PMBOK Chapter 5 - Project Scope Management Flashcards

1
Q

Project Scope Management (knowledge area)

A

the processes that ensure the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully

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2
Q

Plan Scope Management (process)

A

the process of creating a scope management plan that documents how the project scope will be defined, validated and controlled

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3
Q

Collect Requirements (process)

A

the process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives

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4
Q

Define Scope (process)

A

the process of developing a detailed description of the project and product

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5
Q

Create WBS (process)

A

the process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components

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6
Q

Validate Scope (process)

A

the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables

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7
Q

Control Scope (process)

A

the process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline

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8
Q

What is product scope?

A

the features and functions that characterize a product, service or result

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9
Q

What is project scope?

A

the work performed to deliver a product, service or result with the specified features and functions

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10
Q

What is completion of the project scope measured against?

A

the project management plan

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11
Q

What is completion of the product scope measured against?

A

the product requirements

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12
Q

What is a scope management plan?

A

is a component of the project management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, monitored, controlled and verified

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13
Q

What is a requirements management plan?

A

a component of the project management plan that describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented and managed

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14
Q

What are interviews?

A

a formal or informal approach to elicit information from stakeholders by talking to them directly

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15
Q

What are focus groups?

A

bring together prequalified stakeholders and subject matter experts to learn about their expectations and attitudes about a proposed product, service or result

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16
Q

What are facilitated workshops?

A

focused sessions that bring key stakeholders together to define product requirements

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17
Q

What are the five group creativity techniques?

A

1) Brainstorming
2) Nominal group technique
3) Idea / mind mapping
4) Affinity diagrams
5) Multicriteria decision analysis

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18
Q

What is brainstorming?

A

technique used to generate and collect multiple ideas related to project and product requirements

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19
Q

What is a nominal group technique?

A

technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming

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20
Q

What is idea/mind mapping?

A

technique in which ideas created through individual brainstorming sessions are consolidated into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding, and generate new ideas

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21
Q

What is an affinity diagram?

A

technique that allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis

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22
Q

What is multicriteria decision analysis?

A

technique that utilizes a decision matrix to provide a systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria to evaluate and rank many ideas

23
Q

What are the four types of group decision-making techniques

A

1) Unanimity
2) Majority
3) Plurality
4) Dictatorship

24
Q

What is unanimity?

A

everyone agrees on a single course of action. one way to reach unanimity is the Delphi technique - a selected group of experts answers questionnaires and provides feedback

25
Q

What is majority?

A

a decision that is reached with support obtained from more than 50% of the members of the group

26
Q

What is plurality?

A

decision that is created whereby the largest block in a group decides, even if a majority is not achieved

27
Q

What is a dictatorship?

A

one individual makes the decision for the group

28
Q

What are questionnaires and surveys?

A

written sets of questions designed to quickly accumulate information from a large number of respondents

29
Q

What are observations?

A

provide a direct way of viewing individuals in their environment and how they perform their jobs or tasks and carry out procedures

30
Q

What are prototypes?

A

a method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building it

31
Q

What is benchmarking?

A

involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices

32
Q

What are context diagrams?

A

they visually depict the product scope by showing a business system and how people and other systems interact with it

33
Q

What is document analysis?

A

used to elicit requirements by analyzing existing documentation and identifying information relevant to the requirements

34
Q

What is requirements documentation?

A

describes how individual requirements meet the business need for the project

35
Q

What is a requirements traceability matrix?

A

a grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them

36
Q

What does the scope management plan do?

A

establishes the activities for developing, monitoring and controlling the project scope

37
Q

What is product analysis?

A

For projects that have a product as a deliverable, it is a tool used to define the scope that generally means asking questions about a product and forming answers to describe the use, characteristics, and other relevant aspects of what is going to be manufactured.

includes techniques such as product breakdown, systems analysis, requirements analysis, systems engineering, value engineering, and value analysis

38
Q

What is alternatives generation?

A

technique used to develop as many potential options as possible in order to identify different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project

39
Q

What is the project scope statement?

A

the description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints.

40
Q

What does a detailed project scope statement contain?

A

1) Product scope description
2) Deliverables
3) Acceptance criteria
4) Project Exclusions

41
Q

What is product scope description?

A

progressively elaborating the characteristics of the product, service or result

42
Q

What is acceptance criteria?

A

a set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted

43
Q

What is a deliverable?

A

any unique and verifiable product, result or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase or project

44
Q

What is a project exclusion?

A

generally identifies what is excluded from the project

45
Q

What is a constraint?

A

a limiting factor that affects the execution of a project or process

46
Q

What is an assumption?

A

a factor in the planning process that is considered to be true, real, or certain, without proof or demonstration.

47
Q

What is the WBS?

A

Work Breakdown Structure – a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables

48
Q

What is a work package?

A

the lowest level/component of the WBS

49
Q

What is decomposition?

A

technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts

50
Q

What is the scope baseline?

A

the approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure, and its associated WBS dictionary, that can only be changed through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison

51
Q

What are verified deliverables?

A

project deliverables that are completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process

52
Q

What is Inspection?

A

includes activities such as measuring, examining, and validating to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria

53
Q

What is variance analysis?

A

technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance