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Sergeant Exam > Policy > Flashcards

Policy Flashcards

1
Q

Can a Sgt issue a written reprimand or above

A

NO

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2
Q

How long does a corrective action stay in your file

A

1 year

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3
Q

When can you request a written reprimand be removed

A

in writing after 2 years

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4
Q

Define “unfounded”

A

a finding which indicates the act did not occur or failed to involve police personnel

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5
Q

Exonerated

A

find of a complaint of misconduct which indicates the alleged action did occur but that it was justified

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6
Q

Not sustained

A

investigation failed to discover substantial evidence to prove or disprove the allegations

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7
Q

sustained

A

violation of the policy has been established by a preponderance of the evidence

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8
Q

Sgt’s can issue what discipline

A

counseling, training, oral reprimand, PAE, corrective action report

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9
Q

Medal of honor

A

demonstrates bravery and heroism

must have been aware of danger

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10
Q

Distinguished service cross

A

exceptional bravery despite risk of SBI or Death

may or may not be aware of risk before performance

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11
Q

Purple Heart

A

sustains a gunshot, stab, or serious injury which could have resulted in death or permanent disability

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12
Q

Life Saving award

A

personally save a life

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13
Q

meritorious service ribbon

A

performs difficult tasks because of diligence or perseverance, goes above and beyond

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14
Q

Firearms recognition

A

90% or better for each quarter in a calendar year

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15
Q

Superior service award

A

who inspire others to strive for perfection. putting others interests ahead of his or her own for career service members

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16
Q

Excellence award

A

career service members who seek excellence

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17
Q

How many people on the awards board

A

7

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18
Q

How many days to write a non-contractual grievance

A

10 for knowing or should have known facts

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19
Q

How many days to file a report or discrimination or harrassment

A

300 from occurrence

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20
Q

How many days for supervisor to report to EEO

A

5 days

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21
Q

How long are EEO files kept

A

4 years

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22
Q

two forms to be completed if a polygraph is given in a criminal investigation

A

Advisement of rights form and criminal investigation advisement for members form

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23
Q

two forms to be completed with an administrative investigation

A

NOI and Internal Administrative Investigation Form

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24
Q

IRB

A

Independent Review Board - determines appropriate level of discipline

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25
Q

Who is the primary agency in investigating incidents of child abuse or nelgect?

A

County Department of Social Services

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26
Q

Officers investigating child abuse or neglect shall notify who?

A

Department of Human Services

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27
Q

When a sexual assault kit should be completed in a juvenile

A

within 72 hours of credible information of penetration

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28
Q

When to notify Crimes against children unit

A
  • under 18 deaths, except traffic accidents
  • sexual offenses which occurred within 72 hrs
  • child abuse w/ SBI or hospitalization
  • attempted luring or abduction
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29
Q

Age limit for delinquent act charging

A

10 yrs old

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30
Q

When to take a juvenile into custody

A
  • warrant
  • delinquent act involves prostitution
  • delinquent act would be a felony if committed by an adult
  • delinquent act involves weapons
  • delinquent act occurs under probation or parole
  • listed as no more summons, repeat offender, SHODI
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31
Q

Juvenile arrested on municipal warrant

A
  • process the juvenile
  • if court is in session, turn over to court marshall
  • if no court, release to parent after processing with promise to appear
  • if no parent, responsible adult with promise to appear, or contact social services
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32
Q

No more summons does not apply to….

A

traffic or alcohol summons

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33
Q

Complete what when dealing with no more summons?

A

General Offense report
MRE arrest booking
Forward to detectives

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34
Q

Processing SHODI juveniles

A
  • take into custody
  • Process juvenile
  • transport to detention facility with copy of paperwork
  • advise District 2 detectives
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35
Q

Status Offenses

A

would not be a crime if completed by an adult

  • Truancy
  • beyond parental control
  • minor in possession of alcohol
  • curfew
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36
Q

Minimum safe distance for a perimeter to limit electronic interference on a bomb threat?

A

300 ft

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37
Q

Minimum radius from accidents involving explosives or potential vapor

A

3,000 ft or 1/2 mile

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38
Q

Three non-negotiable items in hostage situation

A

replacement hostages
narcotics
alcohol

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39
Q

SWAT use of a robot, throw phone, or other device needs whose approval

A

District Attorney, if no contact is made within 5 minutes the duty chief of chief of police may approve

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40
Q

After approval of listening device, what needs to be written

A

an affidavit and order for the ex-parte within 24 hrs of the termination of the event

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41
Q

Who is on an extraction team

A 
front guard (police)
2 or more firefighters
rear guard (police)
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42
Q

Which radio frequency will be used for interior communication in an active critical incident

A

The frequency for the district in which the event is happening

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43
Q

Which radio channel will be used for primary dispatch of any calls not related to an active critical incident

A

PD 3

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44
Q

Who authorizes mutual aid

A

Duty Executive Officer or the office of the chief of police

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45
Q

Who approves outside mutual aid such as national guard

A

Office of Emergency Management

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46
Q

Amber alert criteria

A

must be 17 or younger
be in immediate danger of SBI or death
enough descriptive information to believe a broadcast will assist

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47
Q

Who approves out of state sexually violent predator designation?

A

Investigative Division Chief

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48
Q

Who notifies the victim, parent, or guardian regarding planned community meetings regarding sex offenders

A

Victim Services

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49
Q

Who creates bulletin’s an power points regarding sex offender meetings

A

Sex crimes unit

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50
Q

If contact is made with registered sex offender and information does not match hit, what needs to be completed

A

General Offense report for “sex offender failure to register”

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51
Q

what code should be used regarding reports involving sex offenders

A

3616

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52
Q

How many days prior to out of country travel must a sex offender notify local law enforcement

A

21 days

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53
Q

Who investigates credible threats to employees

A

Intel Unit

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54
Q

How often must you receive refresher training on tactical casualty care

A

2 hours triennial basis (3 years)

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55
Q

Alert team

A

group of Aurora Citizen’s Police Academy Alumni

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56
Q

Blue Alert

A

peace officer has been killed or received life-threatening injury and suspects have fled the scene. Approved by PIO and investigations commander

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57
Q

Senior/silver alert

A
  • must have gone missing while in Colorado
  • 60 yrs old or older
  • verified impaired mental condition
  • person to sign a statement verifying the impaired condition
  • credible threat to the safety and health of missing person
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58
Q

Developmental disabilities alert

A
  • gone missing in Colorado
  • verified development disability
  • signed written statement
    poses a credible threat tot eh safety and health of the person
  • disability manifested before the age of 22
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59
Q

Within how many day of learning of an incident shall a supervisor complete a PAE

A

30 days

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60
Q

If a member is receiving an unsatisfactory rating, the member must be notified how many days before the evaluation date?

A

90 days, meeting and assist in creating a plan to improve in the next 90 days

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61
Q

probation period for career service members

A

6 months

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62
Q

probation period for civil service members

A

1 year

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63
Q

How long to appeal an annual evaluation

A

10 days

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64
Q

Performance Appraisal file is retained for how long

A

3 years, 5 years for Crime Lab

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65
Q

Presumed suspension for first DUI

A

160 hrs

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66
Q

alcohol limit for reporting for duty

A

0.02 BAC or BrAC

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67
Q

What color are the blood sample tubes uses for officers?

A

Gray

68
Q

How long do you have to report an on-duty injury/illness

A

24 hrs in writing

69
Q

For minor injuries including bumps, bruises, cuts, scrapes what needs to be completed

A

complete a PAE describing injury, follow up in 1 week

70
Q

How much time are members allotted to work out on duty

A

45 minutes

71
Q

responding time if you are working out

A

3 minutes

72
Q

How long do you have to download your body worn camera

A

72 hrs (3 days) from recording

73
Q

Who may take possession of a members camera after a critical incident?

A

Major crimes detective or ESS

74
Q

Videos must be categorized within what time period

A

28 days from date of incident

75
Q

All body worn camera video will be kept for how long unless designated for longer

A

60 days

76
Q

Reasons for entries in AIM for body worn camera violations

A
  • fail to activate
  • late activation
  • late activation and did not record use of force
  • turn off early
  • turned off upon request by failed to reactivate at the conclusion of contact
  • failed to categorize properly
77
Q

First incident in 24 month period of camera violation

A

AIM entry only

78
Q

2nd violation of camera in 24 months

A

AIM entry and forwarded to command officer for corrective action

79
Q

3rd incidence of camera violation in 24 months

A

AIM entry and to appropriate chief for written reprimand

80
Q

4th incident of camera violation in 24 months

A

AIM entry and sent to IA

81
Q

How long on “other than full duty” before a personnel order is required?

A

14 days

82
Q

Who can order a fitness for duty evaluation?

A

Chief or designee

83
Q

How many days out of full duty status, enforcement position or military leave before reintegration is used

A

90 days

84
Q

How long are you placed on admin leave after critical incident?

A

5 days

85
Q

How long after critical incident do you have to schedule a phsyc appointment

A

72 hrs to be completed within 5 days

86
Q

How long after a incident should a voluntary debrief take place

A

2 weeks

87
Q

How is driving without headlights during hours of darkness described in policy

A

it is discouraged

88
Q

When can a member operate in emergency response conditions?

A
  • responding o a priority zero, on e or two call
  • attempting to apprehend a traffic violator
  • when involved in a vehicle pursuit
89
Q

Where should should you pass during emergency operations?

A

on the left, if possible

90
Q

Pursuit guidelines

A
  • within the last 24 hrs
  • committed a felony involving the use or threatened use of potentially deadly force
  • suspect is attempting to escape or elude police by threatening or actually using potentially deadly force to include intentionally striking the officer
91
Q

Factors to initiate or continue pursuit

A
  • likelihood of successful apprehension
  • identity of suspect is known
  • registration of vehicle is known to later apprehend
  • degree of risk created by pursuit
  • volume, type, speed, of pursuit
  • nature of the area
  • population density
  • environmental factors
  • road conditions
  • knowledge, ability, and experience of officers
  • condition of police vehicle
92
Q

Can you engage in vehicle paralleling?

A

no, unless to determine driver’s identity

93
Q

Pursuits WILL NOT be conducted in this manner except in extraordinary circumstances

A
  • in a direction opposite to the flow of traffic on a divided highway
  • in a police vehicle where driver or passenger is a non-sworn member, unless waiver is signed
  • without both visual and audible warning devices are activated
94
Q

What shall initiating officer broadcast for pursuit

A
  • declaration of pursuit
  • location, direction of travel and speed
  • vehicle/occupant description
  • reason for pursuit
  • road and traffic conditions
95
Q

What tier of force dos the forcible termination of a pursuit fall under?

A

Tier 2, inless it results in hospitalization or death then is a Tier 3

96
Q

Forcible termination of a pursuit is limited to:

A
  • Tire deflation devices
  • Boxing
  • heading off
  • roadblocks
  • deliberative vehicle contact
97
Q

PIT speed limit

A

45 mph

98
Q

PIT will not be utilized when?

A
  • motorcycle
  • ATV
  • truck with passengers in bed
  • vehicle showing hazardous cargo
99
Q

How long can you be on leave with out turning in your radio to ESS?

A

30 days

100
Q

Who maintains a master list of all call sings?

A

ESS

101
Q

the 3 badges authorized

A
  • 2006,, original issue badge
  • 2007, centennial commemorative badge
  • 2008, issue badge
102
Q

What year is on honor guard badges for the badge number

A

1907

103
Q

Eligible for retirement when?

A

19.5 yrs of service
15 years of service and attained 50 yrs old
off probation and determined to be totally disabled

104
Q

Class driver’s license to operate the BEAR

A

class B commercial DL

105
Q

Reasons a firearm should not be discharged

A

as warning shots
at persons who have only committed a misd or traffic
to prevent destruction of property or theft
is a result of carelessness

106
Q

What time frame do you have to report excessive force?

A

before the end of shift

107
Q

Tier Zero

A

not considered use of force
handcuffing and not arresting
points a firearm or projectile launcher

108
Q

Tier One

A

use of force with no or minor injury/ use of restraint

  • twist locks, take downs, throws
  • not a tier one if used solely for medical, emotional or mental health
109
Q

How long do you have to make initial entry for UOF

A

7 days

110
Q

Tier Two

A

use of force/weapons or injury

  • use of weapons other than deadly weapon to overcome resistance
  • subject is injured and requires medical treatment
  • pepper spray, taser, baton, canine, impact weapons, pitting a vehicle
111
Q

Tier Three

A

use of deadly weapon or deadly force, or potentially deadly force
any degree of force used that results in hospitalization or death

112
Q

Responsibilities of supervisor on Tier 2 or 3 UOF

A
  • initiate UOF report
  • description of supervisor’s actions and observations
  • information provided by witnesses
  • taser download
  • if medical treatment was offered and or needed
  • the response to the medical offer
  • photographs of injuries or lack of
  • any reports
113
Q

How long shall you remain on the FRB

A

1 year

114
Q

3 exceptions to the discharge of a firearm while on duty being treated as an OIS

A
  • during training, unless injury occurs
  • negligent discharge where only city or no property was damaged
  • discharge for the purpose of destroying a critically injured or vicious animal
115
Q

Who must approve the use of chemical irritants/munitions on an offensive basis

A

SWAT/ERT sergeant or command officer

116
Q

Minimum number of rounds available for less lethal shotguns

A

5 rounds

117
Q

How long after date of manufacture will OC spray be changed out?

A

4 years

118
Q

What tier UOF is the use of hobbles

A

tier 1 unless restraint results in injury, then tier 2

119
Q

Taser use restrictions

A

not activate more than 3 times or longer than 15 seconds

120
Q

When to call EMS after chemical irritant exposure

A

if still suffering from affects after 30 minutes

121
Q

Kinetic energy impact projectiles medical requirments

A

call for rescue if used, follow medical advise regarding care or transport to jail

122
Q

Taser medical requirements

A

call EMS to evaluate
- on duty jail nurse will remove barbs
if subject is exposed to over 15 seconds of taser, subject will be transported to ER for evaluation

123
Q

How long can a juvenile be held for processing for a delinquent act?

A

6 hours out of sight and sound of adult detainees

124
Q

Who has the ability to visit a detainee at a medical facility?

A

detainee’s attorney and/or a member of family

125
Q

What will a sergeant complete if a prisoner escape would occur?

A

Respond to scene, complete a memo to the Chief up the chain of command detailing the events leading to the escape

126
Q

What Division and time do victims of domestic violence get summoned to?

A

Division 8 at 0830 hrs

127
Q

What do you do with juvenile domestic violence suspects

A

complete reports, send to district detective, process juvenile for photographs and prints, transport to detention center, can not be released to parent, social services or other department

128
Q

What will be completed for Arapahoe County domestic violence charges when it involves child abuse or restraining order violation?

A

issue court summons for following day at 0830 hrs, warrant-less arrest affidavit, issue notice to appear to victim in room #208

129
Q

When and what time do victims get subpoenaed for Adams county court regarding domestic violence?

A

3 days after the suspect is jailed at 1300 hrs

130
Q

Who must request a familial DNA search?

A

Chief of Police or District Attorney

131
Q

Criteria for a gang member

A
  • admits membership of a gang
  • commits a gang motivated crime
  • identified by another LE agency as belonging to gang
  • exhibits two or more of wearing clothing, displays mannerisms, admits knowledge, authors written correspondence, use a moniker, tattoos, identified as a gang member by a reliable informant
132
Q

supervisor responsibilities for a bias motivated crime

A
  • respond to scene
  • request crime scene investigators to collect evidence
  • offer victim services
  • ensure items have been selected in report under “bias” block
  • notify duty captain
  • send HPN
133
Q

How long is the class to become an officer CSI

A

2 days

134
Q

How many crime scenes must a officer-CSI complete to get certification

A

10 scenes including one simple burglary

135
Q

What crimes can an officer-CSI process

A

misd or felony property crime
misd crime against an adult
- 10 scenes annually to keep cert

136
Q

After how many days of sick usage will contact administrative services to determine if FMLA paperwork should be completed?

A

on the 4th consecutive day

137
Q

how often can medical verification be requested for FMLA

A

every 30 days

138
Q

court liaison can attempt to refuse a subpoena if served how many days prior to appearence

A

5 days

139
Q

punishments for failing to appear for court in a 24 month period

A
  • 1st, counseling documented with PAE
  • 2nd, corrective action
  • 3rd, written
  • 4th, forwarded to IA
140
Q

How long does the traffic bureau have to approve on-line reports

A

7 days from initiation

141
Q

reasons a traffic accident diagram will be drawn

A
  • involving a bus
  • incapacitating injury accidents
  • fatal’s
  • suspected DUI driver
  • city vehicle
142
Q

cases that should initially be privatized due to sensitivity

A
  • homicides
  • OIS
  • on-duty deaths
  • criminal investigations of personnel
  • felonious child deaths
143
Q

Default diary date for privatized cases

A

3 years

144
Q

Reports that can be taken over the phone at the front desk

A
  • cold property reports w/out suspects
  • harassing phone calls w/out suspects
  • insurance reports and supplemental information
  • lost or found property of citizen brings in property
  • runaway/missing person reports
145
Q

How many hours of off duty can you work in a 7 day work cycle?

A

24, 68 total worked hours between regular work, voluntary OT and and off duty, 16 hrs in a 24 hr period

146
Q

max accumulated hours in your comp bank

A

160 hrs

147
Q

How many cumulative hours of grant overtime worked will be subject to an audit?

A

30

148
Q

How many days after a PEIS entry should a follow up be completed

A

90 days

149
Q

How long are PEIS entries retained

A

1 year

150
Q

Which copies of a trespass notice are issued to whom

A

original is sent to records to be scanned in, last copy is given to trespasser, second copy is given to management of the property

151
Q

Code of Federal regulation relating to protest investigations

A

28 CRF Part 23

152
Q

How long can an officer legally temporarily seize a device that was used to record an incident to obtain a search warrant

A

72 hours

153
Q

What type of reports can be filed on-line?

A
  • lost or missing property
  • damaged property with no suspects
  • theft, under felony, with no suspects
  • vandalism to vehicle
  • larceny from vehicle
    supplemental report of stolen property from a buglary
154
Q

criteria for on-line accident reports

A
  • occurred within the city
  • non injury
  • non injury hit and run
  • no alcohol or drugs
  • damage less than $1000
155
Q

When can a phone report be taken on a missing person?

A

if pending over 30 minutes
no known risks or suspicious circumstances
over the age of 13

156
Q

can a phone report be taken for a runaway, escapee with no known risks from a treatment facility be taken

A

yes, forward to district attorney’s office for charging

157
Q

Missing at-risk adult criteria

A
  • 18 or older with an IDD

- over 70 reduced mental faculties

158
Q

Missing at-risk child criteria

A
  • 13 or younger

- under 18 with IDD or serious life threatening conditions

159
Q

How long do you have to notify records with information on a missing person

A

2 hours

160
Q

When can a phone report be taken of a returned missing child

A

if pending for 60 minutes

161
Q

Duty captain will notify IAB in what circumstances

A
  • unintentional discharge of a firearm
  • discharge of a firearm to destroy an animal
  • forcible termination of a pursuit
  • vehicle accident resulting in death or serious injury
  • use of force resulting in death or serious injury
  • incident of great public interest
  • any other that’s appropriate
162
Q

Investigative Review Process

A

IRP

- 14 calendar days to review IAB’s report before being sent to commanding officer

163
Q

How long do you have for a signed letter of dispute after IRP?

A

7 days

164
Q

NDSA guidelines

A

facts are not disputed, 40 hr or less discipline

  • documented on body camera
  • failed to appear to assignment or court
  • unintentional discharge of a weapon
  • police vehicle collisions
  • member self reports
165
Q

3 options after the presentation meeting for an NDSA

A
  • immediate resolution
  • reflection period up to 5 days
  • request a formal IA investigation

Sergeant Exam (6 decks)

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