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ob gyn > PLE 2021 > Flashcards

PLE 2021 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the key difference between seizure and vasovagal events?

A. Seizure is always tonic clonic in pregnancy
B. Presence of a postictal period in seizure
C. Tonicity is an outstanding feature in vasovagal events
D. There is no difference between the two

A

B. Presence of a postictal period in seizure

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2
Q

What test can be done if one suspects Gonorrhea in a pregnant woman?

A. Gram stain of vaginal smear
B. Nucleic acid amplification test
C. Culture and sensitivity
D. Pap smear

A

B. Nucleic acid amplification test

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3
Q

Which hormone can provide temporary relief of symptoms of adenomyosis?

A. Cyproterone acetate
B. GnRH agonist
C. Tamoxifen
D. Progesterone

A

B. GnRH agonist

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4
Q

Which vaccine poses a theoretical risk to fetus?

A. Influenza inactivated
B. Hepatitis B
C. MMR
D. Tdap

A

C. MMR

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5
Q

Which commonly used pharmaceutical preparation can give hypomenorrhea to women?

A. Anti seizure
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Metformin
D. Oral contraceptives

A

D. Oral contraceptives

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6
Q

What is the proposed pathophysiology of PROM?

A. Premature release of prostaglandins which causes myometrial contraction
B. Premature activation of the pathway of labor by activation of the catabolic enzymes and mechanical forces
C. Premature stretching of myometrial contractions; due to programmed cell deaths
D. Pathogenic bacteria causes premature release of collagenase

A

D. Pathogenic bacteria causes premature release of collagenase

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7
Q

How many months after the repair of mitral stenosis ideally become pregnant?

A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months

A

B. 12 months

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8
Q

What percentage of neonatal death can occur with HELLP syndrome?

A. 70-75
B. 30-35
C. 40-45
D. 20-25

A

D. 20-25

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9
Q

Which is vaginal infection is associated with a vaginal pH of 6 to 7?

A. Neisseria gonorrhea
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. HPV

A

B. Trichomonas vaginalis

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10
Q

Symptomatic gallbladder diseases include the following except which?

A. Biliary colic
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Acute pancreatitis

A

B. Acute appendicitis

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11
Q

The fishy amine odor produce by Gardenerella vaginalis can be accentuated by adding which of the following to the discharge?

A. 10% Potassium permanganate
B. 20% Acetic acid
C. 20% Normal saline solution
D. 10% Potassium hydroxide

A

D. 10% Potassium hydroxide

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12
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat pediculosis pubis?

A. 5-fluorouracil cream
B. Trimethoprim sulfate
C. Pyrethrins with piperonyl butoxide applied on the affected
D. Metronidazole and Amoxicillin

A

C. Pyrethrins with piperonyl butoxide applied on the affected

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13
Q

When should patients who will benefit from surgery have their mitral or aortic stenosis be done in cases they are desirous of pregnancy later?

A. More than 5 years from repair
B. Pregnancy is not advised
C. 5 years prior to pregnancy
D. 1 year of more prior to pregnancy

A

D. 1 year of more prior to pregnancy

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14
Q

What type of abortion is associated with a dilated cervix and no expulsion of the products of conception?

A. Imminent abortion
B. Inevitable abortion
C. Missed abortion
D. Threatened abortion

A

A. Imminent abortion

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15
Q

The following are indications for stone removal during pregnancy?

A. Bleeding
B. Intractable pain
C. Infection
D. Premature labor

A

B. Intractable pain

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16
Q

Which women are at risk for HBV during pregnancy?

A. No prenatal care
B. Previous history of home delivery
C. Having an HbsAg (+) sex partner
D. Uncircumscribed sex partner

A

C. Having an HbsAg (+) sex partner

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17
Q

Which is not an endocrine feature of PCOS?

A. Decrease production of sex hormone binding globulin
B. Elevated levels of androgens and estrogens
C. High leutinizing hormone: follicle stimulating hormone ratio
D. Increase levels of sex hormone binding globulins

A

D. Increase levels of sex hormone binding globulins

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18
Q

What is the most common fetal complication of preterm labor?

A. Neonatal pneumonia
B. Hyaline membrane disease
C. Adrenal insufficiency
D. Myocardial ischemia

A

B. Hyaline membrane disease

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19
Q

Which medical problem may be related to menstrual disorders?

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hypertension
C. Adrenal insufficiency
D. Myocardial ischemia

A

C. Adrenal insufficiency

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20
Q

Which is not included in the 4 T mnemonic to identify and address the 4 causes of postpartum hemorrhage?

A. Thrombin
B. Trauma
C. Tone
D. Tension

A

D. Tension

*Tissue

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21
Q

A 25 year old G1 PO (0000) woman consulted for premature contractions which persist even after resting. However, she never had any previous prenatal checkups with you. On physical exam her fundic height is 21 cm with fetal heart tone of 145/min at the left lower quadrant. Based on her alleged last normal menstrual period, she is on her 27-28 weeks age of gestation. What is the best test to rule out growth retardation?

A. Ultrasound with Doppler
B. 4D Ultrasound
C. Velocimetry doppler
D. Amniocentesis

A

C. Velocimetry doppler

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22
Q

Which of the following gives higher risk for ectopic pregnancy?

A. Low folic acid intake
B. History of sexually transmitted disease
C. In vitro fertilization
D. Prior pelvic or abdominal surgery

A

B. History of sexually transmitted disease

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23
Q

What will you advise a 48 year old woman who has been experiencing menopausal symptoms especially hot flashes if she does not take hormone replacement therapy?

A. They usually will spontaneously resolve within 1 year of the last menses
B. They are the final manifestation of menopause
C. They can begin several years before actual menopause
D. They are normal and rarely interfere with her well being

A

C. They can begin several years before actual menopause

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24
Q

The following signs and symptoms may indicate threatened abortion?

A. Vaginal bleeding in first trimester with back pain
B. Painless cervical effacement any age of gestation
C. First trimester vaginal bleeding with or without cramps
D. Rupture of membrane is noted at the second trimester

A

C. First trimester vaginal bleeding with or without cramps

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25
Q

To which risk is the risk of prematurity equal to?

A. Future fertility
B. Infection
C. Birth injuries
D. Blood loss

A

B. Infection

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26
Q

The following statements are true except which?

A. An option to delivering fetus in occiput posterior is through forceps
B. A persistent occiput transverse is more common with android pelvis
C. Occiput posterior will often slow the progress of labor
D. During descent, occiput posterior position may rotate to occiput anterior

A

B. A persistent occiput transverse is more common with android pelvis

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27
Q

Which element when it deposits in the pituitary may result in the destruction of cells producing LH and FSH?

A. Selenium
B. Zinc
C. Iron
D. Copper

A

C. Iron

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28
Q

Which can be given to menopausal women taking estrogen who still have uterus in situ?

A. Estrone
B. Progestins
C. Estradiol
D. Tamoxifen

A

C. Estradiol

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29
Q

What type of cervical mucus indicates a woman has ovulated?

A. Pearly
B. Thin
C. Thick
D. Opaque

A

C. Thick

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30
Q

What is the common obstetrical complication of macrosomic fetus?

A. Prolonged second stage
B. Shoulder dystocia
C. Hypertonic uterine contraction
D. Cord prolapse

A

B. Shoulder dystocia

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31
Q

Which is not a psychological symptom of menopause?

A. Anxiety
B. Depression
C. Hot flushes
D. Irritability

A

C. Hot flushes

32
Q

The following is included in the TRIPLE SCREENING TEST for aneuploidy except which?

A. Estriol
B. Inhibin A
C. MSAFP
D. B-hCG

A

B. Inhibin A

33
Q

What antiseptic has shown convincing evidence in decreasing the risk for postoperative endometritis?

A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Hypochlorous solution
C. Potassium permanganate
D. Chlorhexidine

A

D. Chlorhexidine

34
Q

Where does 99% of ectopic pregnancy implant?

A. Horn of the uterus
B. Peritoneum
C. Right ovary
D. Fallopian tubes

A

D. Fallopian tubes

35
Q

Which must be ruled out in pregnant women with chancroid lesion?

A. Granuloma inguinale
B. Gonorrhea
C. Lymphogranuloma
D. Syphilis

A

D. Syphilis

36
Q

What is the most common form of rheumatic valvular heart disease in women?

A. Mitral insufficiency
B. Pulmonary stenosis
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Mitral stenosis

A

A. Mitral insufficiency

37
Q

Which is believed to be associated with early menopause?

A. Sodas
B. Smoking
C. Red meat
D. Coffee

A

B. Smoking

38
Q

A 24 year old parturient on her 38 weeks age of gestation was admitted for labor pains. On her 10-11th hour of labor, sudden gush of watery fluid was noted coming from the vagina. The cervix is fully effaced and fully dilated with fetal head in station 0. She also noted that the sagittal suture was closer to the maternal body pelvis and more of the parietal bone was felt but the examining fingers. About three hours later, repeat internal exam revealed the fetal head in occiput posterior presentation. This fetal position can lead to a higher probability of which?

A. Fetal distress
B. Cesarean delivery
C. Uterine atony
D. Shorter labor

A

B. Cesarean delivery

39
Q

Which drug can be given to pregnant women for acute seizures?

A. Carbamezipine
B. Diazepam
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Secobarbital

A

C. Magnesium sulfate

40
Q

Which relatively permanent contraceptive method blocks the meeting of the egg and sperm?

A. Implanon
B. Vasectomy
C. Oral contraceptives
D. Bilateral tubal ligation

A

D. Bilateral tubal ligation

41
Q

What is the term used to describe the fluttery sensation experienced by pregnant women when she first feels fetal movement?

A. Lightening
B. Show
C. Fetal kick
D. Quickening

A

D. Quickening

42
Q

What is the target glucose value in mg/dL of patients with Gestational Diabetes?

A. Less than 100
B. Less than 95
C. Equal or less than 95
D. Equal or less than 120

A

C. Equal or less than 95

43
Q

Which anti-hypertensive drug is used to control premature labor?

A. Terbutaline
B. Nifedipine
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Metoprolol

A

B. Nifedipine

44
Q

Mature cystic teratomas are also referred to as:

A. Hilus cell
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Granulosa cell
D. Thecoma

A

B. Dermoid cyst

45
Q

What is the most frequently used spermicide?

A. Menfegol
B. Benzalkonium chloride
C. Copper
D. Nonoxynol-9

A

D. Nonoxynol-9

46
Q

What is the relation of the fetal head to the ischial spines of the female pelvis?

A. Engagement
B. Lie
C. Presentation
D. Station

A

D. Station

47
Q

What is the main reason for adding progestin to hormone replacement therapy of women with uterus?

A. To cause a regular cyclical bleeding
B. To decrease the risk of endometrial hyperplasia
C. To decrease the risk for hypercholesterolemia
D. To prevent derrangement of liver function

A

B. To decrease the risk of endometrial hyperplasia

48
Q

What is the serum concentration of MgSO4 in mg/mL for therapeutic prophylaxis?

A. 3.2 to 4.5
B. 0.84 to 3.8
C. 4.8 to 8.4
D. 8.5 to 9.5

A

C. 4.8 to 8.4

49
Q

Which part of the female genital tract is often involved in granuloma inguinale?

A. Fallopian tubes
B. Skin of the vulva
C. Cervical os
D. Ovaries

A

B. Skin of the vulva

50
Q

Which of the following conditions will make the use of the Billing’s method unreliable?

A. PCOS
B. Cervicitis
C. Diabetes
D. Nulliparity

A

B. Cervicitis

51
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Those who underwent cesarean delivery have a higher readmission rate for wound infection than those who delivered vaginally
B. The etiologic organisms associated episiotomy site infections are Staphylococcus or Streptococcus
C. Vaginal secretions contain as many as 10, billion organisms per gram of fluid
D. Infections after delivery develop in 20% of patients who underwent episiotomies

A

C. Vaginal secretions contain as many as 10, billion organisms per gram of fluid

52
Q

An 18 year old girl consulted for burning sensation on urination and pus like greenish and cloudy vaginal discharge. Her genitalia was red and swollen on pelvic exam. Her sexual debut was at the age of 15 and she has been sexually active with different men since. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Chlamydia
D. HPV

A

B. Gonorrhea

53
Q

Which hormone is believed to cause increased frequency of seizures during pregnancy because of its effects on the metabolism of anti epileptic drugs?

A. Progesterone
B. Placental insulinase
C. Estrogen
D. Beta-hcg

A

C. Estrogen

54
Q

What is the most common type of breech presentation?

A. Complete
B. Single footling
C. Double footling
D. Frank breech

A

D. Frank breech

55
Q

Which is the most common site of laceration after labor and delivery?

A. Perineum
B. Periurethral area
C. Cervix
D. Labia majora

A

A. Perineum

56
Q

Which screening test is highly correlated with the risk of neural tube defects?

A. Free beta human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Free estriol level
C. Maternal serum Alpha feto protein
D. Serum levels of PAFP-A

A

C. Maternal serum Alpha feto protein

57
Q

When is the screening for aneuploidy recommended?

A. Initial visit regardless of age of gestation
B. Between 11 and 13 weeks of gestation
C. Between 8-10 weeks age of gestation
D. Only when the ultrasound recommends it

A

B. Between 11 and 13 weeks of gestation

58
Q

Which test can differentiate hypergonadotropic hypogonadism from hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

A. FSH: LH ratio will be more than 4 for hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
B. Hemosiderosis is seen in the pituitary on MRI
C. FSH levels are higher in hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
D. FSH levels are higher in hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

A

C. FSH levels are higher in hypergonadotropic hypogonadism

59
Q

The following signs and symptoms have to be investigated for women with amenorrhea except which?

A. Excess facial hair
B. Headache
C. Milky nipple discharge
D. Skin dermatosis

A

D. Skin dermatosis

60
Q

Patients bleeding greater than 2 to 3 will commonly develop which serious complication?

A. Chronic tubular necrosis
B. Consumptive coagulopathy
C. Acute pulmonary failure
D. Hypoxic encephalopathy

A

B. Consumptive coagulopathy

61
Q

What is the main cause of asphyxia in most of incomplete breech?

A. Cerebral palsy
B. Oligohydramnios
C. Prolapse of umbilical cord
D. Prematurity

A

C. Prolapse of umbilical cord

62
Q

The lemon sign and banana sign on ultrasound findings are diagnostic of which disorder?

A. Potter syndrome
B. Spina bifida
C. Down syndrome
D. Klinefelter

A

B. Spina bifida

63
Q

Which anti-epileptic drug is metabolized to phenobarbital?

A. Topiramate
B. Primidone
C. Valproic acid
D. Phenytoin

A

B. Primidone

64
Q

What is the purpose of flexion in labor?

A. Allows the smallest diameter of the fetal head to pass the ischial spines
B. Allows the occiput to lead and the smallest diameter of the fetal head to negotiate downward through the pelvis
C. Allows the fetal head to distend the perineum and the occiput to pass beneath the symphysis pubis
D. Allows the vertex to rotate from transverse to either anterior or posterior position

A

B. Allows the occiput to lead and the smallest diameter of the fetal head to negotiate downward through the pelvis

65
Q

What is the purpose of adding progestins in Hormonal replacement (HRT) of menopausal women?

A. To allow better control of Type II diabetes
B. To prevent hypertension
C. To prevent obesity
D. To prevent endometrial cancer

A

D. To prevent endometrial cancer

66
Q

Irregular contractions that do not lead to cervical changes is called?

A. Montevideo
B. Premature labor
C. Hypertonic uterus
D. Braxton Hicks

A

D. Braxton hicks

67
Q

Which specific hormone peaks in the plasma as circulating FSH rise?

A. Estrone
B. Estradiol
C. Estriol
D. Progesterone

A

B. Estradiol

68
Q

Evaluation of amenorrhea should be started for girls with the following conditions except which?

A. No pubertal development by age 13
B. Menarche has not occured 5 years after breast development
C. No menarche by the age of 15 years
D. No pubertal development by age 15

A

A. No pubertal development by age 13

69
Q

Which antibiotic can be given to prevent chorioamnionitis in women with premature rupture of membrane who are allergic to penicillin?

A. Cefuroxime
B. Erythromycin
C. Cephalexin
D. Clavulanic acid

A

B. Erythromycin

70
Q

What is the leading preventable cause of infertility?

A. Erectike dysfunction
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Smoking
D. Alcohol use

A

B. Pelvic inflammatory disease

71
Q

What percent is infertility due to both the female and male partners?

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 35%

A

B. 20%

72
Q

As many as 7% cases of placenta previa may be associated with:

A. Congenital anomalies
B. Placenta accreta
C. Intrauterine growth retardation
D. Vasa previa

A

B. Placenta accreta

73
Q

What is the cause of spontaneous hemorrhage believed to be related to?

A. Increasing production of prostaglandin by the fetus
B. Due to the enlarging volume of the uterus
C. Development of the lower uterine segment
D. Increasing frequency of Braxton Hick’s by the 32nd weeks age of gestation

A

C. Development of the lower uterine segment

74
Q

Which of the following should never be done on a patient with placenta previa unless she is already in the operating room?

A. Transabdominal ultrasound
B. Internal examination
C. Leopold’s manuever
D. Transrectal digital exam

A

B. Internal examination

75
Q

What site of placental previa implantation is associated with profound hemorrhage?

A. Mid anterior
B. Posterior
C. Anterior
D. Mid posterior

A

B. Posterior

76
Q

What is the most common histologic type of cervical cancer on biopsy?

A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Lymphoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Small cell carcinoma

A

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

ob gyn (10 decks)

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