Platinum FC Part 2 Flashcards
Derma Onco Hema Pulmo GI
What is Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)?
Maximum air inhaled beyond normal tidal volume.
What is Tidal Volume (TV)?
Air inhaled/exhaled in a relaxed state (~500mL).
What is Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)?
Air exhaled beyond tidal volume.
What is Residual Volume (RV)?
Air remaining in lungs post-maximal exhalation.
How is Vital Capacity (VC) calculated?
VC = IRV + TV + ERV.
How is Inspiratory Capacity (IC) calculated?
IC = IRV + TV.
How is Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) calculated?
FRC = ERV + RV.
How is Total Lung Capacity (TLC) calculated?
TLC = IRV + TV + ERV + RV.
What are the three pulmonary zones?
Zone 1: No blood flow, Zone 2: Intermittent blood flow, Zone 3: Continuous blood flow.
What is the V/Q ratio at the apex of the lung?
3.0 (wasted ventilation).
What is the V/Q ratio at the base of the lung?
0.6 (wasted perfusion).
What happens in a V/Q ratio of 0?
Airway obstruction (shunt, 100% O2 does not help).
What happens in a V/Q ratio of ∞?
Blood flow obstruction (dead space, e.g., PE, 100% O2 helps).
How is oxygen transported in the blood?
98% bound to hemoglobin (Hb), 2% dissolved in plasma.
How is CO2 transported in the blood?
70% as HCO3⁻, 23% bound to Hb, 7% dissolved in plasma.
What causes a right shift in the O2-Hb dissociation curve?
CADET face RIGHT: ↑CO2, Acidosis, 2,3-BPG, Exercise, Temperature.
What causes a left shift in the O2-Hb dissociation curve?
↓CO2, Alkalosis, Fetal Hb, Carbon monoxide.
What are the main respiratory centers?
DRG (medulla) - Inspiration, VRG (medulla) - Expiration, Pneumotaxic center - ↑Resp. rate, Apneustic center - Prolongs inspiration.
What is the diagnostic criterion for asthma reversibility?
> 12% & 200mL increase in FEV1 after bronchodilator.
What is the hallmark of COPD?
Airflow obstruction.
What is the most common cause of COPD?
Smoking.
What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
What are the primary treatments for asthma?
ICS, β₂-agonists, leukotriene antagonists.
What is the function of Meissner’s Plexus?
Controls secretion in the GI tract.
What is the function of Auerbach’s Plexus?
Controls motility in the GI tract.
What do Parietal Cells secrete?
HCl and Intrinsic Factor.
What do Chief Cells secrete?
Pepsinogen.
Where is iron absorbed?
Duodenum.
Where are carbohydrates, fats, and proteins absorbed?
Jejunum.
Where are vitamin B12 and bile salts absorbed?
Ileum.
What triggers Gastrin secretion?
Protein, stomach distension.
What is the function of Cholecystokinin (CCK)?
Stimulates bile secretion, slows gastric emptying.
What triggers Secretin secretion?
Acid and fatty acids in the duodenum.
What triggers Glucose-dependent Insulinotropic Peptide (GIP)?
Oral glucose intake.
What is the most common cause of GERD?
Lower esophageal sphincter dysfunction.
How is GERD diagnosed?
24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring.
What is the most common cause of Peptic Ulcer Disease?
H. pylori infection and NSAIDs.
What is the first-line treatment for Peptic Ulcer Disease?
PPI + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin/Metronidazole.
What is the hallmark of cirrhosis?
Fibrosis and nodular regeneration.
What are complications of portal hypertension?
Varices, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy.
What is the treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?
Lactulose to reduce ammonia levels.
What is Murphy’s sign indicative of?
Acute cholecystitis.
What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
Gallstones, followed by alcohol.
What is the most specific enzyme for pancreatitis diagnosis?
Serum lipase (>3x normal).
Where is erythropoietin (EPO) produced?
Interstitial cells of the peritubular capillaries.
What is the function of principal cells in the late distal tubule?
Absorb Na+ and H2O, secrete K+.
What is the function of intercalated cells in the distal tubule?
Absorb K+ and secrete H+.
What triggers renin release?
Low BP, low GFR detected by the macula densa.
What is the main function of ADH?
Inserts aquaporins in the collecting duct, increasing water reabsorption.
What triggers ADH release?
Increased plasma osmolarity, decreased blood volume.
What causes metabolic acidosis among diuretics?
Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor).
What causes metabolic alkalosis among diuretics?
Loop diuretics and thiazides.
Important Etiologic Organisms for Diarrhea?
Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium perfringens, Vibrio cholerae, Enterotoxigenic E. coli, etc.
What are the causes of filariasis?
Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi.
Comparison of Malarial Species: Which species has a 48-hour asexual cycle?
Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium vivax.
What are the hallmark features of enteric (typhoid) fever?
Prolonged fever, Rose spots, Neuropsychiatric symptoms, Chronic carriage in some cases.;
RASH: Faint, salmon-colored, blanching, maculopapular rash (Rose spots) on the trunk and chest.
What is the most severe form of leptospirosis?
Weil’s Syndrome (jaundice, renal dysfunction, hemorrhagic diathesis).
What is the prophylaxis for leptospirosis exposure?
Doxycycline.
What is the mainstay treatment for schistosomiasis in the Philippines?
Mass treatment with praziquantel.
Which antibiotic class includes bactericidal agents?
Vancomycin, Fluoroquinolones, Penicillins, Aminoglycosides, Cephalosporins, Metronidazole.
Which drug is used as prophylaxis for malaria in chloroquine-resistant regions?
Doxycycline.
What is the drug of choice for severe malaria?
Artesunate.
What is the hallmark of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
ANA positivity, Anti-dsDNA antibodies, Joint pain, Rash, Hematologic abnormalities.
What is the best screening test for SLE?
ANA (Antinuclear Antibody).
What is the most common cardiac manifestation of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Pericarditis and mitral regurgitation.
What is the most common cause of death in patients with RA?
Cardiovascular disease.
What is the triad of Felty’s syndrome?
Neutropenia, splenomegaly, nodular RA.
Which drug is the DMARD of choice for RA?
Methotrexate.
What are the two major factors contributing to the development of osteoarthritis?
Joint loading and joint vulnerability.
What is the initial analgesic of choice for osteoarthritis?
Acetaminophen or Paracetamol.
What is the treatment for gouty arthritis during an acute attack?
NSAIDs (Indomethacin), Colchicine, or Glucocorticoids.
Which crystal type is found in pseudogout?
Rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent crystals.
What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for ankylosing spondylitis?
NSAIDs.
What is the most common site of infectious arthritis?
Knee.
What is the most common cause of infectious arthritis in sexually active young adults?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Which antibody is most specific for Wegener’s granulomatosis?
c-ANCA (cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies).
What is the most serious manifestation of SLE?
Nephritis.
What is the best initial treatment for reactive arthritis?
NSAIDs.
What is the most common extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis?
Acute anterior uveitis.
What is the most common presentation of infectious arthritis?
Monoarthritis.
What is the dreaded complication of giant cell arteritis?
Ischemic optic neuropathy.
What is the syndrome associated with temporal arteritis characterized by stiffness and muscle pain?
Polymyalgia rheumatica.
What mnemonic helps remember aminoglycoside side effects?
Mean GiANTS canNOT kill anaerobes (Gentamicin, Amikacin, Neomycin, Tobramycin, Streptomycin).
What is the major side effect of aminoglycosides?
Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity, Neuromuscular blockade (contraindicated in myasthenia gravis).
Which antibiotic inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit?
Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin, Clindamycin, Linezolid.
Which cephalosporins have the best CNS penetration?
Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime.
Which cephalosporins have pseudomonal coverage?
Ceftazidime, Cefepime, Cefoperazone.
Which penicillin is associated with pseudomembranous colitis?
Ampicillin.
Acute schistosomiasis in travelers infected for the first time.
katayama fever
eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions in brain neurons.
negri bodies
RABIES
Erythematous papules, pustules, cysts, nodules, open and closed comedones on the face, chest, and upper back
Acne vulgaris
Hallmark lesion of acne
Comedones (closed: whiteheads, open: blackheads due to oxidation)
Most important consideration before initiating isotretinoin therapy for severe acne
Rule out pregnancy (isotretinoin is extremely teratogenic)
Erythematous pruritic or painful papules with central punctum
Insect bites
Erythematous macules, papules more pruritic at night located at the groin, axilla, webs of fingers, toes, elbows, and wrists; other family members with similar lesions
Scabies
Imaginary circle intersecting sites of involvement in scabies
Circle of Hebra
Slightly elevated tortuous lines in the skin with a vesicle or pustule at the end containing the mite
Burrows
Etiologic organism of scabies
Sarcoptes scabiei
Intense pruritus of the scalp, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, excoriations, and erythematous papules at the nape of the neck and retroauricular area secondary to impetigo; nits more common in retroauricular area; common in children
Pediculosis capitis
Discrete extremely pruritic erythematous papulovesicles accompanied by prickling, burning, or tingling, frequently on the antecubital, popliteal, trunk, and inframammary areas; common in hot humid climates
Miliaria rubra (prickly heat)
Acute, round, tender, circumscribed, perifollicular, erythematous lesion that ends in central suppuration
Furuncle
Refers to two or more confluent furuncles
Carbuncle
Refers to inflammation of the follicles resulting in erythematous papules that may eventually develop pustules
Folliculitis
Most common causative agent of folliculitis
Staphylococcus aureus
Dark-red to purple skin discoloration, dusky with borders not clearly delineated, deeper tissue involvement, pain out of proportion to the physical findings, rapid progression of lesion, may have crepitus
Necrotizing fasciitis
History of wound or blister, erythematous area with non-distinct borders, warm, edematous, painful; may have fever; central portion of lesion may become fluctuant and may rupture and discharge purulent material
Cellulitis
Most common portal of entry in the leg for cellulitis
Tinea pedis
Erythematous plaque, heat, swelling, highly characteristic raised indurated border, fever, systemic symptoms
Erysipelas
Ill-defined hypopigmented macules and/or plaque, with minimal sensory loss to light touch and temperature, low AFB bacterial counts on skin biopsy, (+) Lepromin skin test
Tuberculoid leprosy
Macules, papules, plaques, and nodules; nerves are enlarged and tender; progressive loss of hair; high AFB bacterial counts; leonine facies; (-) Lepromin skin test
Lepromatous leprosy
Loss of eyebrows in leprosy
Madarosis
Erythematous greasy yellow-brown scaling on scalp, eyebrows, ears, and perinasal areas; dandruff; can spread beyond the hairline to the forehead
Seborrheic dermatitis
Most common location of seborrheic dermatitis
Scalp (presenting as dandruff)
In infants, yellow-brown scaling on the scalp (seborrheic dermatitis of the scalp)
Cradle cap
Organism implicated in seborrheic dermatitis
Pityrosporum ovale (Malassezia genus)
Pruritic erythematous patches and plaques, scaling, lichenification on the flexural antecubital, popliteal areas in adults; face and extensors in infants and children
Atopic dermatitis
Linear transverse fold below the edge of the lower eyelids
Dennie-Morgan folds
Discrete coin-shaped erythematous, edematous vesicular and crusted patches on the lower extremities and extensor surfaces of the arms
Nummular eczema
Dermatitis sudden in onset, no previous history or exposure, symptoms of pain and burning usually from acidic or alkali substances
Irritant contact dermatitis
Most common site of involvement of Irritant Contact Dermatitis
Hands
Eczematous eruption following exposure to a known or unknown allergen, usually appearing first at the site of contact; associated with plants, nickel, and other compounds
Allergic contact dermatitis
Most common cause of allergic contact dermatitis
Exposure to plants
Erythematous papules and plaques covered with silvery scales on elbows, knees, and scalp; nail pits and other nail changes
Psoriasis
Pinpoint bleeding spots from exposure of dermal papillae when scales are scraped off in psoriasis
Auspitz sign
Major histopathologic findings in psoriasis
Test tubes on a rack (rete pegs, Munro microabscesses, Spongiform pustule of Kogoj)
Psoriasis involving the folds, recesses, and flexor areas such as axillae, groin, inframammary folds
Inverse psoriasis
Abrupt eruption of psoriasis lesions following acute infection such as streptococcal pharyngitis
Guttate psoriasis
Circular sharply circumscribed slightly erythematous dry scaly hypopigmented patches with advancing scaly border and central clearing producing annular outlines
Tinea
Most common fungal disease
Tinea pedis
Causes majority of tinea pedis
Trichophyton rubrum
Infection of the nail plate
Onychomycosis
Multiple scaly hyper- or hypopigmented macules over the chest, back, abdomen, and proximal extremities
Tinea versicolor
Etiologic cause of Tinea versicolor
Malassezia furfur
Classical microscopic finding in Tinea versicolor of short thick fungal hyphae and large numbers of variously sized spores
Spaghetti and meatballs
Salmon-colored macules and papules, collarette of scaling, scales tend to fold along the long axis of the line of stretch follows skin lines (hanging curtain or ‘Christmas tree’ sign), herald patch
Pityriasis rosea
Symmetrical, generalized, maculopapular eruptions, polymorphous, usually over the face, shoulders, flanks, and palms and soles with scaling, with suggestive sexual history, painless genital ulcer
Secondary syphilis
Papular lesions located on folds of moist skin usually around genitals and anus, may become hypertrophic, forming soft red mushroom-like mass, moist weeping gray surface
Condylomata lata
Most frequent manifestation of orolabial herpes
Fever blister or cold sore
Dew drop on rose petal, teardrop on an erythematous base, starting with macules progressing to vesicles, pustules, and crusting, examination of lesions shows different ages of healing usually starting on the trunk spreading centripetally outward
Varicella
Most common complication of varicella
Secondary bacterial infection
Erythema, papules, and plaques initially, mild pain a few days before, subsequently developing vesicles and blisters following a dermatomal distribution, painful
Herpes zoster
Vesicles on the side and tip of nose indicative of ophthalmic zoster
Hutchinson’s sign
Involvement of the facial and auditory nerves by varicella zoster virus
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
Large tense blisters on flexor surfaces, groin, axillae, and trunk, subepidermal blister, anti-hemidesmosome antibodies (Bullous pemphigoid antigens), linear IF pattern
Bullous pemphigoid
Suprabasal blisters, anti-desmosome (desmogleins) antibodies, lace-like IF pattern
Pemphigus vulgaris
Papules, vesicles, and pustules with honey-colored crusts
Impetigo contagiosa
Variant of impetigo, inadequately treated leading to punched-out ulcerative lesions
Ecthyma
Blisters, epidermal detachment resulting from epidermal necrosis, target lesions, dusky purpuric macules with mucosal involvement, <10% body surface area involved
Steven Johnson’s Syndrome
> 30% involvement of body surface area
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)
10-30% involvement of body surface area
SJS-TEN Overlap
Drugs commonly associated with SJS-TEN
Sulfa drugs, anticonvulsants, nevirapine, allopurinol, lamotrigine, oxicam NSAIDs
Multiple erythematous plaques with target or iris lesion morphology, usually precipitated by recent new drug ingestion, often triggered by mycoplasma pneumonia and HSV
Erythema multiforme
Manual pressure to the skin may elicit separation of the epidermis (found in staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, SJS, TEN, and pemphigus vulgaris)
Nikolsky’s sign
Most common pattern of drug-induced reaction
Morbilliform or maculopapular
Young children with individual lesions of smooth-surfaced, firm, dome-shaped, pearly, fleshy papules with central umbilication
Molluscum contagiosum
Numerous small eosinophilic and basophilic inclusion bodies found in histology of molluscum contagiosum
Henderson-Paterson bodies
Brown-black plaques with adherent greasy scales, stuck-on appearance
Seborrheic keratosis
Sudden appearance of multiple seborrheic keratoses suggestive of visceral and hematologic malignancy
Sign of Leser-Trélat
Erythematous macules and papules, macerated skin areas and satellite lesions, white friable patches on mucosal surfaces, immunocompromised states
Candidal infection
Increased thickness of the stratum corneum
Hyperkeratosis
Hyperkeratosis with retention of nuclei in the stratum corneum
Parakeratosis
Epidermal accumulation of edematous fluid in intracellular space
Spongiosis
Process referring to loss of cohesion between epidermal cells
Acantholysis
Violaceous flat-topped papules and plaques with gray lines (Wickham’s striae)
Lichen planus
Condition in dermatological diseases wherein traumatized areas tend to develop new lesions (found in verruca and psoriasis)
Koebner phenomenon
Class 1 (Superpotent) corticosteroids
Clobetasol propionate (0.05%), Betamethasone dipropionate gel/ointment (0.05%), Fluocinonide cream (0.1%), Halobetasol propionate (0.05%)
Class 2 (High Potency) corticosteroids
Betamethasone dipropionate (0.05%), Clobetasol propionate solution (0.05%), Fluocinonide (0.05%), Mometasone furoate ointment (0.1%), Triamcinolone acetonide ointment (0.5%)
Class 3 (Medium-High Potency) corticosteroids
Betamethasone valerate ointment (0.1%), Fluticasone propionate ointment (0.005%), Triamcinolone acetonide cream (0.5%)
Class 4 (Medium Potency) corticosteroids
Fluocinolone acetonide ointment (0.025%), Mometasone furoate cream/lotion (0.1%)
Class 5 (Lower-Medium Potency) corticosteroids
Betamethasone dipropionate lotion (0.05%), Betamethasone valerate cream/lotion (0.1%), Fluocinolone acetonide cream (0.025%), Fluticasone propionate cream/lotion (0.05%), Triamcinolone acetonide ointment (0.025%)
Class 6 (Low Potency) corticosteroids
Desonide gel/ointment/cream/lotion (0.05%), Fluocinolone acetonide cream/solution (0.01%), Triamcinolone acetonide cream/lotion (0.025%)
Class 7 (Least Potent) corticosteroids
Topicals with hydrocortisone
What are the sites of fetal erythropoiesis and their respective timeframes?
Yolk sac (3-8 weeks), Liver (6 weeks-birth), Spleen (10-28 weeks), Bone marrow (18 weeks-adult)
What is the last RBC stage capable of mitosis?
Polychromatic erythroblast
What is the last stage of RBC development that retains a nucleus?
Orthochromatic erythroblast
What are immature RBCs released by the bone marrow into the blood called?
Reticulocytes
What hormone stimulates erythropoiesis, and where is it produced?
Erythropoietin (EPO), produced by the kidneys
What protein transfers iron in the blood?
Transferrin
What is the primary storage protein for iron?
Ferritin
What is the supplemental storage protein for iron?
Hemosiderin
What lab value distinguishes between iron deficiency anemia and anemia of chronic disease?
Serum ferritin (low in IDA, normal/high in ACD)
Which granulocyte releases histamine and heparin and is involved in allergic reactions?
Basophils
Which WBC increases in allergies and parasitic infections?
Eosinophils
Which WBC is primarily involved in bacterial infections and acute inflammation?
Neutrophils
What are the tissue-specific names for macrophages?
Osteoclasts (bone), Kupffer cells (liver), Histiocytes/Langerhans cells (skin), Microglia (brain), Alveolar macrophages (lungs)
What WBC abnormality is characteristic of Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
Giant granules in neutrophils due to microtubule dysfunction
What are platelets derived from, and how long do they last?
Derived from megakaryocytes; lifespan is 8-10 days
What is required for platelet adhesion?
Glycoprotein Ib and von Willebrand Factor
What is required for platelet aggregation?
Glycoprotein IIb-IIIa and fibrinogen
What clotting factors are dependent on vitamin K?
Factors II, VII, IX, and X
Which immunoglobulin is the largest and is involved in primary response?
IgM (Pentameric)
Which immunoglobulin is the smallest, involved in the secondary response, and crosses the placental barrier?
IgG
Which immunoglobulin is found in secretions such as saliva and Peyer’s patches?
IgA
Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergic reactions?
IgE
What are Auer rods, and what condition are they associated with?
Needle-like azurophilic granules in myeloblasts; seen in Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)
What are Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells, and what disease are they characteristic of?
Giant B-cells with bilobed nuclei and prominent inclusions (‘owl’s eye’); seen in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
What histopathologic finding is characteristic of multiple myeloma?
Rouleaux formation of RBCs
What RBC shape is seen in hereditary spherocytosis?
Spherocytes (small, hyperchromic RBCs without central pallor)
What RBC abnormality is seen in G6PD deficiency?
Heinz bodies and Bite cells
What RBC shape is seen in sickle cell anemia?
Sickled cells
What RBC shape is characteristic of lead poisoning?
Basophilic stippling
What is the key enzyme deficiency in porphyria?
Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase (UROD)
Which bleeding disorder is characterized by decreased platelet count and prolonged bleeding time, but normal PT/PTT?
Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)
Which bleeding disorder has prolonged PT and PTT but normal platelet count?
Vitamin K Deficiency
Which bleeding disorder has normal platelet count but prolonged PTT?
Hemophilia A, B, or C
Which bleeding disorder has decreased platelets and prolonged PT, PTT, and bleeding time?
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
What is the most abundant form of hemoglobin in adults?
Hemoglobin A
What hemoglobin form is measured for long-term glucose control?
HbA1c (>6.5% indicates diabetes)
What form of hemoglobin binds CO with high affinity?
Carboxyhemoglobin
What is the fetal hemoglobin composition?
α2γ2 (Fetal Hemoglobin)
What hemoglobinopathy results in gamma-tetramers?
Hemoglobin Barts (seen in alpha-thalassemia major)
What is the most significant risk factor for cancer overall?
Age.
What is the most common cancer worldwide and the most common cause of cancer death?
Lung cancer.
What is the second most common cancer worldwide?
Breast cancer.
What are tumor suppressor genes?
Genes involved in restraining cell growth; loss of function mutations lead to tumorigenesis.
What are oncogenes?
Mutated forms of genes involved in normal cellular growth, characterized by uncontrolled proliferation.
What is the most effective means of treating cancer?
Surgery.
What is teletherapy?
Delivery of radiation therapy from a distance.
What is brachytherapy?
Encapsulated sealed sources of radiation implanted directly or adjacent to a tumor.
What is systemic radiation therapy?
Radionuclides targeted to the site of the tumor.
What is the most significant risk factor for head and neck cancer?
Alcohol and smoking.
What is the most commonly used treatment for head and neck cancers?
Chemoradiotherapy.
What are the most effective drugs against highly emetogenic agents?
Serotonin receptor antagonists (e.g., ondansetron).
At what age should colorectal cancer screening start with sigmoidoscopy?
≥50 years, every 5 years.
At what age should colorectal cancer screening start with colonoscopy?
≥50 years, every 10 years.
At what age should women start Pap smear screening?
21 years old, every 3 years.
At what age should women start mammography for breast cancer screening?
Women 45-54 years: annually, Women ≥55: biennially or annually.
At what age should men discuss prostate cancer screening with a doctor?
≥50 years, earlier (45 years) if high risk.
Which tumor marker is associated with gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)?
c-KIT (CD117).
Which tumor marker is associated with medullary thyroid cancer?
Calcitonin.
Which tumor marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?
AFP (alpha-fetoprotein).
Which tumor marker is associated with prostate cancer?
PSA (prostate-specific antigen).
Which oncogene is associated with CML and ALL?
BCR-ABL.
Which tumor suppressor gene is associated with retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma?
Rb (Governor of the Cell Cycle).
Which virus is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma?
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
Which carcinogen is associated with mesothelioma?
Asbestos.
Which type of lung cancer is most associated with smoking?
Small cell and squamous cell lung cancer.
What is the most common type of lung cancer overall?
Adenocarcinoma of the lung.
What syndrome results from lung tumors in the apex affecting C8 and T1-T2 nerve roots?
Pancoast syndrome.
Which lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia due to ectopic PTH production?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
What is the treatment of choice for small cell lung cancer?
Chemotherapy.
What immunostains are used for adenocarcinoma of the lung?
TTF-1, napsin A.
What immunostains are used for mesothelioma?
CK5/6, calretinin, WT-1.
Which condition increases the risk of breast cancer?
Early menarche, late menopause, late first full-term pregnancy.
What is the best time for breast examination?
Days 5-7 of the menstrual cycle.
What is the most important prognostic variable in breast cancer?
Tumor stage.
Which monoclonal antibody is used for HER2-positive breast cancer?
Trastuzumab.
Which esophageal cancer is related to smoking and alcohol?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
Which type of gastric adenocarcinoma is characterized by linitis plastica?
Diffuse type.
Which gastric cancer metastasizes to the ovary?
Krukenberg tumor.
What is the primary treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma?
Eradication of H. pylori.
What is the most common site of metastasis for colon cancer?
Liver.
What is the chemotherapeutic backbone for colon cancer?
5-Fluorouracil (5-FU).
Which pancreatic cancer risk factor is the most significant?
Smoking.
Which primary liver cancer is common in young adults and children without liver disease?
Fibrolamellar HCC.
Which benign liver tumor is most common?
Hemangioma.
Which parasite is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?
Clonorchis sinensis.
What is the standard surgical procedure for pancreatic head tumors?
Whipple’s procedure.
What is the most common histologic type of bladder cancer?
Urothelial carcinoma.
Which parasite can cause squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder?
Schistosoma haematobium.
Which renal cancer histology is most common?
Clear cell carcinoma.
What is the classic triad of renal cell carcinoma?
Hematuria, abdominal pain, palpable abdominal mass.
Which therapy is used for prostate cancer risk reduction?
5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride, dutasteride).
What is the Gleason scoring system used for?
Measuring histologic aggressiveness of prostate cancer.
What is the most common presentation of soft tissue sarcomas?
Asymptomatic mass.
What is the most common malignant bone tumor?
Plasma cell tumors.
Which primary bone tumor is common at the metaphysis of long bones?
Osteosarcoma.
What is the hallmark x-ray finding in osteosarcoma?
Codman triangle or sunburst pattern.
What is the single greatest determinant of melanoma metastasis?
Depth of invasion (Breslow thickness).
Which skin cancer is the most common?
Basal cell carcinoma.
Which skin cancer is associated with chronic sun exposure?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
Which chemotherapy drug is associated with hemorrhagic cystitis?
Cyclophosphamide (antidote: MESNA).
Which chemotherapy drug is associated with nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?
Cisplatin (antidote: amifostine).
Which chemotherapy drug causes pulmonary fibrosis?
Bleomycin, Busulfan.
Which chemotherapy drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?
Methotrexate (antidote: leucovorin).
Which chemotherapy drug inhibits thymidylate synthase?
5-Fluorouracil (antidote: uridine).
Which chemotherapy drug causes dose-dependent sensory neuropathy?
Oxaliplatin.
What is the most significant risk factor for cancer overall?
Age.
What is the most common cancer worldwide and the most common cause of cancer death?
Lung cancer.
What is the second most common cancer worldwide?
Breast cancer.
What are tumor suppressor genes?
Genes involved in restraining cell growth; loss of function mutations lead to tumorigenesis.
What are oncogenes?
Mutated forms of genes involved in normal cellular growth, characterized by uncontrolled proliferation.
What is the most effective means of treating cancer?
Surgery.
What is teletherapy?
Delivery of radiation therapy from a distance.
What is brachytherapy?
Encapsulated sealed sources of radiation implanted directly or adjacent to a tumor.
What is systemic radiation therapy?
Radionuclides targeted to the site of the tumor.
What is the most significant risk factor for head and neck cancer?
Alcohol and smoking.
What is the most commonly used treatment for head and neck cancers?
Chemoradiotherapy.
What are the most effective drugs against highly emetogenic agents?
Serotonin receptor antagonists (e.g., ondansetron).
At what age should colorectal cancer screening start with sigmoidoscopy?
≥50 years, every 5 years.
At what age should colorectal cancer screening start with colonoscopy?
≥50 years, every 10 years.
At what age should women start Pap smear screening?
21 years old, every 3 years.
At what age should women start mammography for breast cancer screening?
Women 45-54 years: annually, Women ≥55: biennially or annually.
At what age should men discuss prostate cancer screening with a doctor?
≥50 years, earlier (45 years) if high risk.
Which tumor marker is associated with gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)?
c-KIT (CD117).
Which tumor marker is associated with medullary thyroid cancer?
Calcitonin.
Which tumor marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?
AFP (alpha-fetoprotein).
Which tumor marker is associated with prostate cancer?
PSA (prostate-specific antigen).
Which oncogene is associated with CML and ALL?
BCR-ABL.
Which tumor suppressor gene is associated with retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma?
Rb (Governor of the Cell Cycle).
Which virus is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma?
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
Which carcinogen is associated with mesothelioma?
Asbestos.
Which type of lung cancer is most associated with smoking?
Small cell and squamous cell lung cancer.
What is the most common type of lung cancer overall?
Adenocarcinoma of the lung.
What syndrome results from lung tumors in the apex affecting C8 and T1-T2 nerve roots?
Pancoast syndrome.
Which lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia due to ectopic PTH production?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
What is the treatment of choice for small cell lung cancer?
Chemotherapy.
What immunostains are used for adenocarcinoma of the lung?
TTF-1, napsin A.
What immunostains are used for mesothelioma?
CK5/6, calretinin, WT-1.
Which condition increases the risk of breast cancer?
Early menarche, late menopause, late first full-term pregnancy.
What is the best time for breast examination?
Days 5-7 of the menstrual cycle.
What is the most important prognostic variable in breast cancer?
Tumor stage.
Which monoclonal antibody is used for HER2-positive breast cancer?
Trastuzumab.
Which esophageal cancer is related to smoking and alcohol?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
Which type of gastric adenocarcinoma is characterized by linitis plastica?
Diffuse type.
Which gastric cancer metastasizes to the ovary?
Krukenberg tumor.
What is the primary treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma?
Eradication of H. pylori.
What is the most common site of metastasis for colon cancer?
Liver.
What is the chemotherapeutic backbone for colon cancer?
5-Fluorouracil (5-FU).
Which pancreatic cancer risk factor is the most significant?
Smoking.
Which primary liver cancer is common in young adults and children without liver disease?
Fibrolamellar HCC.
Which benign liver tumor is most common?
Hemangioma.
Which parasite is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?
Clonorchis sinensis.
What is the standard surgical procedure for pancreatic head tumors?
Whipple’s procedure.
What is the most common histologic type of bladder cancer?
Urothelial carcinoma.
Which parasite can cause squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder?
Schistosoma haematobium.
Which renal cancer histology is most common?
Clear cell carcinoma.
What is the classic triad of renal cell carcinoma?
Hematuria, abdominal pain, palpable abdominal mass.
Which therapy is used for prostate cancer risk reduction?
5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride, dutasteride).
What is the Gleason scoring system used for?
Measuring histologic aggressiveness of prostate cancer.
What is the most common presentation of soft tissue sarcomas?
Asymptomatic mass.
What is the most common malignant bone tumor?
Plasma cell tumors.
Which primary bone tumor is common at the metaphysis of long bones?
Osteosarcoma.
What is the hallmark x-ray finding in osteosarcoma?
Codman triangle or sunburst pattern.
What is the single greatest determinant of melanoma metastasis?
Depth of invasion (Breslow thickness).
Which skin cancer is the most common?
Basal cell carcinoma.
Which skin cancer is associated with chronic sun exposure?
Squamous cell carcinoma.
Which chemotherapy drug is associated with hemorrhagic cystitis?
Cyclophosphamide (antidote: MESNA).
Which chemotherapy drug is associated with nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?
Cisplatin (antidote: amifostine).
Which chemotherapy drug causes pulmonary fibrosis?
Bleomycin, Busulfan.
Which chemotherapy drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?
Methotrexate (antidote: leucovorin).
Which chemotherapy drug inhibits thymidylate synthase?
5-Fluorouracil (antidote: uridine).
Which chemotherapy drug causes dose-dependent sensory neuropathy?
Oxaliplatin.
