Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surgical Procedures 1 > Plastic Reconstructive Dental Maxillofacial Surgery > Flashcards

Plastic Reconstructive Dental Maxillofacial Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Blepharoplasty: definition

A

surgical reconstruction of the eyelids to improve facial appearance by removing excess skin or periorbital fat deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Blepharoplasty pathophysiology: dermatochalasis (2)

A
  • aka blepharochalasis*
  • orbital defects, excessive sun exposure, aging process
  • relaxation and hypertrophy of eyelid skin/periorbital fat protrusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Brow Lift: definition

A

procedure to reduce/eliminate horizontal/vertical wrinkles of forehead and eyelid skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Submalar Augmentation: definition

A

surgical reconstruction of the cheeks using synthetic prothesis to create facial contour for patients with bone structure/soft tissue deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mentoplasty: definition

A
  • aka genioplasty*

- chin augmentation using synthetic prosthesis to enhance lower jawline/establish contour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mentoplasty pathophysiology: MICROGNATHIA

A

underdevelopment abnormal smallness of lower jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mentoplasty pathophysiology: RETROGNATHIA

A

one or both jaws positioned posterior to facial plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Otoplasty: definition (2)

A
  • reconstruction of the external ears

- reposition auricles to appear proportionate/contoured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Otoplasty pathophysiology: MICROTIA/PROMINAURIUS

A

Microtia: small ears
Prominaurius: prominent ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Rhinoplasty: definition/wound class (3)

A
  • elective aesthetic*
  • reshape external nose without physical change to internal nasal passages
  • wound class 2: clean contaminated wound*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Septoplasty:

A

corrects anatomic defect of nose, not aesthetic procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Rhinoplasty: anesthesia (2)

A
  • lidocaine w/ epinephrine or cocaine provide hemostasis and decongestion
  • peformed under local anesthesia with IV sedation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Rhinoplasty: position

A

supine position in slight reverse trendeleburg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rhinoplasty: skin prep

A

do not use CHLORHEXIDINE GLUCONATE (oculotoix/ototoxic agent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rhinoplasty: instrumentation (2)

A
  • ballenger swivel knife

- jansen-middleton septum forceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rytidectomy: definition

A

aka facelift

remove or eradicate wrinkles/sagging skin of face and neck to improve appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rhytidectomy: incision

A

made bilaterally within temporal hairline (5cm above ear), inferior to front of ear, around ear lobe to terminus at occipital cap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Rhytidectomy: specialty equipment/ wound classification (2)

A
  • class 1 wound*
  • due with closed wound drainage
  • 1 or two closed wound suction drainage systems (jackson pratt/hemovac)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Augmentation Mammoplasty: definition

A
  • reconstruction of female breast mounds
  • complete SUBMUSCULAR (
  • partial sub muscular (below pectorals major)
  • submammary approach (below breast tissue)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Augmentation Mammoplasty incision: PERIAREOLAR (2)

A
  • incision along inferior circumference of areola

- typically best concealed scar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Augmentation Mammoplasty incision: INFRAMAMMARY (2)

A
  • incision under natural breast crease

- most common incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Augmentation Mammoplasty: tissue expanders

A

allows for gradual creation of excess soft tissue to support underlying prosthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Augmentation Mammoplasty pathophysiology: HYPOMASTIA

A

condition of having abnormal small breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Augmentation Mammoplasty: Mastopexy (2)

A
  • re-positioning of the nipple

- involves little to no removal of breast tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Breast Reconstruction (TRAM flap): definition

A

treat breast cancer when significant soft tissue loss from mastectomy makes prosthesis contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Breast Reconstruction (TRAM flap): 3 types of flaps

A
  • myocutaneous
  • pedicle flaps
  • free flaps:
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Breast Reconstruction (TRAM flap): TRAM (2)

A
  • most common*
  • Transverse Rectus Abdominis Myocutaneous (flap)
  • pedicle or free flap
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Breast Reconstruction (TRAM flap): Latissimus dorsi myocutaneous flap

A

pedicle flap used in conjunction with prosthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Breast Reconstruction (TRAM flap): doppler scanning/angiography

A
  • allows assessment of flap vascularity

- uses doppler probe

30
Q

Breast Reconstruction (TRAM flap): medication/eqipment

A
  • fluroescein sodium (woods lamp)

- 2 cloused wound drainage systems to prevent deadspace

31
Q

Abdominoplasty: definition

A
  • elective aesthetic*

- improve appearance of abdominal wall by removing redundant skin & adipose tissue

32
Q

Abdominoplasty: panniculectomy

A
  • medically indicated*

- removal of pendulous apron to improve hygiene/skin breakdown

33
Q

Abdominoplasty: suction lipectomy

A
  • elective aesthetic*
  • liposuction
  • removal of fat deposits
34
Q

Abdominoplasty: incision

A

bikini incision

low transverse curvilinear incision from iliac crest to iliac crest

35
Q

Abdominoplasty: drains/wound class

A 
*wound class 1*
1-2 closed wound suction drainage systems to prevent deadspace/hematoma
36
Q

Palmar Fasciectomy: definition

A

partial or total excision of fascia in palm of hand to correct deformity & restore movement/function patients affected by Dupuytrens contracture

37
Q

Polydactyly Correction: definition

A

removal of excess fingers/toes (supernumerary digits) and subsequent reconstruction/restoration of function

38
Q

Polydactyly Correction: syndactyly

A

fusion of two or more fingers/toes; webbed fused digits

39
Q

Mandibular Fractures: Arch Bars

A

outdated means of stabilizing fractured jaw by wiring mouth shut

40
Q

Cheiloplsty (cleft lip repair): definition/wound class

A

wound class 2
ciloschisis; hare lip
correct congenital fusion failure of upper lip and possibly nose/palate

41
Q

Cheiloplsty (cleft lip repair): rule of tens

A

applied to assess infants likely ability to withstand stress of surgery

  • hemoglobin 10 g/dl (grams per decileter)
  • 10 lbs
  • 10 weeks old
42
Q

Cheiloplsty (cleft lip repair): speciaty supplies

A

-logans bow (cheek splint) prevents damage to repair

43
Q

Cheiloplsty (cleft lip repair): counts (3)

A
  • opening count
  • closing count w/ fascia closure
  • closing count w/ skin closure
44
Q

Palatoplasty (cleft palate repair): definition (2)

A
  • palatoschisis*
  • correct congenital fusion failure of the palate
  • minimize speech difficulties/improve feeding
45
Q

Palatoplasty (cleft palate repair): position

A

surgeon may cradle infants head

supine with slight reverse trendelenberg head placed at top edge of table

46
Q

Palatoplasty (cleft palate repair): specialty supplies (2)

A
  • brunnell needle (tongue suture)

- Oral-Rae endotracheal tube

47
Q

Palatoplasty (cleft palate repair): instrumentation (2)

A
  • Dingman OR Mclvor mouth gag w/ assorted blades

- Jennings without blades

48
Q

Palatoplasty (cleft palate repair): dressing

A

horozontal mattress suture placed through the body of the tongue prior to conclusion to aid in correcting airway obstructions/artificial airways

49
Q

Palatoplasty (cleft palate repair): wound class

A

wound class 2

50
Q

LeFort Maxillary fracture: definition (2)

A
  • reconstructive surgery of the mid-face to correct fractures of the maxillae and craniofacial bones
  • fractures result of trauma or surgically created to treat deformities/ bite disorders
51
Q

LeFort Maxillary fracture: fracture types

A

LeFort 1: transverse
LeFort 2: pyramidal
LeFort 3: craniofacial disjunction

52
Q

LeFort 1 Maxillary fracture: position (3)

A
  • supine
  • neck hyperextended
  • slight reverse trendelenberg
53
Q

LeFort 1 Maxillary fracture: draping (2)

A
  • throat pack with radiopaque marker

- prevents oral secretions, blood, irrigating, etc from entering pharynx

54
Q

LeFort 1 Maxillary fracture: instrumentation

A

rowe forceps

55
Q

LeFort 1 Maxillary fracture: counts

A

throat pack is included in count and removed prior to extubation

56
Q

LeFort 1 Maxillary fracture: wound class

A

extraoral: wound class 1
intraoral: wound class 2

57
Q

ORIF Orbital Fracture: pathophsyiology (2)

A
  • trauma from fights/accidents resulting in fractures of the orbital floor and depression of contents into maxillary sinus
  • blow out fracture result of force applied to the anterior globe
58
Q

Skin Grafting: autogaft

A

tissue obtained from same individual

59
Q

Skin Grafting: isograft

A

tissue obtained from genetically identical individual

60
Q

Skin Grafting: allograft (homograft)

A

tissue obtained from another individual of same species

61
Q

Skin Grafting: xenograft (heterograft)

A

tissue obtained from dissimilar species

62
Q

Skin Grafting: cultured epithelial autograft

A

tissue cultured and grown in lab

63
Q

Skin Grafting: full thickness skin graft (3)

A
  • consists of all elements epidermis/dermis
  • donor site mist be closed
  • withstands flexion, abrasion, better aesthetic results
64
Q

Skin Grafting: split thickness skin graft

A
  • epidermis and various depths of dermis
  • recipient site vascularizes rapidly
  • graft may be meshed
65
Q

Skin Grafting: skin prep (3)

A
  • prep performed consecutively/concurrently for each site
  • donor site (clean) performed first
  • recipient (dirty) performed second
66
Q

Skin Grafting: motor powered dermatomes (2)

A
  • requires use of lubricant/counter traction

- Brown, Padgett & Zimmer

67
Q

Skin Grafting: drum type dermatomes

A

Reese, Padgett-Hood

68
Q

Skin Grafting: handheld knife

A
  • burn wound debridement*

- handheld manually powered instrument containing fixed or disposable blade

69
Q

Skin Grafting: graft skin mesher

A

derma carrier mesh board

70
Q

Skin Grafting: 1,2,3 burns

A
  • 1st superficial/partial (sunburn)
  • 2nd deep partial thickness (blister)
  • 3rd full-thickness dry, tough, leathery,
71
Q

Skin Grafting: rule of nines

A

a

Surgical Procedures 1 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions