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Policies Flashcards

1
Q

Deadly force is defined as: Force reasonably anticipated or intended to create _____________ likelihood of causing death or very serious injury

A

Substantial

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2
Q

Definition of feasible: ____________ ___________ of being done or carried out under the circumstances without increasing risk to the officer or another

A

Reasonably capable

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3
Q

Definition of Imminent

A

Ready to take place, or impending

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4
Q

When using force, officers shall use only the amount of force that appears _____________ _____________ to accomplish a legitimate law enforcement purpose

A

Reasonably necessary

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5
Q

Use of the carotid control hold is justified only when:

A

Deadly force is authorized

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6
Q

What is another name for a respiratory restraint?

A

Chokehold

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7
Q

Deadly force is authorized when there is a(n) ____________ threat or risk

A

Imminent

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8
Q

Supervisors should respond to all use of force scenes when there are:

A

Visible injuries

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9
Q

The use of force review board consists of what 5 people?

A

Admin LT
Ops LT
One Sgt
Sworn officer from different agency
One Patrolman, including detectives

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10
Q

Who is the chairperson of the use of force review board?

A

Operations Lieutenant

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11
Q

Restraints on a pregnant person after booking should only be used in:

A

Extraordinary circumstances

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12
Q

Restraint of juveniles under 14 is only appropriate when:

A

Committed a felony
Reasonable suspicion of escape, resist, or causing injury

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13
Q

What 3 items must be collected as evidence after a TASER deployment:

A

Cartridge
Wires
Confetti tags

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14
Q

Is a report necessary when a TASER device is pointed at someone, but not fired?

A

Yes

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15
Q

What are the 4 types of investigations after an officer involved shooting?

A

Criminal invest into suspect
Criminal invest into officer
Admin invest into policy compliance
Civil invest to determine liabilty

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16
Q

Upon arriving to the scene of an officer involved shooting, the first supervisor on scene should obtain a brief overview from:

A

An uninvolved officer

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17
Q

At the scene of an officer involved shooting, if an uninvolved officer is unavailable, the supervisor should attempt to get a brief overview from:

A

One involved officer

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18
Q

After an officer involved shooting, findings from the administrative investigation are submitted to the:

A

Use of Force Review Board

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19
Q

Can officers view body and dash cams prior to reports and investigations after an officer involved shooting?

A

Yes

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20
Q

Which two firearms are the only two approved by the department for use?

A

Glock 17
Glock 19

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21
Q

Patrol rifles may be deployed with articulable _____________ _____________ that they may be needed

A

Reasonable expectation

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22
Q
A
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23
Q

What are the two most important factors for a successful conclusion of a vehicle pursuit?

A

Proper self-discipline
Sound professional judgment

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24
Q

What is the definition of blocking, otherwise known as a vehicle intercept?

A

Slow speed coordinated maneuver initiated before a traffic stop

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25
Conduct in a vehicle pursuit must be?
Objectively reasonable
26
After the loss of a vehicle during a vehicle pursuit, who is responsible for coordinating the search for the vehicle and individual?
The primary unit involved in the pursuit
27
The blocking or vehicle intercept tactic should only be used for:
Felony suspects Impaired drivers
28
Roadblocks can only be used in:
Exigent circumstances
29
Emergency responses are to be made to calls where there are risks of ________ ________ to citizens
Serious harm
30
What kinds of calls are considered the highest priority response for officers?
Domestic violence
31
In domestic violence cases, any decision to not arrest when there is reasonable cause requires what:
Supervisor approval
32
Minimum number of "yes" responses on the DA-LE form to be considered high risk
7
33
Definition of juvenile non-offender:
Juvenile held for his/her own safety, or to be reunited with parents
34
Juveniles in custody for curfew violations and minor misdemeanors are considered what class of offender for custody purposes:
Non-offenders
35
Definition of juvenile offender:
Under 18, subject to arrestable adult offense, or possession of a handgun
36
Can juveniles in non-secure custody be handcuffed?
Yes, but not to a stationary object
37
What is always required regarding juveniles in non-secure custody?
Personal monitoring, not audio/video
38
Placing a juvenile in the locked booking room is considered what kind of custody?
Secure custody
39
What is the definition of a status offender?
Criminal violation only because of the age of offender Would not be offense if over a certain age
40
What is the maximum amount of time you can hold a juvenile?
3 hours, 6 hours for a felony
41
Food must be provided if juvenile has not eaten in ____________
4 hours
42
How old must a juvenile be before being placed in secure custody?
14 years old
43
Random personal checks of juveniles must occur every ___________
15 minutes
44
What is the definition of a vulnerable person?
Person of any age with developmental disability
45
Police officers must notify adult protective services when adult ____ years old or older is being abused, neglected, or exploited
60
46
Supervisors should notify the ____________ or ____________ of reported allegations in writing by the next business day
Chief or finance director
47
A missing persons case may be closed when there are no other viable leads only when:
FPPD is not the lead agency
48
A juvenile is considered at risk if they are under __ years old, over __ years old, or __ years old or younger and a run-away
Under 13, over 65, 17 years and younger as a runaway
49
What are the two conditions necessary with missing persons to necessitate broadcasting a BOLO?
Under 17 years old or at-risk
50
What two people must a supervisor notify if a public alert is put out?
Chief and PIO
51
What is the level of proof needed in administrative hearings regarding standards of conduct compliance?
Substantial
52
Standards of conduct are ____________ ___________, and do not permit deviation. Members should expect discipline or termination
Performance mandates
53
When is counseling used as a non-disciplinary step:
When personal problems are interfering with work performance
54
Who is the ultimate authority to release information to the media?
Chief of police
55
Who handles complaints regarding auxiliary officers?
The auxiliary liaison
56
What 3 people should be notified in the case of a major incident?
Chief Affected LT Detective Sgt
57
Identity theft reports should be taken by the department in which:
The victim resides
58
What is the definition of an authorized interpreter?
Someone who is screened and authorized by department to act as interpreter
59
What is the definition of a disability or impairment?
Physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activity
60
You must obtain a biological sample from an arrestee under the following 3 conditions?
Felony Misdemeanor stemming from violent/sexual crime Convicted of sexually oriented offense
61
What is the major function of patrol according to the patrol functions policy?
Enforcing traffic laws
62
The bias-based policing policy affirms the police department commitment to policing that is ____________ and ____________
Fair and objective
63
The first officer on the scene of a major crime or disaster should perform a(n) ________ ________ ________ before obtaining a search warrant
Officer safety sweep
64
Who has the ultimate decision as to the department's level of involvement regarding bomb threats on private property?
The sergeant or OIC
65
When dealing with federal immigration violations, the officer may continue to detain the person if there is a ________ ________ and are requested to hold by federal authorities
Criminal violation
66
The definition of a field interview is: brief detainment, on foot or in vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion of a crime for purpose of __________ __________ and __________ __________
Determining identity and resolving suspicions
67
Shift sergeants are granted the authority to ensure their subordinates do what 2 things?
Accomplish the department mission Follow policies and procedures
68
What is necessary for a foot pursuit to be considered justified?
A reasonable believe the suspect is engaged in, has engaged in, or is about to engage in criminal activity
69
Who is responsible for the coordination of a foot pursuit?
The initiating officer
70
Is a report always necessary after a foot pursuit?
No. Not necessary if there is no ID on the subject and no information to follow up on.
71
According to our policy on homelessness, the department goal is to provide law enforcement services while protecting the ________, ________, and ________ of the homeless
Rights, dignity, and property
72
Who is responsible for the collection and safe-keeping of personal property upon the arrest of a homeless person?
Supervisor
73
Under what circumstances may the incident commander warn a large demonstration to disperse?
If public safety is about to be jeopardized
74
During a demonstration, who must give authorization for mass arrests?
The incident commander
75
What organization is responsible for issuing medical marijuana registry cards?
Ohio Division of Marijuana Control
76
What is the definition of "persons in crisis"?
Unable to self-regulate thinking, mood, or behavior
77
Who serves as the BWC coordinator?
Operations LT
78
According to the BWC policy, body cams must be activated for all:
Calls for service Law Enforcement functions
79
Who do you contact if an MVA involves serious injury or death?
Operations LT
80
Does the inventory of a vehicle prior to towing it allow you to open locked containers within the vehicle?
Yes
81
A vehicle will be seized upon an OVI arrest if they are the registered owner of the vehicle, and:
1+ prior OVI in past 10 years Prior felony OVI at any time
82
Upon request for the voiding of an already issued parking or traffic citation, forward the request to:
Operations LT
83
What are the 5 conditions necessary for a vehicle to be considered a "junk vehicle"?
Parked for 48 hours on street, 72 on private property 3+ years old Extensively damaged Apparently inoperable Value of $1500 or less
84
What are the 4 times a supervisor may order an employee to take a drug or alcohol test?
MVA in city vehicle w/injury or substantial damage Firearm discharge on duty Discharge of dept. firearm Reasonable believe employee is under influence
85

Sergeants Exam (7 decks)

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