty
D) Chemotherapy
E) Physical therapy
A) Radiotherapy
B) Hormonal therapy
D) Chemotherapy
Slide 16
A potential treatment for spinal fractures caused by bone metastasis is ________.
A) Radiotherapy
B) Vertebroplasty
C) Chemotherapy
D) Hormonal therapy
B) Vertebroplasty
M - mets to the spine, causes the bones to weaken and ultimately start to compress on those spinal nerves. Vertebroplasty is when they inject cement and it builds up collapsed vertrebra and open up the spaces and relieve the nerve pain on those spinal nerves. This can be a good kind of palliative treatment.
Slide 16
What is the primary cause of cancer pain?
A) Damage from chemotherapy
B) Tumor invading tissues innervated by afferent neurons
C) Treatment with radiation therapy
D) Emotional stress from diagnosis
B) Tumor invading tissues innervated by afferent neurons
Slide 17
Which of the following are common causes of higher cancer pain?
(Select 3)
A) Invasion of tumor into the pleura
B) Direct invasion of the nerve plexus
C) Emotional stress
D) Side effects from medication
E) Invasion of tumor into the peritoneum
A) Invasion of tumor into the pleura
B) Direct invasion of the nerve plexus
E) Invasion of tumor into the peritoneum
Slide 17
True or False
Most cancer pain is due to the cancer itself and not the treatment.
True
Slide 17
According to the WHO cancer pain stepladder, pain medications should be administered:
Select 2
A) When requested by the patient
B) Promptly and on a regular schedule
C) After a delay to assess the severity of the pain
D) As the patient’s pain decreases
A) When requested by the patient
B) Promptly and on a regular schedule
M - ..when a patient says that they’re hurting, they’re immediately given something for pain. There’s no wait for a schedule. It’s prompt administration of pain medicine.
The second one is that they also have a pain schedule that’s not PRN but a prophylactic. You know, every three hour or every four hour around the clock pain medicine that they’re receiving.
Slide 18
_________ are added as necessary in cancer pain management.
A) Anxiolytics
B) PPI
C) Antibiotics
D) Anticoagulants
A) Anxiolytics
Slide 18
What is the effectiveness of the WHO cancer pain stepladder when all three interventions are applied?
A) 50-60%
B) 70-80%
C) 80-90%
D) 90-100%
C) 80-90%
M - What they found is that when these patients receive all three of these interventions, (Prompt administration
On schedule; not prn and antianxiety drugs), they we see about an 80 to 90% effectiveness in relieving pain and anxiety associated with cancer.
Slide 18
Nerve blocks for cancer pain are primarily used when:
Select 2
A) The patient does not want to take medications
B) Pharmacologic treatments fails
C) Persistant pain or excessive side effects
D) The patient is allergic to opioids
B) Pharmacologic treatments fails
C) Persistant pain or excessive side effects
slide 19
Nerve blocks are mostly used for patients with __________ life expectancy in cancer pain management.
A) Long
B) Short
C) Indefinite
D) Intermediate
B) Short
Slide 19
While nerve blocks can decrease opioid usage, the pain relief provided is usually __________.
A) Permanent
B) Effective
C) Complete
D) Incomplete
D) Incomplete
Slide 19
Which cancers are commonly treated with a celiac plexus block? select 3
A. Hepatic
B. Gastric
C. Lung
D. Pancreatic
E. Rectal
A. Hepatic
B. Gastric
D. Pancreatic
Slide 20
The celiac plexus block involves neurolysis of the sympathetic fibers of ________ and parasympathetic celiac plexus fibers.
A. T1-T4
B. T5-T12
C. L1-L5
D. T8-L2
B. T5-T12
Slide 20
In celiac plexus neurolysis, __________ is injected to deaden the nerves and block pain transmission signals.
A. Lidocaine
B. Morphine
C. Alcohol
D. Epinephrine
C. Alcohol
Slide 20
Pain relief from a celiac plexus block lasts for how long?
A. 1-2 months
B. 3-6 months
C. 6-12 months
D. Over a year
B. 3-6 months
Slide 20
Which of the following are side effects of a celiac plexus block? select 2
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypertension
C. Hypotension
D. Bradycardia
A. Diarrhea
C. Hypotension
Slide 20
Which nerve block is most often used for rib metastasis?
A. Celiac plexus
B. Intercostal nerves
C. Lumbar sympathetic ganglion
D. Hypogastric plexus
B. Intercostal nerves
Slide 20
The lumbar sympathetic ganglion block can help alleviate pain associated with which of the following conditions?
A. Pelvic tumors
B. Rib metastasis
C. Gastric cancer
D. Pancreatic cancer
A. Pelvic tumors
M - very helpful in pelvic tumors related to things like ovarian cancers and uterine cancers and things like that.
Slide 20
Which of the following are benefits of continuous catheter techniques? (Select 2)
A. Decrease in systemic side effects
B. Lack of homogenous drug distribution
C. Ubiquitous technique and equipment
D. Granulomas
A. Decrease in systemic side effects
C. Ubiquitous technique and equipment
Slide 21
Which of the following is NOT a drawback of continuous catheter techniques?
A. Granulomas formation
B. Limited duration of therapy
C. Migration of the catheter
D. Unlimited therapy duration
E. Infection rates
F. Lack of homogenous drug distribution
D. Unlimited therapy duration
Slide 21
Chemotherapy is used to target cells in different phases of:
A. The immune system
B. The respiratory cycle
C. The cell cycle
D. The digestive system
C. The cell cycle
slide 23
Chemotherapy can be used to prepare patients for:
A) Bone marrow transplant
B) Surgery
C) Radiation therapy
D) Immunotherapy
A) Bone marrow transplant
Slide 23
Chemotherapy is commonly used to:
Select 2
A) Kill cancer cells
B) Promote cell growth
C) Shrink tumors
D) Regenerate healthy tissue
A) Kill cancer cells
C) Shrink tumors,
Slide 23
Which chemotherapeutic agent is known to cause pulmonary toxicity?
A) Doxorubicin
B) Cisplatin
C) Methotrexate
D) Bleomycin
D) Bleomycin
Morde: We talked about Bleomycin.
They’re more at risk for pulmonary toxicity related to high oxygen levels.
So this oxygen toxicity causes pulmonary damage in their in these patients.
Memory Trick: Bleo Pulmo
Slide 36
Which test is commonly used to diagnose adrenal insufficiency?
A) Thyroid function test
B) ACTH stimulation test
C) D-dimer test
D) Serum calcium test
B) ACTH stimulation test
Slide 37
Which of the following are effects of opioids related to cancer progression? Select 3
A) Inhibit leukocyte migration
B) Directly stimulate proliferation and invasion of cancer cells
C) Promote apoptosis through NK cell activity
D) Inhibit apoptosis by inhibiting NK cell activity
A) Inhibit leukocyte migration
B) Directly stimulate proliferation and invasion of cancer cells
D) Inhibit apoptosis by inhibiting NK cell activity
Slide 40
Which of the following are potential effects of volatile anesthetics related to cancer progression? Select 3
A) Increase migration and invasion by affecting platelets
B) Induce chemo resistance
C) Enhance NK cell activity
D) Inhibit NK cells
A) Increase migration and invasion by affecting platelets
B) Induce chemo resistance
D) Inhibit NK cells
Slide 40
What effects does propofol have on cancer cells?
A) Increases cell migration and inhibits apoptosis
B) Decreases cell migration and promotes apoptosis
C) Inhibits apoptosis and enhances invasion
D) Stimulates NK cell inhibition
B) Decreases cell migration
Down regulates signaling pathways
and
promotes apoptosis
Promotes cytotoxicity of NK cells
Slide 40
__ is the leading cause of cancer deaths in both genders.
A) Breast cancer
B) Lung cancer
C) Prostate cancer
D) Colorectal cancer
B) Lung cancer
Due to peak in smoking 1940-1970
Slide 45
What is the primary cause of lung cancer, accounting for approximately 90% of cases?
A) Radon gas
B) Asbestos
C) Tobacco smoke
D) Air pollution
C) Tobacco smoke
3 decade lag time in cancer occurrence
Slide 45
Which of the following substances, other than tobacco, are known to cause lung cancer? select 2
A) Asbestos
B) Radon gas
C) Lead
D) Carbon monoxide
A) Asbestos
B) Radon gas
Slide 45
Which of the following are subtypes of non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC)? (Select 3 that apply)
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Large cell carcinoma
D) Mesothelioma
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Large cell carcinoma
Slide 46
Which of the following are true regarding Lambert-Eaton Syndrome? (Select 2 that apply)
A) It does not improve with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
B) It is extremely sensitive to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
C) It worsens with exercise throughout the day
D) It improves with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
A) It does not improve with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
B) It is extremely sensitive to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
Slide 48
True or False
In a V/Q scan, the darker the area, the more perfusion is present in that region.
True
Morde: So resecting areas that are darker is going to result in a more dramatic change in the VQ
Slide 58
What is the formula for predicted post-operative FEV₁ ?
A) (Preop FEV₁ %) x (1 - % of body weight / 100)
B) (Preop FEV₁ %) x (1 - % of lung tissue removed / 100)
C) (Preop FEV₁ %) ÷ (1 - % of lung tissue removed / 100)
D) (Preop FEV₁ %) ÷ (1 - % of total lung capacity)
B) (Preop FEV₁ %) x (1 - % of lung tissue removed / 100)
Slide 59
According to the American Society of Regional Anesthesia and Pain Medicine guidelines, which of the following factors are included in their protocols regarding epidural management after thrombolytic therapy? (Select 3 that apply)
A) How long you need to wait before placing an epidural after the last dose of thrombolytic therapy
B) How long you need to wait to turn on the epidural
C) How long you need to wait before pulling the catheter out at the end of the case
D) The patient’s platelet count before the procedure
E) How long to wait after administering opioids
F) All of the above
A) How long you need to wait before placing an epidural after the last dose of thrombolytic therapy
B) How long you need to wait to turn on the epidural
C) How long you need to wait before pulling the catheter out at the end of the case
Slide 61-62
How many dermatomes are typically covered by a single shot of a paravertebral block?
A) 1-2 dermatomes
B) 2-4 dermatomes
C) 4-6 dermatomes
D) 6-8 dermatomes
C) 4-6 dermatomes
Slide 63
When performing an intercostal or paravertebral block, which anatomical landmarks are important to identify?
A) Spinous process
B) Tip of the scapula
C) Angle of the rib
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Slide 65
