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QUESTIONS > PLATINUM FLASHCARDS > Flashcards

PLATINUM FLASHCARDS

Neuro Endo Nephro Cardio

1
Q

What phase of the cardiac cycle is preceded by the P-wave and causes an increase in atrial pressure?

A

Atrial contraction

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2
Q

Which wave is seen in the venous pulse curve during atrial contraction?

A

a wave

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3
Q

What event marks the beginning of isovolumetric ventricular contraction?

A

Closure of the mitral valve

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4
Q

During which phase of the cardiac cycle does the aortic valve close, followed by closure of the pulmonic valve?

A

Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation

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5
Q

What is the longest phase of the cardiac cycle?

A

Reduced ventricular filling (diastasis)

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6
Q

What is the equation for Blood Pressure?

A

Blood Pressure = Cardiac Output x Total Peripheral Resistance (TPR)

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7
Q

How is Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) calculated?

A

MAP = Diastolic BP + 1/3 (Systolic BP - Diastolic BP)

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8
Q

What law describes the relationship between blood viscosity, vessel length, and radius in determining resistance?

A

Poiseuille’s Law

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9
Q

What does Starling’s Equation determine?

A

Net fluid movement in capillaries

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10
Q

What is the Abdominojugular Reflex and what is a positive response?

A

Sustained rise of >3 cm in JVP during firm abdominal pressure

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11
Q

Which murmur is intensified during inspiration?

A

Carvallo Sign (Tricuspid regurgitation murmur)

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12
Q

What is a Corrigan Pulse?

A

A rapidly rising ‘water-hammer’ pulse that collapses suddenly in aortic regurgitation

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13
Q

What is the classic auscultatory finding in aortic regurgitation?

A

Diastolic decrescendo murmur

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14
Q

What is Quincke’s Pulse?

A

Capillary pulsations in the nail bed seen in aortic regurgitation

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15
Q

What is the most widely used test for diagnosing ischemic heart disease (IHD)?

A

12-lead ECG during exercise (stress test)

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16
Q

What is the gold standard for assessing LV mass and volume?

A

MRI

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17
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for assessing small valvular lesions like vegetations?

A

Transesophageal echocardiography

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18
Q

What are the three principal ECG features of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?

A

Short PR interval, Delta wave, Prolonged QRS duration

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19
Q

What is the most common sustained arrhythmia?

A

Atrial fibrillation

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death?

A

Ventricular fibrillation

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21
Q

Which arrhythmia is associated with polymorphic ventricular tachycardia and prolonged QT?

A

Torsades de Pointes

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22
Q

Which medication is contraindicated in WPW syndrome?

A

Digoxin

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23
Q

What are the cardinal symptoms of heart failure?

A

Fatigue and shortness of breath

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24
Q

What is the most common cause of heart failure in industrialized countries?

A

Coronary artery disease and hypertension

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25
Q

What drug class is the cornerstone of pharmacologic therapy for HFrEF?

A

RAAS blockers (ACE inhibitors, ARBs, ARNI) and beta-blockers

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26
Q

Which diuretic class is primarily used to control congestion in HFpEF?

A

Loop diuretics

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27
Q

What is the hallmark auscultatory finding of mitral stenosis?

A

Opening snap followed by a diastolic rumbling murmur

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28
Q

What are the three cardinal symptoms of aortic stenosis?

A

Syncope, Angina, Dyspnea (SAD)

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29
Q

What valvular pathology is common in IV drug users?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

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30
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect recognized at birth?

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

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31
Q

Which congenital heart defect is associated with Turner Syndrome?

A

Coarctation of the Aorta (CoA)

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32
Q

What is the first-line therapy for Eisenmenger Syndrome?

A

Pulmonary vasodilators (e.g., Sildenafil, Bosentan)

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33
Q

Which congenital heart defect is characterized by an egg-on-a-string appearance on CXR?

A

Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA)

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34
Q

What is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?

A

Atherosclerotic plaque rupture with thrombosis

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35
Q

What is the preferred biomarker for diagnosing myocardial infarction?

A

Cardiac troponins (T and I)

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36
Q

What is the treatment goal for STEMI patients in PCI-capable hospitals?

A

Door-to-balloon time ≤90 minutes

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37
Q

What drug class is contraindicated in STEMI patients due to increased myocardial rupture risk?

A

NSAIDs (except aspirin) and corticosteroids

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38
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?

A

Primary renal disease

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39
Q

Which lifestyle modification is the most effective for reducing hypertension?

A

Weight loss

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40
Q

What is the classic symptom of Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)?

A

Intermittent claudication

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41
Q

What is the cutoff ABI diagnostic of PAD?

A

ABI <0.90

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42
Q

What is the hallmark of rheumatic carditis?

A

Valvular damage

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43
Q

What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic heart disease

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44
Q

What is the classic rash of acute rheumatic fever?

A

Erythema marginatum

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45
Q

What is the pathognomonic histological finding in rheumatic heart disease?

A

Aschoff bodies

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46
Q

What is the most common pathology associated with ascending aortic aneurysms?

A

Medial degeneration

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47
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary lymphedema worldwide?

A

Filariasis

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48
Q

What condition is associated with a widened mediastinum on CXR and sudden onset of tearing chest pain?

A

Aortic dissection

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49
Q

Which drug is used to lower triglycerides in metabolic syndrome?

A

Fibrates

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50
Q

What is the primary cause of out-of-hospital death in STEMI patients?

A

Ventricular fibrillation

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51
Q

Which medication class is the mainstay for treating Prinzmetal’s angina?

A

Calcium channel blockers

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52
Q

What is the site of erythropoietin (EPO) production?

A

Interstitial cells of the peritubular capillaries.

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53
Q

What cells absorb Na+ and H2O and secrete K+ in the late distal tubule?

A

Principal cells.

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54
Q

What cells absorb K+ and secrete H+ in the late distal tubule?

A

Intercalated cells.

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55
Q

What structure detects decreased BP or decreased GFR?

A

Macula Densa in the distal tubule.

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56
Q

What hormone is released by juxtaglomerular (JG) cells in response to decreased BP?

A

Renin.

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57
Q

What enzyme converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II?

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) in the lungs.

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58
Q

What are the actions of ADH via V1 receptors?

A

Vasoconstriction of systemic arterioles leading to increased TPR and BP.

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59
Q

What are the actions of ADH via V2 receptors?

A

Insertion of aquaporins in the collecting ducts, increasing water reabsorption.

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60
Q

What triggers ADH secretion?

A

Increased plasma osmolarity (main trigger), decreased blood volume, decreased blood pressure.

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61
Q

What is the normal filtration fraction (FF)?

A

20% (FF = GFR/Renal Plasma Flow).

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62
Q

What happens to FF with efferent arteriole vasoconstriction?

A

FF increases.

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63
Q

What is the best imaging test for nephrolithiasis?

A

Helical CT scan without contrast.

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64
Q

What is the most common cause of AKI?

A

Prerenal Azotemia.

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65
Q

What are the hallmarks of nephrotic syndrome? (Mnemonic: EPAL)

A

Edema, Proteinuria (>3.5g/day), hypoAlbuminemia, hyperLipidemia.

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66
Q

What are the hallmarks of nephritic syndrome? (Mnemonic: OHHA)

A

Oliguria, Hematuria, Hypertension, Azotemia.

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67
Q

What is the most common renal imaging study?

A

Renal ultrasound.

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68
Q

What is the leading cause of ESRD?

A

Diabetes mellitus.

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69
Q

What is the most common form of renal replacement therapy for AKI?

A

Hemodialysis.

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70
Q

What is the best potential treatment for complete renal rehabilitation?

A

Kidney transplantation.

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71
Q

What are clear indications for dialysis in CKD patients?

A

Uremic pericarditis, encephalopathy, refractory hyperkalemia, volume overload.

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72
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of nephrolithiasis?

A

Non-contrast helical CT scan.

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73
Q

What is the most common cause of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?

A

Ischemia and nephrotoxins.

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74
Q

What are the three categories of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

A

Prerenal, Intrinsic, Postrenal.

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75
Q

What is the hallmark of AKI?

A

Elevated BUN and creatinine with decreased urine output.

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76
Q

What is the classic sign of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)?

A

Crescentic glomerulonephritis.

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77
Q

What is the leading cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS).

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78
Q

What hormone increases blood glucose and has direct and indirect effects via IGF-1?

A

Growth Hormone (GH).

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79
Q

What inhibits prolactin secretion?

A

Dopamine (Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone, PIH).

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80
Q

What is the primary function of thyroid hormone?

A

Increases BMR, stimulates Na+/K+ ATPase, increases cerebration, enhances β1 receptor activity in the heart.

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81
Q

What is the main action of aldosterone?

A

Increases Na+ reabsorption, K+ secretion, and H+ secretion in the kidney.

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82
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma.

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83
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?

A

HbA1c > 6.5% or Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG) > 126 mg/dL.

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84
Q

What is the classic triad of pheochromocytoma?

A

Episodic headache, sweating, tachycardia.

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85
Q

What are the three ketone bodies in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A

Acetoacetate, β-hydroxybutyrate, Acetone.

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86
Q

What is the primary goal in diabetes management?

A

HbA1c < 7.0%.

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87
Q

What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia?

A

Hyperparathyroidism.

88
Q

What is the leading cause of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

ACTH-producing pituitary adenoma (Cushing disease).

89
Q

What are the microvascular complications of diabetes?

A

Retinopathy, neuropathy, nephropathy.

90
Q

What are the macrovascular complications of diabetes?

A

Coronary heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease.

91
Q

What is the preferred screening test for osteoporosis?

A

Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA).

92
Q

What is the site of erythropoietin (EPO) production?

A

Interstitial cells of the peritubular capillaries.

93
Q

What cells absorb Na+ and H2O and secrete K+ in the late distal tubule?

A

Principal cells.

94
Q

What cells absorb K+ and secrete H+ in the late distal tubule?

A

Intercalated cells.

95
Q

What structure detects decreased BP or decreased GFR?

A

Macula Densa in the distal tubule.

96
Q

What hormone is released by juxtaglomerular (JG) cells in response to decreased BP?

97
Q

What enzyme converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II?

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) in the lungs.

98
Q

What are the actions of ADH via V1 receptors?

A

Vasoconstriction of systemic arterioles leading to increased TPR and BP.

99
Q

What are the actions of ADH via V2 receptors?

A

Insertion of aquaporins in the collecting ducts, increasing water reabsorption.

100
Q

What triggers ADH secretion?

A

Increased plasma osmolarity (main trigger), decreased blood volume, decreased blood pressure.

101
Q

What is the normal filtration fraction (FF)?

A

20% (FF = GFR/Renal Plasma Flow).

102
Q

What happens to FF with efferent arteriole vasoconstriction?

A

FF increases.

103
Q

What is the best imaging test for nephrolithiasis?

A

Helical CT scan without contrast.

104
Q

What is the most common cause of AKI?

A

Prerenal Azotemia.

105
Q

What are the hallmarks of nephrotic syndrome? (Mnemonic: EPAL)

A

Edema, Proteinuria (>3.5g/day), hypoAlbuminemia, hyperLipidemia.

106
Q

What are the hallmarks of nephritic syndrome? (Mnemonic: OHHA)

A

Oliguria, Hematuria, Hypertension, Azotemia.

107
Q

What is the most common renal imaging study?

A

Renal ultrasound.

108
Q

What is the leading cause of ESRD?

A

Diabetes mellitus.

109
Q

What is the most common form of renal replacement therapy for AKI?

A

Hemodialysis.

110
Q

What is the best potential treatment for complete renal rehabilitation?

A

Kidney transplantation.

111
Q

What are clear indications for dialysis in CKD patients?

A

Uremic pericarditis, encephalopathy, refractory hyperkalemia, volume overload.

112
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of nephrolithiasis?

A

Non-contrast helical CT scan.

113
Q

What is the most common cause of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?

A

Ischemia and nephrotoxins.

114
Q

What are the three categories of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

A

Prerenal, Intrinsic, Postrenal.

115
Q

What is the hallmark of AKI?

A

Elevated BUN and creatinine with decreased urine output.

116
Q

What is the classic sign of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)?

A

Crescentic glomerulonephritis.

117
Q

What is the leading cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS).

118
Q

What hormone increases blood glucose and has direct and indirect effects via IGF-1?

A

Growth Hormone (GH).

119
Q

What inhibits prolactin secretion?

A

Dopamine (Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone, PIH).

120
Q

What is the primary function of thyroid hormone?

A

Increases BMR, stimulates Na+/K+ ATPase, increases cerebration, enhances β1 receptor activity in the heart.

121
Q

What is the main action of aldosterone?

A

Increases Na+ reabsorption, K+ secretion, and H+ secretion in the kidney.

122
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma.

123
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?

A

HbA1c > 6.5% or Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG) > 126 mg/dL.

124
Q

What is the classic triad of pheochromocytoma?

A

Episodic headache, sweating, tachycardia.

125
Q

What are the three ketone bodies in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A

Acetoacetate, β-hydroxybutyrate, Acetone.

126
Q

What is the primary goal in diabetes management?

A

HbA1c < 7.0%.

127
Q

What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia?

A

Hyperparathyroidism.

128
Q

What is the leading cause of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

ACTH-producing pituitary adenoma (Cushing disease).

129
Q

What are the microvascular complications of diabetes?

A

Retinopathy, neuropathy, nephropathy.

130
Q

What are the macrovascular complications of diabetes?

A

Coronary heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease.

131
Q

What is the preferred screening test for osteoporosis?

A

Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA).

132
Q

Alpha-1 Receptors (α1) mechanism of action

A

Gq protein, increased IP3/Ca2+, causes smooth muscle contraction

133
Q

Alpha-2 Receptors (α2) mechanism of action

A

Gi protein, decreased cAMP, reuptake of NE or smooth muscle relaxation

134
Q

Beta-1 Receptors (β1) mechanism of action

A

Gs protein, increased cAMP, excitation in the heart and kidneys

135
Q

Beta-2 Receptors (β2) mechanism of action

A

Gs protein, increased cAMP, smooth muscle relaxation

136
Q

Nicotinic receptor (NM)

A

Found in skeletal muscle MEP, binds with ACh, opens Na-K channel

137
Q

Nicotinic receptor (NN)

A

Found in autonomic ganglia (dendrites of postganglionic neurons), opens Na-K channel

138
Q

Muscarinic receptor (M1)

A

Located in CNS, binds with ACh, Gq, increases IP3/Ca2+

139
Q

Muscarinic receptor (M2)

A

Located in the heart, binds with ACh, Gi, decreases cAMP

140
Q

Muscarinic receptor (M3)

A

Located in glands and smooth muscles, binds with ACh, Gq, increases IP3/Ca2+

141
Q

Neurotransmitter used in neuromuscular junction and autonomic nervous system

A

Acetylcholine

142
Q

Neurotransmitter secreted by postganglionic sympathetic neurons

A

Norepinephrine

143
Q

Neurotransmitter mainly secreted by the adrenal medulla with greater β2 effect

A

Epinephrine

144
Q

Neurotransmitter secreted by the substantia nigra for fine-tuned movement and by the hypothalamus to decrease prolactin

145
Q

Neurotransmitter derived from tryptophan, associated with depression when low

146
Q

Neurotransmitter that is a permeant gas, inhibitory NT, and vasodilator

A

Nitric Oxide (NO)

147
Q

Main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord

148
Q

Main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain

149
Q

Main excitatory neurotransmitter of the brain

150
Q

Cranial nerve responsible for eyelid opening, most extraocular muscle contraction, accommodation, and pupillary constriction

A

CN III (Oculomotor nerve)

151
Q

Cranial nerve responsible for taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

CN VII (Facial nerve)

152
Q

Cranial nerve responsible for general sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

CN V (Trigeminal nerve)

153
Q

Most common primary headache syndromes

A

Migraine, tension-type headache, and cluster headache

154
Q

Most disabling headache

155
Q

Core feature of cluster headache

A

Periodicity

156
Q

Most serious cause of secondary headache

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

157
Q

Most common malignant brain tumor in childhood

A

Medulloblastoma

158
Q

Most common malignant brain tumor overall

A

Glioblastoma (Grade IV astrocytoma)

159
Q

Most common cause of brain metastases

A

Lung and breast cancer

160
Q

Most common metastatic tumor associated with intracerebral hemorrhage

A

Choriocarcinoma, melanoma, renal cell carcinoma

161
Q

Best imaging modality for brain metastases

162
Q

Classic clinical triad of meningitis

A

Fever, headache, nuchal rigidity

163
Q

Most common bacterial cause of meningitis in adults >20 years

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

164
Q

Most common cause of viral meningitis

A

Enteroviruses

165
Q

Most common symptom of brain abscess

166
Q

Most common seizure type resulting from metabolic derangements

A

Generalized tonic-clonic seizures

167
Q

Most common focal seizure syndrome

A

Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy Syndrome

168
Q

Best initial choice for generalized tonic-clonic seizures

A

Valproic acid, Lamotrigine, Levetiracetam

169
Q

Most common cause of stroke

A

Hypertension

170
Q

Gold standard imaging for stroke

A

MRI with diffusion-weighted imaging

171
Q

Most common cause of hypertensive hemorrhage

A

Putamen (Sentinel sign: contralateral hemiparesis)

172
Q

Most common cause of peripheral neuropathy

A

Diabetes mellitus

173
Q

Most common cranial mononeuropathy in diabetes

A

Facial nerve palsy (CN VII)

174
Q

Most common movement disorder

A

Essential tremor

175
Q

Most common cause of Parkinsonism

A

Parkinson’s Disease (PD)

176
Q

Mainstay therapy for Parkinson’s Disease

A

Levodopa-Carbidopa

177
Q

Most common form of hyperkinetic drug reaction

178
Q

Gold standard test for Wilson’s Disease

A

Liver biopsy

179
Q

Most frequently abused drug

180
Q

Antidote for benzodiazepine overdose

A

Flumazenil

181
Q

Most common side effect of dipyridamole

182
Q

Most common toxic side effect of chemotherapy after myelosuppression

A

Neurotoxicity

183
Q

First-line drugs for Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizures

A

Lamotrigine, Valproic acid

184
Q

Alternative drugs for Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizures

A

Zonisamide, Phenytoin, Levetiracetam, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Topiramate, Phenobarbital, Primidone, Felbamate

185
Q

First-line drugs for Focal Seizures

A

Lamotrigine, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Phenytoin, Levetiracetam

186
Q

Alternative drugs for Focal Seizures

A

Zonisamide, Brivaracetam, Topiramate, Valproic acid, Tiagabine, Gabapentin, Lacosamide, Phenobarbital, Primidone, Felbamate

187
Q

First-line drugs for Typical Absence Seizures

A

Valproic acid, Ethosuximide, Lamotrigine

188
Q

Alternative drugs for Typical Absence Seizures

A

Lamotrigine, Clonazepam

189
Q

First-line drugs for Myoclonic and Atypical Absence Syndromes

A

Valproic acid, Lamotrigine, Topiramate

190
Q

Alternative drugs for Myoclonic and Atypical Absence Syndromes

A

Clonazepam, Felbamate, Clobazam, Rufinamide

191
Q

Effects of GABA-A receptor

A

Increases Cl- influx, hyperpolarization, inhibition of neuronal firing

192
Q

Effects of GABA-B receptor

A

Increases K+ efflux, decreases Ca2+ influx, inhibits neurotransmitter release

193
Q

Drugs causing Disulfiram-like reactions

A

Chlorpropamide, CefoPerazone, CefaMandole, CefoTetan, Procarbazine, Metronidazole

194
Q

Mechanism of Disulfiram-like reaction

A

Inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase leading to accumulation of acetaldehyde

195
Q

Most common form of Parkinsonism

A

Parkinson’s Disease (PD)

196
Q

Most common cause of Familial PD

A

Mutations of the LRRK2 gene

197
Q

Most common cause of secondary Parkinsonism

A

Dopamine blocking agents

198
Q

Mainstay of therapy for Parkinson’s Disease

A

Levodopa-Carbidopa

199
Q

Most common cause of peripheral neuropathy

A

Diabetes mellitus

200
Q

Most common movement disorder

A

Essential tremor

201
Q

Most common systemic disorder that causes chorea

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

202
Q

Most common acute hyperkinetic drug reaction

203
Q

Most common subacute drug reaction

204
Q

Gold standard test for Wilson’s Disease

A

Liver biopsy

205
Q

Most common primary headache syndromes

A

Migraine, tension-type headache, and cluster headache

206
Q

Most serious cause of secondary headache

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

207
Q

Classic triad of meningitis

A

Fever, headache, nuchal rigidity

208
Q

Most common bacterial cause of meningitis in adults

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

209
Q

Most common cause of viral meningitis

A

Enteroviruses

210
Q

Most common seizure type in epilepsy

A

Generalized tonic-clonic seizures

211
Q

Most common focal seizure syndrome

A

Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy Syndrome

212
Q

Most common cause of ischemic stroke

A

Atherosclerosis

213
Q

Most common cause of hypertensive hemorrhage

A

Putamen (Sentinel sign: contralateral hemiparesis)

214
Q

Gold standard imaging for stroke

A

MRI with diffusion-weighted imaging

215
Q

Most common site of hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage

A

Basal ganglia (putamen, thalamus, pons, cerebellum)

216
Q

Best imaging modality for brain metastases

QUESTIONS (29 decks)

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