POH section 7 Flashcards

1
Q

what kind of construction is the fuselage?

A

semi-moncocque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the wing made of?

A

integrally machined wet box spar

conventional leading edge

reinforced fibreglass trailing edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the horizontal and vertical stabilisers made of?

A

conventional aluminium construction with the he rudder and elevator covered in synthetic fabric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the leading edge of the vertical stabiliser made of?

A

reinforced SFK/CFK-hybrid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does the retractable tricycle landing gear use?

A

oleo pneumatic shock struts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how is the master caution light cancelled and the system rearmed?

A

pressing the master caution button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the annunictaor system powered by?

A

28V DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the annunciator system protected by?

A

WARN PANEL 1= ESS BUS on the the overhead circuit breaker panel

WARN PANEL 2= BUS 1 on the overhead circuit breaker panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what do the pitot static instruments operate from?

A

2 independent pitot-static systems for the pilot and co-pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what type of ASI does the DO228 have?

A

conventional pressure sensitive capsule type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the max speed indicated on the ASI?

A

300 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when will the red Vmo light annunciate?

A

when airspeed exceeds Vmo by up to 6 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does the maximum allowable airspeed indicator (MAAS) provide if installed?

A

airspeed, max allowable airspeed, and overspeed warnings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what speed range is the MAAS calibrated in?

A

40-260 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does the MAA pointer remain at up too 15000ft?

A

apron 200ias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does the MAA pointer do from 15000-25000ft

A

gradually reduces the max airspeed from 200ias to 165ias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what powers the MAAS?

A

28V DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what protects the MAAS?

A

STALL WARNING/ESS BUS on the AC/DC circuit breaker panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what operates the VSI?

A

static pressure system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the range of the VSI?

A

4000fpm either side with 100 increments up to 2000fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what can indicate a near failure condition of the turn and slip?

A

an abnormal noise on shutdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what do the 2 scale markings on the turn and slip stand for?

A

1.3 degrees/sec and 3 degrees/sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the turn and slip indicator?

A

a rate gyro that indicates rate of turn along with slip/skid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the only thing that causes error in the slip/skid ball?

A

if an indicator is not level in the instrument panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what powers the turn and slip?

A

28V DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what protects the turn and slip?

A

left hand= BUS 1 on the overhead breaker panel

right hand= BUS 2 on the AC/DC breaker panel (if installed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what operates the altimeter-encoder indicator?

A

static pressure from either pitot-static system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what powers the altimeter-encoder indicator?

A

28V DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what protects the altimeter encoder indicator?

A

left hand= BUS 1 on the overhead panel

right hand= BUS 2 on the AC/DC breaker panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is altitude reporting in mode C based on?

A

1013hpa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how is altitude reported in mode C?

A

an encoded altitude signal is processed to the transponder for transmission to the interrogator ATC station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what range does the altimeter encoder operate in?

A

-1000 to 35000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when will the black and white striped section on the altimeter-encoder start to disappear?

A

10,000ft to disappear at 16,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what happens on the altimeter encoder when below 0 feet?

A

the striped area becomes red and white and the altimeter starts to read backwards from 10,000ft (e.g. -10 ft= 9990 indicated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what does the optionally installed GH 14-330 attitude indicator do?

A

supplies pitch and roll outputs to an optional weather radar to stabilise the antenna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the attitude indicator powered by?

A

26V AC (400Hz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the attitude indicator protected by?

A

left hand and right hand= 26V BUS on AC/DC circuit breaker panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the freedoms of pitch and roll on the AI?

A

+/-80 degrees in pitch

360 degrees in roll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what comes into view when the internal monitoring system senses an AI malfunction?

A

GYRO warning flag- in this case the attitude display is unreliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what powers the HSI?

A

26V AC (400Hz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what powers the HSI?

A

both powered by the 26V bus on the AC/DC circuit breaker panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what drives the lateral deviation indicator on the HSI?

A

NAV reciever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does 1 dot in azimuth indicate on the HSI?

A

0.5 degrees of localiser deviation

2 degrees of VOR deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what drives the glide slope deviation indicator on the HSI?

A

glide slope reciever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what does 1 dot in glideslpe deflection indicate on the HSI?

A

0.35 degrees glideslope deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what drives the TO/FROM indicator?

A

NAV reciever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what happens on the HSI if we have an invalid VOR signal?

A

TO/FROM indicator is moved out of view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

where do the 2 pilots HSI’s recieve info from?

A

pilot= VHF NAV 1

co-pilot= VHF NAV 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what does the Directional gyro system consist of?

A

KSG 105 slaved DG

processes signals from

KMT 112 magnetic azimuth transmitter

KA51 slaving unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what does the DG system give heading data to?

A
  • heading indicators
  • autopilot
  • flight directors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what does the KMT 112 magnetic azimuth transmitter do?

A

senses the direction of the earths magnetic field and transmits this info to the slaved DG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what powers the slaved directional gyros?

A

115V AC (400Hz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what protects the slaved directional gyros?

A

115V BUS on the AC/DC circuit breaker panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

when power is first applied to the slaved DG system and slaved gyro mode is selected, where is the heading shown derived from?

A

magnetic azimuth transmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what does ‘free gyro’ mode do?

A

disengages the magnetic slaving loop on the DG and allows the heading indication to be manually positioned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what will failure detection circuitry in the Slaved DG activate if there’s a fault?

A

compass warning annunciator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what action should we take during ground ops to prevent damage to the slaved DG?

A

pull the appropriate circuit breaker during ground ops if the system is not needed

plane should not be moved within 15 minutes after electrical powered has been removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what powers the light on the standby magnetic compass?

A

28V DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what protects the light on the standby magnetic compass?

A

INSTR LTS/ BUS 1 on the AC/DC circuit breaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the range of indication on the OAT indicator?

A

-50 to +50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

where is the OAT sensor?

A

on the skin behind the nose wheel well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

where is the flying hours counter?

A

right hand avionics rack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what starts the flying hours counter?

A

microswitch on the nose gear closes and completes a circuit once gear is retracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what powers the flying hours counter?

A

28V DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what protects the flying hours counter?

A

LDG WARN/ ESS BUS on the overhead breaker panel

AH METER/ESS BUS on the right hand avionics rack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are the conventional controls operated by?

A

dual interconnected set of control wheels and rudder pedals which are also used to operate the nose wheel steering/wheel brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

how is the stabiliser and aileron trim operated?

A

electrically operated by 3 position switches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

how is the rudder trim operated?

A

mechanically (cables) operated by a hand crank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is aileron deflection while in the neutral position?

A

4 degrees down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is max aileron deflection from the neutral position?

A

25 degrees up 18 degrees down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?

A

the ailerons are drooped automatically but maintain their full deflection range to optimise slow speed control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what controls the electromechanical aileron trim actuator?

A

3 position toggle switch with a spring loaded centre position situated on the pedestal panel which is attached to the artificial feel springs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how is the aeroplane trimmed using aileron trim?

A

the neutral position of the artificial feel springs is changed to reposition the aileron control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what powers the aileron trim?

A

28V Dc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what protects the aileron trim?

A

AIL TRIM/ESS BUS on the overhead circuit panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is the range of elevator deflection?

A

30 degrees up and 25 degrees down?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how are the elevators controlled?

A

mechanically by push pull rods (on the 228-200 series a spring attached to the push pull rods, acts to exert a slight push down force)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what positions the horizontal stabiliser when the trim is operated?

A

an electro-mechanical trim actuator (or dual trim actuator optionally)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what does the mechanical clutch on the stab trim protect against?

A

overload when the control wheel force exceeds approx. 50 daN in the direction of desired trim under 1g conditions

  1. 8 nose up and 1.6 nose down in turning flight
  2. 5 nose up and 3.4 nose down in turning flight with trim coupling installed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

explain what the trim coupling system does

A

the stabiliser trim actuator is coupled to the flap drive mechanism by a flexible shaft which changes the position of the stabiliser and automatically compensates for changes in pitch trim due to the selection of flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what annunciation will we get if the trim coupling systems flexible shaft breaks or does not rotate when the flaps are moving?

A

an amber SHAFT FL-TR light on the caution and warning panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what annunciation will we get if the trim actuator limit switch operates incorrectly?

A

an amber LIMIT SWITCH caution light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what will we see on the annunciator panel with regard to the trim coupling system when power is first applied to the airplane?

A

SHAFT FL-TR caution light for approx 4 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what will happen if the co pilot and pilot operate their trim switches in opposite directions simultaneously?

A

the trim motor will stop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what may incorrect trim settings result in?

A

high stick forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

how is the horizontal stabiliser trim system designed?

A

fail passive- a single electrical failure in the system may render the system inoperative, but no single electrical failure in any part of the system will cause a runaway of the actuator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

how is the trim system powered?

A

28V DC

88
Q

how is the pitch trim system protected?

A

PITCH TRIM UP/ ESS BUS on overhead breaker panel

PITCH TRIM DOWN/ESS BUS on the overhead breaker panel

89
Q

what is the range of rudder deflection on the 200?

A

20 degrees either side or 24degrees with a keel

90
Q

how is the rudder operated?

A

mechanically operated via a cable by rudder pedal displacement.

91
Q

where is the rudder trim crank located?

A

above the RH overhead switch panel

92
Q

what type of flaps does the DO228 have?

A

fowler flaps

93
Q

how are the flaps driven?

A

an electric motor through screwjacks and bell cranks

94
Q

what is fitted to the flap system to prevent the system overloading?

A

a safety clutch

95
Q

what does the torque limiter prevent in the flap system?

A

protects the shaft drive and screw jacks against overstressing

96
Q

what provides protection against asymmetrical flap travel and how?

A

a fail-safe circuit with an asymmetry control unit and a breaker on both ends of the drive shaft

the 2 assyemtric control units interrupt electrical power the the flaps when asymmetry is sensed

97
Q

what is the aileron droop with flaps up?

A

4 degrees

98
Q

what is the flap position and aileron droop with flaps 1?

A

flaps: 5 degrees
droop: 8 degrees

99
Q

what is flap position and aileron droop with flaps 2?

A

flaps: 20 degrees
droop: 12 degrees

100
Q

what is flap position and aileron droop with flaps down?

A

flaps: 30 degrees
droop: 13 degrees

101
Q

what will reduce stick forces when operating the flaps?

A

extension/retraction in steps

102
Q

what happens to stalling speed was flaps are extended?

A

it reduces

103
Q

what is the flap motor powered by?

A

28V DC

104
Q

what is the flap motor protected by?

A

FLAPS IN/ ESS BUS on overhead breaker panel

FLAPS CONTR/ESS BUS on overhead breaker panel????

105
Q

what 3 systems does the hydraulic system provide power to?

A
  • landing gear
  • wheel brakes
  • nose wheel steering
106
Q

what is provided for emergency gear lowering in the basic hydraulic system?

A

an emergency hydraulic handpump

107
Q

what is provided for emergency gear lowering with hydraulic system mod 1?

A

emergency gear lowering is performed by nitrogen pressure after pulling an emergency landing gear handle

108
Q

where is the hydraulic power pack installed?

A

rear part of the left landing gear fairing

109
Q

what kind of circuit is the hydraulic system and what does this mean?

A

an open circuit

the hydraulic reservoir is not charged with preload pressure

110
Q

what system pressure does the hydraulic powerpack provide?

A

206 bar (3000psi)

111
Q

what are the hydraulic systems 3 main components?

A
  • electrically driven hydraulic pump
  • hydraulic reservoir with either 4 or 3.2 litre capacity
  • pressure gauge
112
Q

what is the hydraulic system controlled by?

A

HYDRAULIC switch

113
Q

what does the hydraulic switch NORM position imply?

A

hydraulic pump operation is controlled by the LDG gear lever and landing gear microswitches with GPU or generator power

114
Q

what does the hydraulic switch MAN ON position imply?

A

hydraulic pump operates on battery, generator or GPU power regardless of LDG gear lever and microswitch position

115
Q

what does the hydraulic switch OFF position imply?

A

Hydraulic pump is de energised

116
Q

what pressure will hydarulic pump operation build?

A

180-230 bar

117
Q

where can hydraulic system pressure be checked?

A

hydraulic pressure gauge on the pedestal

118
Q

hat is hydraulic pump operation normally terminated by?

A

the gear up microswitches when landing gear is up and locked

119
Q

what is the hydraulic system powered by?

A

28V DC

120
Q

what are the hydraulic systems control circuits protected by?

A

HYDRAULIC NORM/ESS BUS on the overhead breaker panel

HYDRAULIC MAN/ESS BUS on the overhead breaker pane

121
Q

what BUS is the hydraulic pump motor powered by and what protects it?

A

powered by BUS 1 and protected by a fuse

122
Q

how can the hydraulic pump be activated if there is a failure in the NORM electrical circuit or the NON ESS BUS switch is off?

A

switch HYDRAULIC switch to MAN ON and the BUS TIE switch to BUS 1 or TIE position

123
Q

what is the green arc on the hydraulic pressure gauge?

A

180-230 bar

124
Q

how do we operate the emergency system on the basic hydraulic system?

A

set hydraulic switch to OFF and break the wire before activating the hydraulic hand pump until safe gear down indication and the green hydraulic pressure light comes on

125
Q

during emergency system operation on the basic hydraulic system when will a green light on the hydraulic panel illuminate?

A

when the hand pump has generated a pressure of 150+/- 5 bar

126
Q

how do we operate the emergency system on hydraulic system MOD 1?

A

set hydraulic switch to OFF

127
Q

How is the emergency system operated in a hydraulic MOD 1 system when activated?

A

nitrogen pressure released from the emergency Landing gear extension unit is routed to the landing gear unlocks and to the actuators via shuttle valves. this nitrogen pressure is allowed to act on the hydraulic actuators and Lower the landing gear and lock it

128
Q

when operating the emergency system using hydraulic system MOD 1 how long may it take for all 3 gear to annunciate down and locked?

A

40 seconds

129
Q

how is the landing gear controlled and operated?

A

electrically controlled and hydraulically operated

130
Q

how long does a complete landing gear extension/retraction cycle take?

A

7 seconds or 18 seconds depending on the hydraulic system installed

131
Q

how are the gear doors linked to the gear?

A

mechanically, so they operate directly in conjunction with the gear

132
Q

what does the main landing gear consist of?

A

2 oleo-pneumatic shock absorbers integrated into the gear structure

133
Q

are the main wheels covered when retracted?

A

no, only the outer portion of the wheel bay fairing is covered by a gear door

134
Q

how is extension and retraction of the main and nose gear achieved?

A

hydraulic actuators- the gear is locked in position by hydro-mechanical locks

135
Q

what are used to control the landing gear position lights and hydraulic pump operation?

A

microswitches on the up and down locks

136
Q

what does the twin wheel nose landing gear consist of?

A

a. steerable oleo-pneumatic shock absorbable integrated into the gear strut

137
Q

what are the main wheel rims made of?

A

cast magnesium

138
Q

what size are the main wheels and what tire do they use?

A

24 x 7.7 inches with Goodyear tubeless tyres

139
Q

what are the nose wheel rims made of?

A

cast aluminium

140
Q

what size are the nose wheels and what tyre do they use?

A

6.00-6 inches with Goodyear 6.00-68 PRTT tubed tyres

141
Q

what prevents gear being retracted on the ground?

A

the gear lever is mechanically blocked in the down position when on the ground

142
Q

what happens once we are airborne that allows us to retract the gear?

A

microswitches in the main landing gear, nose gear and the nose wheel steering mechanism close a relay and allow the blocking mechanism to be removed electrically

143
Q

what can we expect with regard to hydraulic pressure when extending and retracting the gear?

A

a hydraulic pressure drop along with a NWS bypass caution light

144
Q

what nose gear deflection will cause the gear selector valve to go into a neutral position, thereby preventing gear retraction cycle?

A

+/- 2 degrees out of centre

145
Q

how can we remove the gear levers mechanical blocking mechanism?

A

pushing the red DN LCK RL slider down

146
Q

when will a red light in the LDG GEAR lever flash?

A

when the landing gear is in an intermediate position (not locked up or down)

147
Q

when is at the aural landing gear down warning triggered?

A

one or both power levers brought close to FI position without landing gear being locked

any movement of the power lever towards FI after silencing the aural warning will trigger the warning again

148
Q

what powers the landing gear system?

A

28V DC

149
Q

what protects the landing gear system?

A

LANDING GEAR CONTR/ESS BUS

LANDING GEAR VALVE/ESS BUS

LANDING GEAR WARN/ESS BUS

150
Q

how long may it take to extend the landing gear using the hand pump in the basic hydraulic system?

A

280 strokes/eight minutes until the gear indicates safely down and the green hydraulic pressure light comes on

151
Q

how do we brake on the ground in the event of a hydraulic failure (basic system)?

A

parking brake

152
Q

what does the emergency landing gear extension unit on hydraulic system mod 1 consist of?

where is it located?

A
  • pre charged nitrogen bottle
  • pressure gauge
  • control valve

under the cockpit on the right hand side

153
Q

what happens when you pull the EMERG LDG gear handle located below the instrument panel to the right of the pedestal (MOD 1 system)?

A

stored nitrogen pressure is released from the emergency landing gear extension unit to release the lading gear uplocks and operate the actuators to lower and lock down the landing gear

154
Q

how to we extend the landing gear in an emergency (MOD 1 system)

A

set the hydraulic switch to off, remove the wire and pull the EMERGENCY LDG gear handle (takes approx 20-40 seconds to extend and lock)

155
Q

how can ground steering be accomplished with inoperative NWS?

A

differential power/brakes

156
Q

what is maximum wind speed for ground operation?

A

45 knots

157
Q

can we taxi with the flight control lock engaged?

A

no

158
Q

what is the turning radius at 45 degree NWS deflection?

A
  1. 94M wheel

14. 78M wing

159
Q

what type of brakes are fitted to the main wheels?

A

disk brakes

160
Q

what hydraulically operates the main brakes?

A

either the individual master cylinders on each rudder pedal or the parking brake

161
Q

what supplies the normal brake system?

A

hydraulic power supply system

162
Q

how is the parking brake set?

A

pulling, turning counter clockwise and pushing the handle back in

163
Q

what powers the parking brake?

A

parking brake accumulator which is pre charged by the normal hydraulic system

164
Q

what energizes the nose wheel steering system?

A

2 microswitches

165
Q

when will the 2 microswitches that energise the NWS be activated?

A

the first when the gear is extended

the second 5 seconds after the weight of the plane is on the nose gear strut

166
Q

what do the nose wheel steering actuators also act as?

A

shimmy dampers

167
Q

what accomplishes mechanical engagement of the steering actuator and nose wheel?

A

steering pin

168
Q

when will the NWS operate as if in BYPASS mode, but not generate a NWS BYPASS annunciation?

A

when the steering pin is not correctly inserted or electrical connections are fitted incorrectly

169
Q

when is the only time we disconnect the NWS steering pin?

A

when towing the plane

170
Q

what happens to the nose wheel when weight is lifted off it?

A

the rudder pedal signal is automatically cut out and the nose wheel will center, regardless of rudder pedal position

171
Q

what must the nose wheel be in order to be retracted?

A

centred

172
Q

what will happen on takeoff if the nosewheel is not centred within 2.5 degrees of neutral due to a fault in the automatic centering system?

A

gear will not retract when the gear lever is moved to the UP position

173
Q

to have an active NWS system what 6 steering criteria have to be considered?

A
  • nose gear actuator downlock microswitch
  • weight on nose wheel
  • engine speed lever position
  • NWS button on control wheel
  • NWS switch
  • hydraulic pressure
174
Q

what powers the NWS system?

A

28V DC

175
Q

what protects the NWS system?

A

NWS/BUS 1 on AC/DC breaker panel

176
Q

what NWS deflection is automatically engaged during normal ground operations?

A

8 degrees

177
Q

what 3 criteria need to be met for 8 degree NWS deflection?

A
  • nose gear actuator microswitch closed (gear down and lock)
  • weight on the nose wheel
  • NWS switch in the ON position
178
Q

what 5 criteria need to be met for 45 degree NWS deflection?

A
  • nose gear actuator microswitch closed (gear down and locked)
  • weight on nose wheel
  • NWS switch in on position
  • both engine speed levers LOW
  • NWS button on control wheel depressed
179
Q

what are the 3 functions on the NWS?

A
  • BYPASS
  • ON
  • TEST
180
Q

what does the BYPASS function do on the NWS?

A

the NWS system hydraulic pressure is bypassed into the return line. Ground control is possible by differential power and/or brakes

181
Q

what does the ON function do on the NWS?

A

NWS is possible with 8 degree or 45 degree deflection left or right if the corresponding criteria are met

182
Q

what does the TEST function do on the NWS?

A

the NWS system and the bypass valve is tested by a built in test circuit

183
Q

what mounts the pax seats to the floor?

A

floor rails

184
Q

what can be seen on the inside of the pax door with folding steps when the door is closed and locked?

A

three green lock control pins

185
Q

when will the PAX door with folding steps cause the DOORS caution/warning light to illuminate on?

A

when one of the microswitches in the doorframe is not closed

186
Q

on the pax door with fixed steps where is the selector knob?

A

lower left of the inside of the pax door

187
Q

how is the 2 way hinge bracket operated on the pax door with folding steps and what does its position determine?

A

a lever located next to the inside locking lever

determines which of the hinges are in the closed position for door opening (pax or cargo)

188
Q

how does the pax door with folding steps open?

A

outward/downgoing and the 3 stairs fold down to provide ease in boarding and deplaning pax

189
Q

what must the door with folding steps first be before being reconfigured with the PASSENGER/CARGO hinge lever?

A

closed and locked

190
Q

can we unlock or open the door with folding steps with the hinge lever pulled out?

A

no

191
Q

on the pax door with folding steps, what must be done to the handrails before putting the door to CARGO configuration?

A

they must be released from the airplane and attached to the door

192
Q

on the pax door with folding steps, what must be done to the handrails before putting the door to the PASSENGER configuration?

A

they must be reattached to the respective airplane attachment point

193
Q

how do we lock the pax door with folding steps?

A

pull the flush mounted handle and turn clockwise, then return to the flush position (same for door with fixed steps)

194
Q

what indicates when the door locking bolts are engaged on the pax door with fixed steps?

A

six control windows on the inside of the PASSENGER/CARGO door display CLOSED on a green background

195
Q

where are the 2 microswitches that relay information to the cockpit display from the pax door with fixed steps?

A

attached to the fuselage on top of the PASSENGER/CARGO door

196
Q

what will the selector knob on the pax door with folding steps do if it is in a correct position?

A

it will be pulled back by a spring

197
Q

on the pax door with fixed steps how do we release the plate from the airplane attachment points?

A

the 2 RELEASE buttons must be pressed in

198
Q

how do we open the rear half of the PAX door with fixed steps?

A

operate the snap closures on the top and bottom

199
Q

what kind of handle does the pilots door have on the outside?

A

flush mounted

200
Q

what size are the double laminated cabin windows?

A

14 x 13 inches in size

201
Q

what is the maximum number of bulb windows that can be installed?

A

2

202
Q

if installed where Is the opening photo window?

A

front section of the LH cabin wall

203
Q

how do we open the photo window if installed?

A

2 locking levers located at the lower part of the window must be moved to the unlock position

204
Q

if installed how can the photo be retained when open?

A

a retaining strap located on the cabin ceiling above the window

205
Q

when is the only time we can open the photo window if installed?

A

for special tasks by authorised personnel

206
Q

up to what speed may the smaller inward opening cockpit windows be opened if installed?

A

120ias

207
Q

why should care be taken in closing windows in flight?

A

existing suction may snap the window shut and cause damage.

208
Q

what do the emergency exits consist of?

A

door emergency exit and window emergency exits

209
Q

where are the window emergency exits located?

A

left and right side of the cabin

210
Q

how do we open the window emergency exits?

A

remove the cover over the release handle and when installed, pull the red release handle and push the window outwards

211
Q

how are the emergency windows marked on the outside?

A

a distinct colour band (break in markings)

212
Q

what does the internal control lock consist of?

A

rudder pedal lock and control column lock

213
Q

how do we unlock the internal control lock?

A

remove the pip pin, adjust the control column lock in the vertical position and lock it with the pip pin. recheck the rudder pedal lock in the stored position and check the controls for free movement.

214
Q

can we taxi with control locks engaged?

A

no

215
Q

above what wind speed must external gust locks be installed?

A

30 knots