Policy 6/002.00 Use Of Force

Question 1

Use of Force:

The LVMPD is committed to protecting people, their property and rights, while providing the best in public safety and service. The proper use of force is essential for policing.

There are circumstances were individuals will not comply with the law unless compelled or controlled by the use of force. Yet, officers must also remain mindful that they derive their authority from the community and that unreasonable force degrades the legitimacy of that authority.

In a use of force incident, the governmental interest must match the level of force and intrusion upon an individual’s Constitutional Rights.

True or False?

Answer 1

True.

Question 2

Use of Force:

It is the policy of this department that officers hold the highest regard for the dignity and liberty of all persons, and place minimal reliance upon the use of force.

The department respects the value of every human life and that the application of deadly force is a measure to be employed in the most extreme circumstances.

True or False?

Answer 2

True.

Question 3

Use of Force:

The ECD Touch Stun is defined as a secondary function of the ECD intended to administer pain to a subject by making direct contact with the body after the air cartridge has been expended or removed.

NOTE: The use of the ECD in this mode is _________.

Answer 3

Discouraged.

Question 4

Use of Force:

Force Transitions is defined as:

Answer 4

The movement, escalation/de-escalation, from the application of one force type to another in conjunction with the “objectively reasonable” standard from Graham v. Connor.

The officer must consider all the factors prior to using force and choose a reasonable option based on the “totality of the circumstances” present.

Question 5

Use of Force:

Low Level Force is defined as:

Answer 5

Low Level Force is the level of force that is necessary to interact with the subject that is compliant or displaying passive or active resistance.

Question 6

Use of Force:

Intermediate Force is defined as:

Answer 6

The level of force necessary to compel compliance by a subject displaying Aggressive Resistance, which is neither likely nor intended to cause death.

Question 7

Use of Force:

Deadly force is defined as:

Answer 7

Deadly Force is that degree of force, which is likely to produce death or serious bodily injury. Deadly force can also result from a force option being improperly applied. Deadly force is not limited to the use of firearms.

Question 8

Use of Force:

Levels of Control is defined as:

Answer 8

Levels of Control are broad categories of influence and or force in identifiable, escalating stages of intensity. They are identified as Low Level Force, Intermediate Force, and Deadly Force.

Question 9

Use of Force:

Reasonable Force is defined as:

Answer 9

Reasonable force is an objective standard of force viewed from the perspective of a reasonable officer, without the benefit of 20/20 hindsight, and based on the totality of the circumstances presented at the time of the incident.

Question 10

Use of Force:

Reportable Force is defined as:

Answer 10

Reportable force is any use of force which is required to overcome subject resistance to gain compliance that results in death, injury or complaint of injury, complaint of continuing pain, or any use of force greater than Low Level Force and any application of the LVNR.

Question 11

Use of Force:

Significant Force is defined as:

Answer 11

Any force which results in treatment at a medical facility due to injuries or alleged injuries caused by an officer. Examples include, but are not limited to: skeletal fractures, injury or complaint of injury to a person’s head or sternum area. All Significant Force is Reportable Force.

Question 12

Use of Force to Affect a Detention, an Arrest or to Conduct a Search:

Officers may use reasonable force to:

Answer 12

1. To protect themselves.
2. To Protect others.
3. To affect a lawful detention.
4. To affect a lawful arrest.
5. To conduct a lawful search.

If it is not already known by the subject to be detained, arrested, or searched, officers should, if reasonable, make clear their intent to detain, arrest or search the subject.

When practicable, officers will identify themselves as a peace officer before using force.

Question 13

Use of Force:

Under the Fourth Amendment of the United States Constitution a police officer may only use such force as is ______ _______ under all of the circumstances.

Answer 13

Objectively Reasonable

Question 14

Use of Force:

The standard that courts will use to examine whether a use of force is constitutional was first set forth in _______ vs _______.

Answer 14

Graham vs Connor, 490 U.S. 386 (1989).

Question 15

Use of Force:

The reasonableness of a particular use of force must be judged from the perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene, rather than with 20/20 vision of hindsight.

The reasonableness must account for the fact that officers are often forced to make split-second judgments – in circumstances that are tense, uncertain, and rapidly evolving.

True or False?

Answer 15

True.

Question 16

Use of Force:

The reasonableness inquiry in reviewing use of force is an objective one: the question is whether the officer’s actions are objectively reasonable in light of the facts and circumstances confronting them.

The officer’s perception may be a consideration, but other objective factors will determine the reasonableness of force. These factors may include but are not limited to:

Answer 16

1. The severity of the crimes at issue.
2. Whether the subject possess an immediate threat to the safety of the other officers or others.
3. Whether the subject is actively resisting arrest or attempting to evade arrest by flight.
4. The influence of drugs/alcohol or the mental capacity of the subject.
5. The time available to an officer to make a decision.
6. The availability of officers/resources to de-escalate the situation.
7. The proximity or access of weapons to the subject.
8. The environmental factors and/or other exigent circumstances.

Question 17

Use of Force:

The officer will use a level of force that is necessary and within the range of “objectively reasonable” options.

When use of force is needed, officers will assess each incident to determine, based on policy, training and experience, which use of force option will de-escalate the situation and bring it under control in a safe and prudent manner.

Reasonable and sound judgment will dictate the force option to be employed. Therefore, the department examines all use of force from an objective standard rather than a subjective standard.

True or False?

Answer 17

True.

Question 18

Duty to Intervene:

Any officer present and observing another officer using force that is clearly beyond that which is objectively reasonable under the circumstances shall, when in a position to do so, safely intercede to prevent the use of such excessive force. Officers shall promptly report these observations to a supervisor.

True or False?

Answer 18

True.

Question 19

Levels of Resistance:

Name the 5 Levels of Resistance?

Answer 19

1. Compliant - a person contacted by an officer who acknowledges direction or lawful orders given and offers no passive/active, aggressive, or aggravated aggressive resistance.
2. Passive Resistance - The subject is not complying with an officer’s commands and is uncooperative, but is taken only minimal physical action to prevent an officer from placing the subject in custody and taking control. Examples include: Standing stationary and not moving upon lawful direction, falling limply and refusing to use their own power to move (becoming deadweight), holding onto a fixed object, or locking arms to another during a protest or demonstration.
3. Active Resistance - The subject’s verbal or physical actions are intended to prevent an officer from placing the subject in custody and taking control, but are not directed at harming the officer. Examples include: walking or running away, breaking the officers grip.
4. Aggressive Resistance - The subject displays the intent to harm the officer, themselves or another person and prevent an officer from placing the subject in custody and taking control. The aggression may manifest itself through a subject taking a fighting stance, punching, kicking, striking, attacks with weapons or other actions which present an imminent threat of physical harm to the officer or another.
5. Aggravated Aggressive Resistance - The subject’s actions are likely to result in death or serious bodily harm to the officer, themselves or another. These actions may include a firearm, use of blunt or bladed weapon, and extreme physical force.

Question 20

Levels of Control:

Name the 3 Levels of Control?

Answer 20

1. Low Level Force.
2. Intermediate Force.
3. Deadly Force.

Question 21

Levels of Control:

Low Level Force - The level of control necessary to interact with a subject that is compliant or displaying Passive or Active Resistance. This level of force is not intended to and has a low probability of causing injury.

Examples are handcuffing a complaint arrestee for transport to detention facility or proning a suspect out on my high-risk vehicle stop.

This level of force includes:

Answer 21

1. Office Presence.
2. Verbal Communication.
3. Empty Hand Tactics (Takedowns).
4. Handcuffs/Other LVMPD Approved Restraint Devices.
5. Baton (As escort tool).
6. LVNR (Level 1 - minimum restraint).
7. K-9 (No bites).
8. Pinching.
9. Blocking.

Question 22

Levels of Control:

Intermediate Force - The level of force necessary to compel compliance by subject displaying Aggressive Resistance, which is neither likely nor intended to cause death.

This level of force requires a Use of Force Report and includes:

Answer 22

1. Empty Hand Tactics (Takedowns with injury, strikes, kicks).
2. Baton/Impact Weapons (Jabs, Strikes).
3. LVNR (Level 2 - medium restraint; and 3-maximum restraint).
4. OC Spray.
5. ECD.
6. Low Lethality Shotgun (5 yards or greater)
7. K-9 (with bites).
8. P.I.T. (Speeds 40 mph or below).

Question 23

Levels of Control:

Deadly Force - Deadly force is that degree of force, which is likely to produce death or serious bodily injury. Deadly force can also result from a force option being improperly applied. Deadly force is not limited to the use of firearms.

Deadly Force Includes:

Answer 23

1. Baton (Striking head, neck, sternum, spine, groin or kidneys).
2. Low Lethality Shotgun (Fired at a distance less than 5 yards).
3. P.I.T. (More than 40 mph).
4. Ramming.
5. Firearm Use.

Question 24

Parameters for Use of Deadly Force:

An officer may use deadly force upon another person only when it is objectively reasonable to:

Answer 24

1. Protect himself or others from what is reasonably believed to be an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury.
2. Prevent the escape of a fleeing felon who the officer has probable cause to believe has committed a violent felony crime and is an imminent threat to human life if escape should occur.

Question 25

Deadly Force:

Officers will give some warning, if feasible, prior to the use of deadly force.

True or False?

Answer 25

True.

Question 26

Elements of Deadly Force:

What are the 4 Elements of Deadly Force?

Answer 26

1. Ability - Ability exists when a person has the means or capability to cause grave injury, serious bodily harm or death to an officer or another. This may include, but is not limited to the following: the suspects physical ability, size, age, strength, gender, combative skill, level of aggression, and any weapons in the immediate control.
2. Opportunity - Opportunity exists when a person is in a position to effectively resist an officer’s control or to use force or violence upon the officer or another. Examples which may affect opportunity include: relative distance to the officer or others, and physical barriers between the subject and the officer.
3. Imminent Jeopardy - Based upon all the facts and a circumstance confronting the officer, the officer reasonably believes the subject poses an imminent threat to the life of the officers or other third parties and the officer must act immediately to prevent death or serious bodily injury.
4. Preclusion - All other lesser alternatives have been reasonably considered and exhausted prior to the use of deadly force, to include disengagement. Deadly force in response to the subject’s actions must remain reasonable while based upon the totality of the circumstances known to the officer at the time force was applied.

Question 27

De-Escalation:

Officers shall perform their work in a manner that avoids unduly jeopardizing their own safety or the safety of others through poor tactical decisions.

True or False?

Answer 27

True.

Question 28

De-Escalation:

When reasonable under the totality of circumstances, officers should gather information about the incident, assess the risks, assemble resources, attempt to slow momentum, and communicate and coordinate a response.

True or False?

Answer 28

True.

Question 29

De-Escalation:

In their interaction with subjects, officers should use advisements, warnings, verbal persuasion, and other tactics and alternatives to higher levels of force.

True or False?

Answer 29

True.

Question 30

De-Escalation:

Officers should recognize that they may withdraw to a position that is tactically more secure or allows them greater distance in order to consider or deploy a greater variety of Force Options.

True or False?

Answer 30

True.

Question 31

De-Escalation:

The prospect of a favorable outcome is often enhanced when supervisors become involved in the management of an overall response to potential violent encounters by coordinating resources and officers’ tactical actions.

True or False?

Answer 31

True.

Question 32

De-Escalation:

Supervisors should possess a good knowledge of tactics and ensure that officers under their supervision perform to a standard.

True or False?

Answer 32

True.

Question 33

De-Escalation:

As a good practice, supervisors will acknowledge and respond to incidents in a timely manner where police use of force is probable.

True or False?

Answer 33

True.

Question 34

Authorized Force Tools, Techniques and Equipment:

With minimal exception, only department-approved weapons and training techniques shall be used.

Uniformed officers will carry ALL tools and equipment required by policies of this agency.

Officers should note that less lethal tools may result in a lethal outcome, or be ineffective even when used appropriately.

True or False?

Answer 34

True.

Question 35

Authorized Force Tools, Techniques and Equipment:

Supervisors of commissioned personnel should ensure their subordinates complete their minimum required hours of training within the calendar year.

Officers completing an Academy during the calendar year are exempt from the minimum hour requirement. Defensive tactics proficiency testing will be required for the quarter following graduation from an Academy.

True or False?

Answer 35

True.

Question 36

Authorized Force Tools, Techniques and Equipment:

If the member fails to demonstrate proficiency, the member and/or the members supervisor will contact the ______ ______ ______ as soon as practicable for assistance in formulating a remedial training program.

Answer 36

Organizational Development Bureau

Question 37

Authorized Force Tools, Techniques and Equipment:

Presence and Verbal Communication:

Level of Control: low Level Force.

Approved Use:

Answer 37

Officers well, when and to the extent reasonably possible, attempt to use verbal communication skills to control subjects before resorting to physical control methods.

Question 38

Authorized Force Tools, Techniques and Equipment:

Empty Hand Tactics:

Level of Control:

Low Level Force - (Takedowns not likely to cause injury), escorts.

Intermediate Level Force - Takedowns, strikes, kicking.

Deadly Force - Takedowns, strikes, kicking.

Approved Use:

Answer 38

1. These tactics will be used only in accordance with policy and department training.
2. Members should only use tactics appropriate to the situation which have been taught by department Defensive Tactics instructor.

Post Use of Force procedures:
Any incident where a subject is injured or complains of injury, or involves strikes, punches or kicks is reportable by completing a Use of Force Report in Blue Team.

Question 39

Authorized Force Tools, Techniques and Equipment:

Handcuffs, flexible handcuffs, or other restraint devices:

Level of Control: Low Level Force.

Approved Use:

Answer 39

1. This tool will be used only in accordance with policy and department training.
2. In an attempt to minimize the risk of injury to officers and others during arrest situations, officers will handcuff all persons arrested as soon as possible.
3. During investigative detentions (“Terry stops”) were one or more of the following fax is present:
   a. Articulable facts that the subject is physically uncooperative.
   b. Articulable facts that a subject’s actions at the scene may present physical danger to themselves or others if not restrained.
   c. Reasonable possibility of flight based on the action of the subject.
   d. Information that the subject is currently armed.
   e. The stop closely follows a violent crime and the subject matches specific parts of the description.
   f. When there are articulable facts that a crime of violence is about to occur.
   g. Care and discretion should be used at extremes of age in handcuffing an individual during an investigative detention.
   h. The authority to handcuffed during investigatory stops continues for only as long as the circumstances of both exist. Investigative detentions cannot exceed 60 minutes pursuant to NRS 171.123.
4. Suicidal persons.
5. During a search warrant service at:
   a. A private residence as is reasonably necessary to execute the warrant in safety.
   b. A commercial business open to the public if it reasonably appears that handcuffing is necessary to protect an officer or others from physical harm. Circumstances which may justify an initial handcuffing may change and eliminate continued justifications.
6. Detoxification clients being transported.
7. By detention personnel moving in-custody subjects.

Disapproved Use:

1. If medical circumstances make it unreasonable to handcuff an arrestee, officers will refrain from handcuffing.
2. When responding to a security office where a subject has already been placed in handcuffs prior to arriving to the scene, officers shall not place LVMPD handcuffs on the subject until they have reasonable suspicion or probable cause based on their independent investigation and or findings.

Post Use of Force Procedures:

This is a Low Level Force option. Any incident where a subject is injured or complains of injury is reportable by completing a Use of Force Report in Blue Team.

Question 40

Authorized Force Tools, Techniques and Equipment:

Officers will transport subject to the detention facility in a timely manner and booked.

Under no circumstances will a person under arrest be held in a transport vehicle longer than ____ ____ before being transported to the detention facility and book.

Answer 40

2 hours

Question 41

Authorized Force Tools, Techniques and Equipment:

Baton/Impact Weapons:

Level of Control:
Low Level Force - When used as an escort tool.
Intermediate Force - When used for jabbing or striking.
Deadly Force - Striking suspects on the head, neck, sternum, spine, groin, or kidneys.

Approved and Disapproved use:

Answer 41

Approved Use:

1. This tool will be used only in accordance with policy and department training.
2. Blocking, jabbing, to apply control holds, or passive/active escort techniques (Example: stirring the pot).

Disapproved Use:

1. A subject who poses no imminent threat will not be struck with a baton or impact tool.
2. Officers are discouraged from using their firearm as an impact tool due to the possibility of an unintentional discharge.
3. During non-deadly force incidents, officers will use reasonable care to avoid striking suspects on the head, neck, sternum, spine, groin, or kidneys, as the strikes may constitute deadly force.
4. The use of instruments as a weapon for the purpose of striking or jabbing (i.e. flashlights, radio, etc.) other than department authorized batons, is strongly discouraged and acceptable only when other authorized force responses have been exhausted and are either unavailable or ineffective.
5. Officers must be able to articulate a compelling need to use any other device or object other than an authorized baton as an impact weapon.

Post Use of Force Procedures:

Any use of the baton, other than for escort/control hold or “stirring the pot,” and any incident where a subject is injured or complains of injury is reportable.

Question 42

Authorized Force Tools, Techniques and Equipment:

Oleoresin Capsicum Spray:

Level of Control:
Intermediate Force.

Deployment Requirement:

1. When deploying, an officer will if practical, announce a warning to the subject and other officers of the intent to deploy the OC spray if the subject does not comply with your commands.
2. Officer shall give the subject a reasonable opportunity to voluntarily comply.

Approved and Disapproved use:

Answer 42

Approved Use:

1. OC spray will be used only in accordance with policy and department training.
2. OC spray may be used when the subject is engaging or displays the intent to engage in aggressive resistive behavior which may cause injury.
3. OC spray may be used on vicious or aggressive animals when those animals interfere with the safety of the officers or citizens.
4. OC spray may only be used in a protest or demonstration situation when authorized by an Incident Commander in response to imminent threat of harm.
5. Correction officers will follow their standard operating procedures regarding the use of OC spray.

Disapproved Use:

1. Shall not be used on a subject inside a closed vehicle, unless an officer is attempting to secure an aggressive resistance suspect in a patrol vehicle. OC is not intended to be used to force extraction from an enclosed area, unless utilized in a detention facility.
2. Shall not be used on passive resistance protesters.
3. Shall not be used other than as an aerosol/stream.
4. Shall not be used on a handcuffed subject unless the subject is displaying Aggressive Resistance.

Post Use of Force Procedures:

1. An officer using OC spray will:
   a. Request medical attention to the scene, as soon as possible, to wash and treat affected skin/eye area whenever a subject is directly exposed to OC spray in the facial area, or to treat any underlying condition that could be aggravated by the OC spray.
   b. Inform detention personnel during the booking process of prisoner exposure to OC spray.
   c. Take prisoner to the nurses station.
   d. Use of this tool is reportable and will be reported by completing a Use of Force Report in Blue Team.
2. A civilian department member using OC spray on-duty will:
   a. Request medical attention to the scene to wash and treat affected skin/eye area whenever a subject is directly exposed to OC spray in the facial area, or to treat any underlying condition that could be aggravated by the OC spray.
   b. Request a field unit to respond and notify immediate supervisor.
   c. Field unit personnel responding to civilian use of OC spray will:
3. Take appropriate enforcement action.
4. Assist the civilian in completing the appropriate paperwork, including a Use of Force Report.
5. Inform detention personnel during booking process of prisoner exposure to OC spray.
6. Take prisoner to the medical section.

Question 43

LVNR:

What are the three levels to applying the LVNR?

Answer 43

1. Low Level Force LVNR - Level One - minimum restraint.
2. Intermediate Force LVNR - Level Two - medium restraint.
3. Intermediate Force LVNR - Level Three - maximum restraint.

Question 44

LVNR:

What is the recertification requirements for officers certified in the LVNR?

Answer 44

An annual 4 hour recertification course.

Question 45

LVNR:

Any officer requesting an exemption from LVNR training due to medical reasons must:

Answer 45

Obtain a medical exemption from their physician.

Question 46

LVNR:

What is the approved use of the LVNR:

Answer 46

1. This tool will be used only in accordance with policy and department training.
2. The LVNR is a defensive tactic to quickly and safely stop active/aggressive resistance.

Question 47

LVNR:

What is the disapproved use of the LVNR:

Answer 47

1. Will not be used on subjects that have been exposed to OC spray or who are experiencing difficulty breathing.
2. Officers will not use any other arm bar technique that involves a neck restraint.

Question 48

LVNR:

What is the post Use of Force procedures:

Answer 48

1. All uses of the LVNR will be reported by completing a Use of Force Report in Blue Team.
2. The arresting or transporting officer will:
   a. Notify his immediate supervisor when the LVNR is attempted or used.
   b. Summon medical attention immediately when the subject is rendered unconscious, injured or claims injury as a result of the LVNR.
   c. Transport prisoner to the appropriate detention facility.
   d. Inform the detention facility on-duty supervisor that the LVNR has been applied earlier to the subject.

Question 49

ECD:

Who must obtain ECD certification training?

Answer 49

All commissioned personnel at the rank of Lieutenant and below must obtain ECD certification training.

All Sergeants and below must carry the ECD when in an improved LVMPD uniform, excluding New Year’s Eve, 9/11 or any other special events as stated in the IAP for the event.

Question 50

ECD:

What is the Level of Control for the ECD use?

Answer 50

Intermediate Force.

Question 51

ECD:

How long can an ECD equipped with a video camera and audio recording device record for?

Answer 51

Up to 90 minutes.

Question 52

ECD:

The ECD is a an NMI device that disrupts the body’s ability to communicate messages from the brain to the muscles thereby causing temporary NMI.

What does an NMI stand for?

Answer 52

Neuro-Muscular Incapacitation

Question 53

ECD:

Once certified, officers must attend what kind of recertification training on the ECD?

Answer 53

An annual 4 hour recertification training.

Question 54

ECD:

The battery display will be checked on the CID at the beginning of each shift.

A reading of what % or less will require the battery pack to be changed?

Answer 54

20% or less.

Question 55

ECD:

The battery pack will not be removed from the ECD’s except when the reading is 20% or less or to conduct a data download.

True or False?

Answer 55

True.

Question 56

ECD:

When must officers conduct a spark check, outside the public view, to ensure the ECD will function properly?

Answer 56

At the beginning of every shift.

Question 57

ECD:

What are the ECD deployment requirements?

Answer 57

1. When displaying an ECD, officers will give a warning, when practical, to the subject and other officers before firing the ECD.
2. Officer shall give the subject a reasonable opportunity to voluntarily comply.

Question 58

ECD:

What is the approved use of the ECD?

Answer 58

1. This tool will be used only in accordance with policy and department training.
2. The ECD is an Intermediate Level of Control and may be used when there is an imminent threat of physical harm.

Question 59

ECD:

Officers are not authorized to draw or display the ECD except for?

Answer 59

Training and inspection, unless the circumstances create a reasonable belief that the use may be necessary.

Question 60

ECD:

The ECD will be handled in the same manner as a firearm and will be secured prior to entering any detention facility.

True or False?

Answer 60

True.

Question 61

ECD:

The intentional use of more than one ECD simultaneously on the same subject is prohibited.

True or False?

Answer 61

True.

Question 62

ECD:

The ECD WILL NOT be used:

Answer 62

1. When the officer knows a subject has come in contact with flammable liquids or is in a flammable atmosphere.
2. When the subject is in a position where a fall may cause injury or death.
3. Punitively for purposes of coercion or in an unjustified manner.
4. To escort or jab individuals.
5. To awaken unconscious or intoxicated individuals.
6. When the subject is visibly pregnant, unless deadly force is the only other option.
7. When the subject is in handcuffs or waste restraints.
8. When a subject displays solely Passive or Active Resistance (i.e. peaceful protest, refusal to stand, non-aggressive verbal resistance, etc.).
9. When a subject is fleeing as the sole justification for the use of the ECD.

Question 63

ECD:

The ECD should not be used in the following circumstances unless there are compelling reasons to do so which can be clearly articulated:

Answer 63

1. When the subject is operating a motor vehicle.
2. When the subject is holding a firearm.
3. When the subject is at the extremes of age (elderly and young children) or physically disabled.
4. In a situation where deadly force is clearly justifiable unless another officer is present and capable of providing deadly force to protect the officers and/or others as necessary.

Question 64

ECD:

What are the three types of reportable ECD applications:

Answer 64

1. Spark Display - A non-contact demonstration of the ECD’s ability to discharge electricity.
2. Touch Stun - (without a cartridge) - A secondary function of the ECD intended to administer pain to a subject by making direct contact with the body after the air cartridge has been expended or removed. NOTE: Use of the ECD in this mode is discouraged.
3. Probe Mode - When the ECD is fired and both probes make contact with a subject with the intent that the subject be temporarily immobilized for the period of time the ECD is cycled. Proper application will result in temporary immobilization of the subject and provide the officer a “window of opportunity” in which to take the subject safely into custody.

Question 65

ECD:

For a frontal shot, reasonable effort should be made to target lower center mass and avoid intentionally targeting:

Answer 65

The head, neck, groin and chest.

It is recognized that the dynamics of each situation and officer safety may not permit the officer to limit the application of the ECD probes to a precise target area.

Back shots are the preferred target area when practical.

Question 66

ECD:

What are some medical considerations when deploying the ECD:

Answer 66

Personnel should be aware that there is a higher risk of sudden death in subjects under the influence of drugs and/or exhibiting symptoms associated with excited delirium.

In addition, positional asphyxia - a death that occurs when he subject’s body position interferes with breathing, either when the chest is restricted from expanding properly or when the position of the subject’s head obstructs the airway - may exacerbate the condition of any individual who has received an ECD application.

Question 67

ECD:

When encountering subjects wearing heavy or loose clothing on the upper body, the officers will consider the _______ as a target.

Answer 67

Legs.

Question 68

ECD:

Initial use of the ECD shall be a standard five-second cycle, and then the officer will evaluate the need to apply a second five-second cycle after providing the subject a reasonable opportunity to comply.

Each subsequent five-second cycle require separate justification.

Once the subject has been exposed to three cycles, the ECD shall be deemed ineffective and another use of force option will be considered, unless exigent circumstances exist.

True or False?

Answer 68

True.

Question 69

ECD:

The officer will assess the suspect’s actions after each application of the ECD.

True or False?

Answer 69

True.

Question 70

ECD:

When deploying an ECD, officers will control and restrain immediately. Begin control and restraint procedures, including cuffing under power, as soon as is reasonably safe and practical to do so in order to minimize the total duration of ECD exposure(s).

The device user, and those assisting the user, should avoid touching the probes, wires, and the areas between the probes to avoid accidental shock during the electrical discharge.

True or False?

Answer 70

True.

Question 71

ECD:

The use of the _____ _____ Mode Should only be used to supplement Probe Mode to complete the NMI effect.

Answer 71

Touch Stun

Question 72

ECD:

The ECD Touch Stun Mode requires the same level of justification as Probe deployment. Each Touch Stun must be separately justified and documented on the Use of Force Report.

True or False?

Answer 72

True.

Question 73

ECD:

All ECD activations are reportable use of force with the exception of:

Answer 73

A spark check.

Question 74

ECD:

Will unintentional activations be reported on an Officer’s Report?

Answer 74

Yes.

Question 75

ECD:

Following an ECD deployment, the officer will:

Answer 75

1. Notify immediate supervisors that an ECD has been used as soon as reasonably possible after deployment. Summon medical attention when subject is injured or claims injury.
2. Ensure the probes are removed from the subject’s skin by an ECD certified officer. If one or more probes strike the head, neck, or groin, officers. shall take prompt care to monitor the condition of the subject and ensure probes penetrating these areas are removed by medical personnel.
3. Handle the probes in the same manner as contaminated needles and sharps in accordance with department bio-hazard disposal procedures, and impound all probes, wires and cartridges as evidence. In cases of deadly force or in custody death, CSI will impound the probes.
4. Present deployed ECD to supervisor for data upload prior to end of shift, if a reportable use of force incident occurred.
5. Notify detention personnel, at the time of booking, that the subject has been struck with ECD probes or received a touch stun.

Question 76

ECD:

Following an ECD deployment, the officer’s supervisor will:

Answer 76

1. Respond to the scene when an ECD has been used and notify the area Lieutenant and/or Watch Commander that ECD has been used.
2. Conduct an investigation of the ECD usage to determine justification and adherence to procedure, as well as to correct any identifiable training deficiencies. (NOTE: Acting supervisors are not authorized to complete this investigation).
3. Assist with the completion of the Use of Force Report in Blue Team as necessary.
4. Ensure the data record of the ECD and/or the video in which a reportable use of force incident occurs into Blue Team prior to the end of the shift. (X26 uploads must be attached in either a PDF or RTF format).
5. Ensure photographs are taken of the site of the puncture/probe impacts and any related injuries. Attach the photos to the Use of Force Report in Blue Team.
6. Verify the probes, wires and cartridges are properly impounded and arrange for replacement cartridges. Accidental discharges will not require impounding of the probes, wires and cartridges unless there has been an injury.

Question 77

ECD:

Who WILL respond to the scene If serious bodily injury resulted from the use of the ECD?

Answer 77

The area Lieutenant/Watch Commander.

Question 78

ECD:

After an officer fires any ECD with a camera, the video evidence must be uploaded by the officer’s supervisor into Blue Team prior to the end of the shift (X26 uploads must be attached in either a PDF or RTF format).

The supervisor will also upload video that did not result in the officer firing the ECD if the video has sufficient evidentiary value, and attach an event number.

True or False?

Answer 78

True.

Question 79

Low Lethality Shotgun:

What is the Level of Control for Low Lethality Shotguns?

Answer 79

Intermediate Force - When fired at a distance of 5 yards or greater.

Deadly Force - When fired at a distance less than 5 yards.

Question 80

Low Lethality Shotgun:

Officers must re-qualify ________ with the Low Lethality Shotgun.

Answer 80

Annually.

Question 81

Low Lethality Shotgun:

Officers will inspect their Low Lethality Shotgun prior to the start of each shift to verify that it is only loaded with department issued low lethality munitions.

True or False?

Answer 81

True.

Question 82

Low Lethality Shotgun:

What is the Deployment Requirement for a Low Lethality Shotgun?

Answer 82

1. Prior to firing a low lethality shotgun, when feasible, the officer will announce a warning to the subject and other officers of the intent to deploy the low lethality shotgun if the subject does not comply with commands.
   For example, “Police! Do what I am telling you to do, or I will shoot you with a bean bag, and it will hurt.”
2. Officer shall give the subject a reasonable opportunity to voluntarily comply.
3. Two officers must be present if a low lethality shotgun is deployed.

Question 83

Low Lethality Shotgun:

What is the approved use of the Low Lethality Shotgun?

Answer 83

1. This tool will be used only in accordance with policy and department training.
2. The low lethality shotgun should only be used against persons who are armed with a weapon that could cause serious injury or death to themselves or others, or when a subject poses an imminent threat to the safety of the officer or other persons. This includes, but is not limited to: an edged weapon, club, pipe, bottle, brick, etc.
3. Officers are cautioned that the target area for impact munitions substantially differs from a deadly force target area. Instead of aiming for center mass of the body, the low lethality shotgun is aimed at abdomen, thighs or forearms. The head, neck, and groin should be avoided.
4. It may be used as an option to deadly force only when circumstances allow the officer involved to bring an incident to a safe conclusion without unnecessary risk to the officers.

Question 84

Low Lethality Shotgun:

The Low Lethality Shotgun WILL NOT be used in the following circumstances:

Answer 84

1. Against persons who are holding a firearm unless there are compelling reasons to do so which can be clearly articulated.
2. In a civil unrest situation unless authorized by a lieutenant or above, and each application must have a specific targeted individual who presents an imminent threat; and it must be reasonably assured that other individuals in the crowd who pose no threat of violence will not be struck by the munitions.
3. When the subject is visibly pregnant, unless deadly force is the only other option.

Question 85

Low Lethality Shotgun:

The Low Lethality Shotgun SHOULD NOT be used in the following circumstances unless there are compelling reasons to do so which can be clearly articulated:

Answer 85

1. When the subject is at the extremes of age (elderly and young children) or physically disabled;
2. When a suspect is in an elevated position where a fall is likely to cause serious injury or death;
3. When subject is handcuffed or otherwise restrained;
4. As a breeching tool.

Question 86

Low Lethality Shotgun:

What is a tactical consideration when firing the Low Lethality Shotgun?

Answer 86

Officers should not fire the low lethality shotgun through mediums, such as glass or chain link fences, because the bag may tear and lead shot may be released.

Question 87

Low Lethality Shotgun:

In Use of Force incidents involving the Low Lethality Shotgun, the area supervisor will?

Answer 87

1. Proceed immediately to the incident involving the low lethality shotgun deployment and assume tactical control;
2. Ensure that low lethality shotgun deployment is appropriate for the incident;
3. If low lethality shotgun deployment is inappropriate for the incident, modify or countermand deployment.

Question 88

Low Lethality Shotgun:

After firing the low lethality shotgun, an officer must immediately notify his supervisor and summon medical attention for the subject.

True or False?

Answer 88

True.

Question 89

Low Lethality Shotgun:

If a deadly force incident has occurred, the ____________ will notify dispatch, and request appropriate notifications be made.

Answer 89

Area Supervisor.

Question 90

Low Lethality Shotgun:

The _____________ will respond when a subject has been struck with the low lethality shotgun projectile, and conduct a preliminary interview with the officer to determine who will investigate the use of force.

Answer 90

Area/Watch Commander.

Question 91

Low Lethality Shotgun:

If the low lethality shotgun was fired at a distance of closer than 5 yards, the incident shall be investigated as a deadly force incident and require a ______ and ______ response.

Answer 91

FIT and CIRT response.

Question 92

Low Lethality Shotgun:

If the distance is determined to be 5 yards or greater, the supervisor will conduct the use of force investigation, and ensure a crime scene analyst responds.

True or False?

Answer 92

True.

Question 93

Low Lethality Shotgun:

In a post use of force involving the low lethality shotgun, the supervisor will document the scene and situation, and conduct interviews with other witnesses, if any. The documentation will be entered into Blue Team by?

Answer 93

The involved officer.

Question 94

Low Lethality Shotgun:

In a post use of force involving the low lethality shotgun, the officer will advise detention facility supervisor at the time of booking that the subject has been struck with the low lethality shotgun projectile and what medical attention has been administered to the subject.

Answer 94

True.

Question 95

Use of Canine:

What is the Level of Control?

Answer 95

Low Level - No bites.

Intermediate Level - With Bites.

Question 96

Use of Canine:

What is the requirement for deploying K-9?

Answer 96

K9 teams can be requested through Communications, 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.

Question 97

Use of Canine:

If a K-9 team is needed to be called out, who needs to make the approval for the call out?

Answer 97

The Section Lieutenant or his designee.

Question 98

Use of Canine:

LVMPD’s police canine provides many valuable services, including:

Answer 98

Searches and criminal apprehension, evidence and contraband searches and detection, locating missing persons, and public relations activities.

Question 99

Use of Canine:

K-9 may be used in searches for misdemeanor suspects when?

Answer 99

The dog is maintained on a leash.

Question 100

Use of Canine:

Canine is approved when?

Answer 100

There is probable cause to believe the suspect has committed a crime or is a danger to themselves or others, and when the suspect is actively evading efforts to take them into custody and the use of a canine would reduce risk to officers or the public.

Question 101

Use of Canine:

The use of canines in crowd control is highly discouraged, and this tactic will only be employed in accordance with policy 2/113.01, Use of Police Dogs, with the approval of a __________ or above.

Answer 101

Lieutenant.

Question 102

Use of Canine:

What are the tactical considerations?

Answer 102

1. In police operations, canine handlers are in charge and responsible for their dogs’ deployment.
2. When it is believed a suspect may be armed with a weapon likely to cause injury or death to the police service dog, the handler may exercise his/her discretion before deploying the dog.
3. Risk to Third Parties: In using police service dogs, the canine handler shall exercise reasonable care to avoid unnecessary risk of injury to persons who are not the subject of a search or apprehension.

Question 103

Use of Canine:

What are the post Use of Force procedures?

Answer 103

1. The use of force scene will be immediately secured.
2. The canine officer/handler will immediately request medical assistance for any person who is injured or complains of injury.
3. The injuries will be photographed.
4. The incident will be documented on a Use of Force Report.
5. All uses of force by a K-9 handler team will be immediately investigated by the employee’s immediate supervisor or another K-9 Detail supervisor. This investigation will include interviews of the witnesses and the suspect, if appropriate, and if the interview will not compromise any criminal investigation.
6. Injuries caused by the police service dog to persons who were not the subject of the search will be documented in an Officer’s Report, and will require a supervisor response.

Question 104

Precision Intervention Technique (P.I.T.):

What is the Level of Control for P.I.T.?

Answer 104

Intermediate Force - PIT may be used to apprehend violators at speeds 40mph or below.

Deadly Force - PIT is considered deadly use of force in the following instances:

1. At speeds of more than 40mph;
2. When used on motorcycles;
3. When used to stop a vehicle with deflated tires;
4. When used on high center of gravity vehicles likely to roll over, such as vans, SUVs, and jeeps;
5. In circumstances creating a substantial risk of death or serious bodily injury.

Question 105

Precision Intervention Technique (P.I.T.):

What is the requirement for deploying the P.I.T.??

Answer 105

1. Prior to initiating a PIT, officers will use their emergency equipment (red lights and sirens) and will give the operator of the suspect vehicle a reasonable opportunity to stop.
2. Officers will broadcast through dispatch the intent to use PIT if circumstances permit. Otherwise, notification will be made after the fact.

Question 106

Precision Intervention Technique (P.I.T.):

Circumstances warranting the use of P.I.T. as deadly force are as follows:

Answer 106

1. Continued movement of the pursued vehicle would place others in danger of serious bodily injury or death; and/or
2. Apparent risk of harm, to other than the occupants of the pursued vehicle, is so great as to outweigh the risk of harm in making the forcible stop; and
3. Other means of apprehension have been considered and rejected as impractical, i.e., continue to follow, stop sticks, call for the air unit.

Question 107

Precision Intervention Technique (P.I.T.):

What are the disapproved use?

Answer 107

1. PIT will not be used unless the suspect demonstrates he/she is attempting to evade police and the elements necessary for an approved Vehicular Pursuit (6/014.00) are present (i.e., violent felony offense or suspect presents a clear and immediate danger to the public).
2. Officers driving department truck or SUV-type vehicles are not authorized to use PIT.

Question 108

Precision Intervention Technique (P.I.T.):

Officers will consider the safety of the public and suspects before executing this technique. The following locations and hazards should be evaluated:

Answer 108

1. Areas with pedestrians;.
2. Other vehicle traffic;
3. Parked vehicles;
4. Telephone/utility poles;
5. Bridges;
6. Areas adjacent to paved roads with a large elevation change.

Question 109

Precision Intervention Technique (P.I.T.):

What are the supervisor’s responsibilities?

Answer 109

1. Immediately acknowledge notification over the radio, and assume responsibility for controlling PIT;
2. Order discontinuation of the PIT when the necessity for apprehension is outweighed by the dangers of the PIT;
3. Consider use of other options.

Question 110

Precision Intervention Technique (P.I.T.):

Where there is contact with another vehicle, the incident will be investigated as either an accident or a Use of Force.

True or False?

Answer 110

True.

Question 111

Precision Intervention Technique (P.I.T.):

1. PIT (successful uses, attempts and/or declared uses) is considered reportable force and must be reported by completing the Use of Force Report in Blue Team.

True or False?

Answer 111

True.

A Pursuit Report in Blue Team will also be completed when the PIT was used during a pursuit;

Question 112

Precision Intervention Technique (P.I.T.):

The field supervisors shall respond to the PIT location and assume responsibility for the scene ensuring all applicable reports are completed and required notifications made.

True or False?

Answer 112

True.

Question 113

Precision Intervention Technique (P.I.T.):

Traffic officers shall respond to assist with the traffic investigation. Since PIT is a planned enforcement technique, is an accident report required?

Answer 113

No, the accident report is not required.

Question 114

Precision Intervention Technique (P.I.T.):

The on duty supervisor shall review the PIT to determine if procedures were followed. They will forward the report up through their chain to the bureau/area commander for review, and initiate any necessary corrective actions.

True or False?

Answer 114

True

Question 115

Precision Intervention Technique (P.I.T.):

If a vehicle belonging to an uninvolved citizen is damaged, the Watch Commander will respond to:

Answer 115

1. Offer the citizen alternative transportation, if available and necessary;
2. Offer to tow the damaged vehicle at department expense using the duty service to an LVMPD contract repair facility, or if the citizen insists, to a facility of the citizen’s choice, for repair/replacement at the earliest opportunity.
3. Inform Risk Management, via Communications, of the damage and location where the vehicle will be towed. Risk Management will determine if a response is necessary.
4. Instruct the citizen to contact Risk Management the next work day.

Question 116

Blocking:

What is the Level of Control for Blocking?

Answer 116

Low Level Force.

Question 117

Blocking:

Define Blocking?

Answer 117

Blocking is the positioning of a police vehicle in the path of a suspect vehicle where contact between the vehicles is not anticipated or is anticipated to be minimal. In circumstances where the officer initiates contact it is a reportable use of force. In the use of blocking, the potential for injuries and vehicle damages are low. If the suspect initiates contact, the incident will be investigated as an incident.

Question 118

Blocking:

What is the approved use for Blocking?

Answer 118

1. This tactic will be used only in accordance with policy.
2. The intent of blocking is to prevent the escape of a suspect by utilizing a vehicle to block the path of the suspect vehicle when contact is not anticipated or probable.

Question 119

Blocking:

Officers will consider the safety of the public and suspects before executing this technique. The following locations and hazards should be evaluated:

Answer 119

1. Seriousness of the crime;
2. The number of suspects;
3. If the suspect(s) are known to have weapons;
4. The potential of the suspect using their vehicle as a weapon;
5. The potential tactical disadvantage due to the close proximity of the suspect;
6. The potential for creating a crossfire situation.

Question 120

Blocking:

Blocking is a reportable whenever contact is made between vehicles.

True or False?

Answer 120

True.

Question 121

Blocking:

If the officer initiates contact with the suspect vehicle with his patrol vehicle the contact will be reported as a Use of Force in Blue Team.

If the suspect vehicle is unoccupied, contact will be reported as a _________ __________.

Answer 121

Vehicle Incident.

Question 122

Blocking:

If the suspect vehicle unintentionally touches the patrol vehicle, the contact will be reported as a ________ _________.

Answer 122

Traffic Incident.

Question 123

Blocking:

If the suspect intentionally strikes the patrol vehicle while it is occupied, the contact will be investigated as a ________ ________.

Answer 123

Potential Crime.

Question 124

Stationary Vehicle Immobilization Technique (Pinching):

What is the Level of Control?

Answer 124

Low Level Force.

Question 125

Stationary Vehicle Immobilization Technique (Pinching):

Define Pinching?

Answer 125

Pinching is a pre-planned containment tactic that uses low-speed, intentional vehicle contact with a suspect’s vehicle. This tactic is limited for use by specialized units with Bureau Commander’s approval and training. The purpose is to render a vehicle immobile so that suspects can be taken into custody. Patrol officers may use a blocking technique.

Question 126

Stationary Vehicle Immobilization Technique (Pinching):

What is the Certification/POST Requirement to utilize the Pinching technique?

Answer 126

1. Personnel assigned to an approved unit intending to use this technique for a preplanned apprehension, must re-certify each year by attending EVOC training in conjunction with PIT training.
2. Approval necessary for specialized units to train in and use this technique must be given by the specialized unit’s bureau commander, and the ODB commander.
3. Training records for personnel certified in this technique will be maintained by the Training Section of ODB.

Question 127

Stationary Vehicle Immobilization Technique (Pinching):

What is the deployment requirement for Pinching?

Answer 127

The officer has a reasonable belief that the suspect has committed a crime and has been attempting to evade, or has the potential to harm themselves or others.

Question 128

Stationary Vehicle Immobilization Technique (Pinching):

This pre-planned tactic is not approved for use by Patrol.

True or False?

Answer 128

True.

Question 129

Stationary Vehicle Immobilization Technique (Pinching):

This tactic will be used only in accordance with policy and department training:

Answer 129

1. Pinching may be used as an apprehension technique when it is necessary and reasonable to do so under the circumstances.
2. It is authorized for specialized units who have gathered intelligence information on a specific suspect(s), and can articulate the need for the application of the technique based on the suspects’ potential for violence, and the need to prevent a vehicular pursuit.

Question 130

Stationary Vehicle Immobilization Technique (Pinching):

Officers will consider the safety of the public and suspects before executing this technique. The following locations and hazards should be evaluated:

Answer 130

1. Seriousness of the crime;
2. The number of suspects;
3. If the suspect(s) are known to have weapons;
4. The potential of the suspect using their vehicle as a weapon;
5. The potential tactical disadvantage due to the close proximity of the suspect;
6. The potential for creating a crossfire situation;
7. The size/weight of the suspect vehicle compared to the police vehicle.

Question 131

Stationary Vehicle Immobilization Technique (Pinching):

What is the supervisory responsibility?

Answer 131

1. Supervisors assigned to units authorized to use this technique will ensure all personnel operating LVMPD vehicles in a Stationary Vehicle Immobilization employment are current on annual certifications.
2. Order discontinuation of the pinch when the necessity for apprehension is outweighed by the dangers of the pinch.
3. Ensure this is the best tactic and that other reasonable options have been considered.

Question 132

Stationary Vehicle Immobilization Technique (Pinching):

The Pinching Technique is not considered an accident.

True or False?

Answer 132

True.

Question 133

Firearm Use:

What is the Level of Control?

Answer 133

Deadly Force - Shots fired.

Question 134

Firearm Use:

What is the approved use of a firearm?

Answer 134

1. This tool will be used only in accordance with policy and department training.
2. Officers are to fire their weapons only to stop and incapacitate an assailant from completing a potentially deadly act. Officers should shoot at the “center mass” for maximum stopping effectiveness and minimal danger to innocent bystanders.
3. Protect the officer or others from what is reasonably believed to be an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury.
4. Prevent the escape of a fleeing felon who the officer has probable cause to believe has committed a violent felony crime and is an imminent threat to human life if escape should occur (See NRS 171.1455 and Tennessee v. Garner, 471 U.S. 1(1985)).
5. Destroying Injured or Dangerous Animals - Officers may destroy an injured or dangerous animal under the following circumstances:
   a. In self-defense;
   b. To prevent serious harm to the officer or others; or
   c. When the animal is so badly injured as to require humane relief from further suffering.

Question 135

Firearm Use:

A seriously wounded or injured animal may be destroyed only after all attempts have been made to request assistance from the agency (Humane Society, animal control, game warden, etc.) responsible for the disposal of animals.

The destruction of vicious animals involves the same rules set forth for self-defense and the defense and safety of others. (See policy 5/109.08 for an exception regarding the Humane Disposal of Animals at Resident Locations.)

Also, if the animal’s owner is present, the owner will be allowed, at his option, to transport the animal to veterinary care.

True or False?

Answer 135

True.

Question 136

Firearm Use:

Officers are not authorized to draw or display their firearms, except for training at an approved firearms range, unless the circumstances create reasonable belief that it may be necessary to use the firearm in the performance of their duty.

True or False?

Answer 136

True.

Question 137

Firearm Use:

Officers are not authorized to discharge their firearm:

Answer 137

1. As warning shots;
2. If it appears likely that an innocent person may be injured;
3. Either at or from a moving vehicle, unless it is absolutely necessary to do so to protect against imminent threat to the life of the officer or others. The imminent threat must be by means other than the vehicle, itself:
   a. Officers will attempt to move out of the path of an oncoming vehicle, if possible, rather than discharge their firearms;
   b. Officers will not intentionally place themselves in the path of an oncoming vehicle and attempt to disable the vehicle by discharging their firearms;
   c. Officers will not discharge their firearms at a fleeing vehicle (a vehicle moving away from the officer) or its driver.

Question 138

Firearm Use:

An officer’s decision to draw or exhibit a firearm should be based on the tactical situation at hand and the officer’s ________ _________ there is a substantial risk that the situation will escalate to the point where deadly force may be justified.

Unnecessarily drawing or exhibiting a firearm may limit an officer’s alternatives in controlling a situation, create unnecessary anxiety on the part of citizens, and result in an unwarranted or accidental discharge of the firearm.

Answer 138

Reasonable Belief

Question 139

Firearm Use:

Officers are to fire their weapons only to _______ and ________ an assailant from completing a potentially deadly act or causing serious bodily injury.

Answer 139

Stop and Incapacitate

Question 140

Firearm Use:

Officers should shoot at the _______ _______ for maximum stopping effectiveness and minimal danger to innocent bystanders.

Answer 140

“Center Mass”

Question 141

Firearm Use:

Flashlights mounted to firearms will be used only for the purposes authorized and intended and will not be used routinely in the place of a hand-held flashlight.

True or False?

Answer 141

True.

Question 142

Deployment of Rifles:

What is the Level of Control?

Answer 142

Deadly Force - Shots fired.

Question 143

Deployment of Rifles:

If there is a potential for deadly force an officer may deem an approved rifle is appropriate based on distance, available cover, and tactical situation presented.

It is important for an officer to understand terminal ballistic capabilities and limitations of the rifle to be deployed.

True or False?

Answer 143

True.

Question 144

Deployment of Rifles:

It is incumbent on the officer to use discretion when deploying and displaying the rifle, and to only deploy the rifle when the situation dictates.

The officer must be aware of the number of rifles already deployed.

True or False?

Answer 144

True.

Question 145

Deployment of Rifles:

Officers deploying rifles WILL:

Answer 145

1. Announce intent to deploy the rifle via the radio and receive an acknowledgment from dispatch;
2. Whenever possible, deploy the rifle using a two-officer team consisting of a single rifle carrier supported by a cover officer to ensure security of the scene;
3. Advise dispatch, via the radio, of deployment location and update dispatch and others assigned to the event whenever deployment location changes, thus providing situational awareness to all personnel on-scene of location of deployed rifle(s);
4. Advise dispatch, via the radio, of whether or not deploying officer is accompanied by a cover officer.

Question 146

Deployment of Rifles:

Communications will re-broadcast that a rifle has been deployed and notify the ______ _______ of the deployment.

Answer 146

Area Supervisor.

Question 147

Deployment of Rifles:

It is the supervisor’s responsibility to ensure proper deployment of rifles and address over-deployment.

The Area Supervisor WILL:

Answer 147

1. Proceed immediately to the incident involving the rifle deployment and assume tactical control, when possible;
2. Ensure that rifle deployment is appropriate for the incident;
3. If rifle deployment is inappropriate for the incident, modify or countermand deployment.

Question 148

Deployment of Rifles:

Upon completion of the incident the deploying officer’s supervisor will ensure that officer(s) who deployed a rifle complete a rifle deployment report via Blue Team.

True or False?

Answer 148

True.

Question 149

Deployment of Rifles:

The Rifle Deployment Report in Blue Team will detail the following:

Answer 149

1. Details of the incident;

2. Justification for the rifle deployment, including the nature of the threat resulting in decision to deploy rifle.

Question 150

Deployment of Rifles:

When multiple officers deploy rifles at a single incident, the sergeant should designate one of the officers to complete the Rifle Deployment Report, listing all officers that deployed a rifle as ______ ______ in the report.

Answer 150

“Involved Officers”

Question 151

Deployment of Rifles:

Rifle Deployment Reports are not required when a rifle(s) is deployed as part of training or a tactical drill exercise (i.e., MACTAC tests).

True or False?

Answer 151

True.

Question 152

Deployment of Rifles:

Who is exempt from rifle deployment reporting procedures.

Answer 152

SWAT.

Question 153

Deployment of Rifles:

Supervisor of the deploying rifle officer WILL:

Answer 153

1. Conduct a review of the deployment and make appropriate comments in the Rifle Deployment Report in Blue Team, to include any supervisory decisions countermanding or modifying original deployment;
2. Forward the report to the supervising Lieutenant for review;

Question 154

Reportable Force Incidents:

Reportable force incidents which require the completion of a Use of Force Report in Blue Team include, but are not limited to:

Answer 154

1. Empty Hand Tactics (Takedown with injury, Strikes, Kicks)
2. Baton/Impact Weapons (Jabs, Strikes)
3. OC Spray
4. ECD (To include spark display)
5. LVNR® (Level 1, 2 and 3)
6. K-9 (With bites)
7. Blocking (With intentional contact)
8. Stationary Vehicle Immobilization Technique (Pinching - With contact between vehicles)
9. P.I.T. (Used or attempted)
10. Ramming
11. Low Lethality Shotgun
12. Firearm Use (Shots fired - outside the firearm’s range, excluding off-duty situations such as hunting or participating in competitive shooting)
13. Deployment of Rifles (Excluding SWAT/SERT)

Question 155

Reportable Force Incidents:

Supervisors will respond without necessary delay to all potential reportable uses of force.
True or False?

Answer 155

True.