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kekw > PMOC MIDTERM 3 > Flashcards

PMOC MIDTERM 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Classification of Quinolones

A
  • Nalidixic acid
  • Cinoxacin
  • Norfloxacin
  • Enoxacin
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Ofloxacin
  • Lomefloxacin
  • Sparfloxacin
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2
Q

basis of Quinolones

A

Nalidixic acid

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3
Q

reproduce by binary fission

A

Bacteria

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4
Q

has circular shape

A

Bacteria

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5
Q

cause the DNA strand to split into two.

A

DNA helicase

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6
Q

point where 2 DNA separates to allow replication of DNA

A

Replication fork

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7
Q

enzyme that put two strands in DNA strand

A

DNA Polymerase

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8
Q

It will lead to supercoiling. That’s why to ______ will inhibit this supercoiling.

A

DNA gyrase (Topoisomerase II)

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9
Q

DNA gyrase (Topoisomerase II) will turn to

A

Gram - Topoisomerase IV - gram +

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10
Q

MOA of Quinolones

A

Inhibition of DNA - gyrase (Topoisomerase II) Ineffective to anaerobic gram negative (Bacillus and Clostridium)

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11
Q

Highly polar quinolones enter through ___ (these
are the pores found in g (-) bacteria) into the cell

A

porins

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12
Q

Porins are found in

A

g (-) bacteria

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13
Q

Quinolones may also ________ in the ___ .

A
  1. Antagonize GABA receptors
  2. Brain
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14
Q

CNS effects when GABA receptors were antagonize

A
  • tremor
  • sleep disorders
  • anxiety
  • convulsion
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15
Q

GABA stands for

A

Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid

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16
Q

Quinolones are designed mainly for

A

g (-) bacteria

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17
Q

Most quinolones have the inability to

A

penetrate the BBB

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18
Q

BBB stands for

A

Blood-Brain Barrier

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19
Q

A subgroup because of the presence of 6-fluoro

A

Fluroquinolones

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20
Q

Structure-activity relationships of Fluroquinolones

A
  • Alkyl and Aryl substitution at position 1- better potency
  • Piperazine (C-7) and the fluorine (C6) constituent extends its activity
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21
Q

piperazine is ____, oftentimes associated to ____ when urine is too BASIC also)

A
  1. BASIC
  2. Crystalluria
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22
Q

more potent, disrupt DNA binding complex enzyme

A

(+) cyclosporyl

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23
Q

very close to the site of DNA gyras

A

R2

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24
Q

Impact in PK, drug potency

A

R1

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25
Q

Carboxylate

A

R3

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26
Q

Carbonyl

A

R4

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27
Q

Structure-activity relationship of Quinolones

A

Fluoro Quinolone, high stability, activity

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28
Q

NH2, OH, CH3, increase activity in gram+. Decrease activity when halide and methoxy was attached.

A

R5

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29
Q

F increase activity

A

R6

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30
Q

direct activity in DNA gyrase

A

R7

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31
Q

aminopyrrolidine (gram +), piperazine gram-, ADE Crystalluria (Norfloxacin, Ciprofloxacin)

A

R7

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32
Q

spectrum activity affects overall molecular steruc configuration, +F, CI, CH3, OCH3 (anaerobic)

A

R8

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33
Q

In R5, _______ increase activity in gram+. Decrease activity when halide and methoxy was attached.

A

NH2, OH, CH3

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34
Q

In R5, it decrease its activity when ______ was attached.

A

halide and methoxy

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35
Q

Can form chelates with cations reducing bioavailability with quinolones

A

Quinolones

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36
Q

Can form chelates with cations reducing bioavailability with quinolones (thus, we should ____ antacids and all other _______)

A
  1. Avoid
  2. Metal ion sources (Fe+3)
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37
Q

It interferes with DNA gyrase

A

Nalidixic acid

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38
Q

inhibit DNA synthesis during bacterial replication.

A

Nalidixic acid

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39
Q

Active against gram (-) bacteria but not effective against pseudomonas organisms.

A

Nalidixic acid

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40
Q

Nalidixic acid is active against _____ bacteria but not effective against pseudomonas organism

A
  1. gram (-)
  2. pseudomonas organism
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41
Q

In Nalidixic acid this is more active

A

7-hydroxymethyl metabolite

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42
Q

p210

A

Nalidixic acid

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43
Q

How many generations does Quinolones have?

A

4 Generations

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44
Q

Have moderate gram-negative activity and minimal systemic distribution

A

First Generation

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45
Q

Example of First Generation

A
  • Cinoxacin (Cinoxacin)
  • Nalidixic acid (NegGam, Wintomylon)
  • Oxolinic acid
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46
Q

NegGam and Wintomylon

A

Nalidixic Acid

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47
Q

Have expanded gram negative activity and atypical pathogen coverage, but limited grampositive activity

A

Second Generation

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48
Q

Example of Second Generation

A

Class I
- Lomefloxacin (Maxaquin)
- Norfloxacin (Noroxin)
- Enoxacin (Penetrex)

Class II
- Ofloxacin (Floxin)
- Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

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49
Q

Retain expanded gram-negative and atypical intracellular activity but have improved gram positive coverage

A

Third Generation

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50
Q

Example of Third Generation

A
  • Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
  • Sparfloxacin (Zagam) *
  • Moxifloxacin (Avelox)
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51
Q

Improve gram-positive coverage, maintain gram-negative coverage, and gain anaerobic coverage

A

Fourth Generation

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52
Q

Example of Fourth Generation

A
  • Clinafloxacin
  • Gemifloxacin (Factive)
  • Moxifloxacin (Avelox, Vigamox)
  • Gatifloxacin (Tequin)
  • Sitafloxacin
  • Trovafloxacin (Trovan) (withdrawn)
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53
Q

not available in the market due to CNS, Gl adverse effects

A

Cinoxacin

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54
Q

It is a close congener of oxolinic acid, an anti-bacterial agent no longer in the market.

A

Cinoxacin

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55
Q

It is more completely absorbed and less protein-bound than nalidixic acid

A

Cinoxacin

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56
Q

Higher concentration than nalidixic acid

A

Cinoxacin

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57
Q

It is a Broad-spectrum antibacterial agent, active against gram (+) and gram (-)

A

Norfloxacin

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58
Q

Fluoride atoms provide increase in potency against gram (+)

A

Norfloxacin

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59
Q

Activity generally is not effective against obligate anaerobic bacteria

A
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60
Q

Activity generally is not effective against obligate anaerobic bacteria

A

Norfloxacin

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60
Q

Activity generally is not effective against obligate anaerobic bacteria

A

Norfloxacin

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61
Q

It is used for uncomplicated gonorrhea in 800 mg single oral dose

A

Norfloxacin

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62
Q

The primary use is for the treatment of UTI and STD, for uncomplicated gonococcal urethritis and chancroid.

A

Enoxacin

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63
Q

The bioavailability is reduced by divalent metal ions present in antacids and hematinics

A

Enoxacin

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64
Q

Enzyme inhibitor (CYP1A2)

A

Enoxacin

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65
Q

b

A
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66
Q

The drug is active against many anaerobes including P. aeroginosa.

A

Ciprofloxacin

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67
Q

This is used for treatment of UTI, lower respiratory infections, sinusitis , diarrhea, bone, joint & skin structure infection.

A

Ciprofloxacin

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68
Q

It is used for gonococcal urethritis.

A

Ciprofloxacin

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69
Q

Agent of choice for bacterial gastroenteritis

A

Ciprofloxacin

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70
Q

Enzyme Inhibitor

A

Ciprofloxacin

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71
Q

It is incompatible with drugs that are alkaline

A

Ciprofloxacin

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72
Q

Food delays but does not prevent absorption.

A

Ciprofloxacin

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73
Q

For postexposure treatment of inhalational anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin

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74
Q

Cipro + Doxycycline = gonococcal urethritis

A

Ciprofloxacin

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75
Q

Cipro + Doxycycline =

A

gonococcal urethritis

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76
Q

Ciprofloxacin & ceftriaxone = disseminated gonorrhea

A

Ciprofloxacin

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77
Q

Ciprofloxacin & ceftriaxone =

A

disseminated gonorrhea

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78
Q

Better than ciprofloxacin

A

Ofloxacin

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79
Q

Not effective in syphilis

A

Ofloxacin

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80
Q

Although food can slow the oral absorptions of the lower respiratory tract, including chronic bronchitis and pneumonia, caused by Gram-negative bacilli.

A

Ofloxacin

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81
Q

Although food can slow the oral absorptions of the lower
respiratory tract, including chronic bronchitis and
pneumonia, caused by _______

A

Gram-negative bacilli

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82
Q

Supplied as a racemate

A

Ofloxacin

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83
Q

A 2nd generation quinolone

A

Lomefloxacin

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84
Q

It is indicated for acute bacterial exacerbations of chronic bronchitis caused by H influenzae or moxarella catarrhalis

A

Lomefloxacin

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85
Q

The only quinolone for which once-daily oral dosing suffices

A

Lomefloxacin

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86
Q

C-8 with halogen causes Phototoxicity

A

Lomefloxacin

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87
Q

C-8 with halogen causes _______

A

Phototoxicity

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88
Q

With long elimination half-life, used for the treatment of bacterial gastroenteritis and cholecystitis.

A

Sparfloxacin

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89
Q

It shows lowest incidence of phototoxicity

A

Sparfloxacin

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90
Q

C-5: Amino portion decreases phototoxicity

A

Sparfloxacin

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91
Q

C-5: ______ decreases phototoxicity

A

Amino portion

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92
Q

Amino portion decreases phototoxicity

A

C-5

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93
Q

Halogen causes Phototoxicity

A

C-8

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94
Q

[p212, amino group on the 5th position]

A

Sparfloxacin

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95
Q

Adverse Effects of Quinolones

A
  • QT prolongation
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Abnormal or bitter taste
  • Tendon rupture
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96
Q

Quinolones are not recommended for:

A
  • Children
  • Adolescents younger than 18 years of age
  • In pregnant or breastfeeding women
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97
Q

Quinolones are not recommended for use in children and adolescents younger than 18 years of age, or in pregnant or breastfeeding women because it causes:

A

arthropathy and chondrotoxicity

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98
Q

Dermatologic Adverse Effects of Quinolones

A
  • Rash
  • PHOTOSENSITIVITY reactions,
  • Pruritus
99
Q

What are the nitrofuran antibacterial agents

A
  • Nitrofurazone
  • Furazolidone
  • Nitrofurantoin
99
Q

What are the Nitrofuran antibacterial agents

A
  • Nitrofurazone
  • Furazolidone
  • Nitrofurantoin
100
Q

Derivatives of 5-nitro-2-furaldehyde

A

Nitrofurans

101
Q

Nitrofurans SAR

A

anti-microbial activity is present only when the nitro group is in the 5-positon

102
Q

In Nitrofurans SAR, anti-microbial activity is present only when the _________________

A

nitro group is in the 5-positon

103
Q

Has a broad spectrum of activity against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria but not Fungi

A

Nitrofurazone

104
Q

0.2 % usual concentration in solution, ointments and suppositories

A

Nitrofurazone

105
Q

In Nitrofurazone, what is the usual concentration in solution, ointments and suppositories

A

0.2%

106
Q

3’[(5-nitrofurylidene) amino]-2 oxazolodinone. It has bactericicdal activity and also antiprotozoal activity, specifically, against G. lamblia.

A

Furazolidone

107
Q

It can inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase. (avoid alcohol)

A

Furazolidone

108
Q

In Furazolidone, 3’[(5-nitrofurylidene) amino]-2 oxazolodinone. It has bactericicdal activity and also antiprotozoal activity, specifically, _______

A

against G. lamblia.

109
Q

Furazolidone can inhibit ___________________. (avoid ___)

A
  1. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
  2. Alcohol
110
Q

disrupts bacterial enzyme system, active against gram(+) gram (-)

A
111
Q

______ prevents and treats UTI. It colors the urine _____.

A
  1. NITROFURANTOIN
  2. Brown
112
Q

To improve GI tolerance, the drug is designed using large crystalline form without interfering oral absorption

A

Nitrofurantoin

113
Q

Brand name of Nitrofurantoin

A

Macrodantin

114
Q

Antibacterial medication used to treat urinary tract infections, but it is not as effective for kidney infections.

A

Macrodantin

115
Q

Methenamine aka

A
  • Urothropi
  • Uritone
116
Q

Active agent: formaldehyde

A

Methenamine

117
Q

What is the active agent of Methenamine

A

formaldehyde

118
Q

Requires an Acidifying agent like ammonium chloride, sodium biphosphate

A

Methenamine

119
Q

It is employed internally as urinary antiseptic

A

Methenamine

120
Q

urease (enzyme that hydrolyzes urea to AMMONIA - too BASIC)

A

Methenamine

121
Q

Urease inhibitor acetohydroxamic acid (Lithostat)

A

Methenamine

122
Q

enzyme that hydrolyzes urea to AMMONIA - too BASIC

A

Urease

123
Q

Urease inhibitor acetohydroxamic acid

A

Lithostat

124
Q

It has the ability to furnish its own acidity

A

Methenamine Mandelate

125
Q

It is effective with smaller amounts of mandelic acid and thus avoids the gastric disturbances

A

Methenamine Mandelate

126
Q

Readily absorbed after oral administration and concentrated in the urinary bladder

A

Methenamine Hippurate

127
Q

(AZO) Brick red in color

A

Phenazopyridine HCL

128
Q

local analgesic effect

A

Phenazopyridine HCL

129
Q

It is given in combination with urinary antiseptics

A

Phenazopyridine HCL

130
Q

+ sulfisoxazole, it is available as Azo-Gantrisin

A

Phenazopyridine HCL

131
Q

It gives an orange-red color stain

A

Phenazopyridine HCL

132
Q

not for cure, only for management

A

Phenazopyridine HCL

133
Q

What is the side effect of Phenazopyridine HCL

A

methemoglonemea

134
Q

Family Mycobacteriaceae

A

Antitubercular Agents

135
Q

Antituberculosis agents are drugs used to treat tuberculosis, an infectious disease caused by

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Leprosy Mycobacterium leprae

136
Q

M. tuberculosis is an acid fast, aerobic bacteria with an unusual cell wall, containing a large percentage of lipid content.

A

Antitubercular Agents

137
Q

___________ is an acid fast, aerobic bacteria with an unusual cell wall, containing a large percentage of lipid content.

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

138
Q

Aerobic bacteria with an unusual cell wall, containing a large percentage of lipid content. For this reason, the organism is resistant to alcohols, acids, alkali and some disinfectants.

A

Antitubercular Agents

139
Q

Aerobic bacteria with an unusual cell wall, containing a large percentage of lipid content. For this reason, the organism is resistant to ______________

A
  • Alcohols
  • Acids
  • Alkali
  • Some disinfectants
140
Q

Drugs that inhibit Mycolic Acid:

A

H - Isoniazid
E - Ethambutol
R - Rifampicin
Z - Pyrazinamiide

141
Q

Reason why antibiotics are not potent to the body. hindi nagrereact

A

Mycolic acid

142
Q

is a synthetic antibacterial agent which is bactericidal against replicating organisms, but bacteriostatic against nonreplicating organisms.

A

Isoniazid (INH)

143
Q

Following exposure to INH, acid fast bacilli lose their acid

A

Isoniazid (INH)

144
Q

fast characteristics, indicating that the agent interferes with cell wall synthesis.

A

Isoniazid (INH)

145
Q

Isoniazid MOA

A

unknown, but it is thought that INH enters the cell wall and is metabolized to isonicotinic acid

146
Q

(-) mycolic acid synthesis

A

Isoniazid (INH)

147
Q

The major metabolite of INH is ___________

A

N-acetylisoniazid

148
Q

In Isoniazid,
SLOW causes
FAST causes

A
  1. Neuritis
  2. Hepatoxicity
149
Q

Have a higher concentration of this enzyme than slow acetylators

A

Fast acetylators

150
Q

Acetylated isoniazid can be converted to isonicotinic acid and hydrazine, but it also gives rise to ________

A
  1. Acetylated isoniazid
  2. acetylhydrazide.
151
Q

prevents peripheral neuritis

A

Pyridoxine

152
Q

2nd class of tuberculosis drug

A

Ethionamide

153
Q

It is used in the treatment of isoniazid resistant tuberculosis or when the patient is intolerant to isoniazid and other drugs

A

Ethionamide

154
Q

Ethionamide is used in the treatment of _____________

A

isoniazid resistant tuberculosis

155
Q

2 substitution increases potency

A

Ethionamide

156
Q

Blocks mycolic acid synthesis, [p216]

A

Ethionamide

157
Q

Pyrazinamide causes

A

Hepatotoxic, Uric Acid, Hyperuricemia

158
Q

Pyrazinamide aka

A

Pyrazinecarboxamide (PZA)

159
Q

Bioactivation of pyrazinamide to _____ (inh. = fatty acid synthesis) by an amidase present in mycobacteria

A

pyrazinoic acid

160
Q

___ and its metabolites are reported to interfere with
uric acid excretion …- p216

A

Pyrazinecarboxamide (PZA)

161
Q

Bioactivation of pyrazinamide to pyrazinoic acid (inh. = fatty acid synthesis) by an __________

A

amidase present in mycobacteria

162
Q

active only against dividing mycobacteria

A

Ethambutol

163
Q

The dextro isomer is 16 times as active as the meso compound

A

Ethambutol

164
Q

Not recommended for use alone

A

Ethambutol

165
Q
  • (-) arabinosyl transferase (polymerization of Arabinogalactan)
A

Ethambutol

166
Q

Retrobulbar neuritis, Green red color blindness

A

Ethambutol

167
Q

This agent was once quite popular, until significant resistance to the drug developed

A

p-Aminosalicylic acid

168
Q

It interferes with the incorporation of p aminobenzoic acid into folic acid.

A

p-Aminosalicylic acid

169
Q

(-) Folic acid synthesis

A

p-Aminosalicylic acid

170
Q
  • a basic red dye (“AZA”) that exert a slow, bactericidal effect on M. leprae.
A

Clofazamine

171
Q

This is used in the treatment of leprosy, including the dapsone-resistant forms.

A

Clofazamine

172
Q

This was also used for treating skin lesions cause by M. ulcerans

A

Clofazamine

173
Q

Rifampin is obtained from

A

Streptomyces mediterranei

174
Q

Binds to bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerases

A
175
Q

Most active agent in clinical use for the treatment of tuberculosis

A
176
Q

The incidence of ____ was significantly higher when rifampin was combined with isoniazid

A

hepatoxicity

177
Q

The incidence of hepatoxicity was significantly higher when rifampin was combined with _____

A

isoniazid

178
Q

Enzyme inducer

A

Rifampin

179
Q

Should be taken on an empty stomach

A

Rifampin

180
Q

Orange to reddish brown crystalline powder

A

Rifampin

181
Q

It is orally active against many Gram positive and Gram negative organisms, and is clinically effective against M. tuberculosis

A

Rifampin

182
Q

greater potency against M. tuberculosis in vitro

A

Rifabutin

183
Q

considered inferior to rifampin for the short-term therapy of tuberculosis because of its significantly lower plasma concentrations

A

Rifabutin

184
Q

Rifabutin considered inferior to rifampin because of its

A

short-term theraphy of tubercuosis

185
Q

natural product was isolated from Streptomyces orchidaceus as the D isomer

A

Cycloserine

186
Q

is also active, and the racemic mixture is more potent than either isomer.

A

L-isomer

187
Q

In enolic form, cycloserine is sterically and stereochemically _____ to D alanine.

A

analogous

188
Q

What form, cycloserine is sterically and stereochemically analogous to D alanine.

A

Enolic form

189
Q

(-) cell wall synthesis

A

Cycloserine

190
Q

____ is the last resort for tuberculosis, because it causes CNS ____

A
  1. Cycloserine
  2. Depression
191
Q

this antibiotic is a mixture of four cyclic polypeptides, where capreomycin la and 1b make up 90% of the mixture.

A

Capreomycin

192
Q

Capreomycin MOA

A

Little is known about its mechanism of action, but it is thought to inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 70S ribosomal unit.

193
Q

(-) protein synthesis

A

Capreomycin

194
Q

Capreomycin causes

A
  • Oto toxicity
  • Nephrotoxicity
195
Q

Capreomycin is a mixture of four cyclic polypeptides, where capreomycin la and 1b make up __ of the mixture

A

90%

196
Q

intramuscular administration

A

Streptomycin

197
Q

sensitization dermatitis-wear gloves

A

Streptomycin

198
Q

Binds to 12s and inhibits protein synthesis

A

Streptomycin

199
Q

It is resistant

A

Streptomycin

200
Q

Problems: crystalluria

A

Sulfonamides

201
Q

pka 10.4 [sulfanilamide]

A

Sulfonamides

202
Q

In what is the pka of sulfanilamide

A

pka 10.4

203
Q

pH 6 [urine]

A

Sulfonamides

204
Q

Insoluble, non-ionized form in the KIDNEY

A

Sulfonamides

205
Q

presence of crystals in urine

A

Crystalluria

206
Q

In Sulfonamides what is th pH number of urine

A

6

207
Q

is necessary for activity and must not be substituted; para position

A

Sulfonamides

208
Q

more soluble in acid urine

A

Sulfamethazine

209
Q

kidney damage, from acetylsulfapyridine crystals deposited in the kidneys

A

Sulfapyridine

210
Q

was the first drug to have an outstanding curative action on pneumonia

A

Sulfapyridine

211
Q

is a sulfonamide drug closely related to sulfosoxazole in chemical structure and antimicrobial activity

A

Sulfamethoxazole

212
Q

+ Trimethoprim =

A

Cotrimoxazole

213
Q

For P. carinii

A

Tanong

214
Q

because the sodium salt is highly soluble at the physiological pH of 7.4, it is specially suited, as a solution for repeated topical application

A

Sulfacetamide sodium

215
Q

+ erythromycin =

A

Acute otitis

216
Q

Sulfisoxazole Diolamine

A

Topical Sulfonamides

217
Q

Drugs example for Topical Sulfonamides

A
  • Triple Sulfa
  • Sulfabenzamide
  • Sulfacetamide
  • Sulfathiazole
218
Q

vaginal cream of Haemophilus vaginitis

A

Topical Sulfonamides

219
Q

Topical Sulfonamides is a vaginal cream of

A

Haemophilus vaginitis

220
Q

it is not a true sulfanilamide - type compound, as is not inhibited by PABA

A

Mafenide Acetate

221
Q

PABA stands for

A

Para-aminobenzoic acid

222
Q

Effective against Clostridium welchii

A

Non absorbable sulfonamides [BURN]

223
Q

Silver Sulfadiazine

A

Non absorbable sulfonamides [BURN]

224
Q

Against Pseudomonas spp

A

Non absorbable sulfonamides [BURN]

225
Q

Sulfonamides are for

A
  • Intestinal Infections
  • Ulcerative Colitis
  • Reduction of Bowel Flora
226
Q

broken down in the body to m-aminosalicylic acid and sulfapyridine

A

Sulfasalazine

227
Q

Sulfonamides Oral Absorbable are

A
  • SULFISOXAZOLE
  • SULFAMETHIZOLE
  • SULFADIAZINE
  • SULFAPYRIDINE
228
Q

Sulfonamides Oral Non-Absorbable

A

SULFADIAZINE

229
Q

Sulfonamides Topical are

A
  • SULFACETAMIDE
  • MAFENIDE
  • SILVER SULFADIAZINE
230
Q

Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitors example is

A

Trimethoprim

231
Q

A mixture of trimethoprim (TMP) and sulfamethoxazole (SMX), also known as _______, is a widely used _______ combination to treat a variety of bacterial infections

A
  1. Co-trimoxazole
  2. synergistic antimicrobial
232
Q

they are less effective than the sulfonamides

A

Sulfones

233
Q

Cross resistance occur

A

Sulfones

234
Q

DAPSONE causes

A
  • Dermatitis
  • Leprosy
235
Q

Drug example of Sulfone

A

Dapsone

236
Q

Adverse Effect of Sulfone

A

hemolytic anemia (G6PD deficient)

237
Q

diaminodiphenyl sulfone, should not take

A
  • Aspirin
  • Quinine
238
Q

Dapsone aka

A

diaminodiphenyl sulfone

239
Q

It is effective orally against both acute and carrier states of the disease

A

METRONIDAZOLE

240
Q

preferred drug for the tx of amebic dysentery, giardiasis, trichomoniasis

A

METRONIDAZOLE

241
Q

active against all anaerobic cocci, gram (-) and the treatment of choice for C. defficile colitis infections

A

METRONIDAZOLE

242
Q

carcinogenic in mice and exhibits disulfiram-type reaction when used with ethanol

A

METRONIDAZOLE

243
Q

unstable for IV prep, reconstituted Metronidazole HCI is stable for 96 H, ready to use solutions for 24 H

A

METRONIDAZOLE

244
Q

In metronidazole, carcinogenic in mice and exhibits ________________

A

disulfiram-type reaction when used with ethanol

kekw (5 decks)

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