Genitourinary Flashcards

1
Q

Where are the kidneys located?

A

retroperitoneal space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what do the kidneys regulate?

A

blood volume and composition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

vascularity/blood supply of the kidneys (2)

A
  • highly vascularized

- receive blood from renal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pedicle/hilum composition and relation (4)

A
  • lymphatics
  • nerves
  • blood vessels
  • entering the hilum*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the renal parenchyma and what is it made up of? (2)

A
  • substance of kidney found within fibrous capsule

- further divided into renal cortex and renal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

perirenal fat pad functions (2)

A
  • anchors kidney in place

- protects from trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

nephrectomy: PT position

A

lateral with kidney rest elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

nephrectomy: incision

A

flank incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

nephrectomy: pedicle clamp

A
  • occludes renal pedicle during ligation*

- giant right angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is excised during radical nephrectomy? (4)

A
  • adrenal gland
  • kidney
  • perirenal fat/fascia
  • periaortic lymph nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the most common site for recipient of kidney transplant?

A

right iliac fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

adrenal glands are located in the… (2)

A
  • retroperitoneal space

- superior pole of each kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is secreted by the adrenal glands? (3)

A
  • sex hormones
  • steroids
  • epinephrine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ureters are located in the

A

retroperitoneal space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

length of ureters

A
  • 25-30cm*

- firbomuscular tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how do ureters propel urine?

A

undergo peristaltic waves to propel urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

calculi/symptoms (7)

A
  • stones that form in kidney
  • painful and frequent urination
  • flank pain
  • oliguria
  • nausea and vomitting
  • UTI
  • hematuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

urolithiasis

A

PT forms calculi in urinary collecting system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

strictures- 3 common areas where calculi form as result of narrowing

A
  • uretero-pelvic junction
  • uretero-vesical junction
  • ureters cross over external iliac vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ureteroscopy: pathophysiology (2)

A
  • tumors

- strictures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

capacity of bladder

A

350-700ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

3 corners of the trigone (2)

A
  • orifices of the ureters

- bladder neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

male/female urethra length

A

20-25cm

3-5cm

24
Q

other name for incontinence

A

enuresis

25
Q

Describe prep performed on cystoscopy PTs? (3)

A
  • pubic area including perineum
  • external genitalia
  • extends to thighs
26
Q

cystoscopy: position

A

-lithotomy

27
Q

indications for cystoscopy (7)

A
  • hematuria
  • UTI
  • fistulas
  • urinary retention
  • incontinence
  • calculi
  • bladder tumors
28
Q

irrigation used for diagnostic cystoscopy (2)

A
  • distilled water

- cell lysing effect

29
Q

disinfection of cystoscopy instruments

A

glutaraldehyde (cider)

30
Q

why is cystoscopy considered wound class 2

A
  • controlled entry into aerodigestive urinary tract*

- high level disinfection sufficient instead of sterilization

31
Q

radical cystectomy performed on PTs with

A

invasive malignant disease of the bladder

32
Q

what is removed in radical cystectomy? (4)

A
  • entire bladder
  • lymph nodes nearby
  • part of urethra
  • organs containing cancer cells nearby
33
Q

illeal conduit is..

A

-diversion technique in which segment of bowel is utilized to create neobladder that drains through stoma into collection device

34
Q

what supplies blood to the bladder and what must be done to it in order to remove bladder?

A
  • inferior vesical artery

- ligated and divided in order to remove bladder

35
Q

what is the prostate gland? (2)

A
  • periurethral gland found in males

- composed of 4-5 glandular regions

36
Q

what do secretions from prostate gland do?

A

-viability and mobility of sperm

37
Q

What are the indications for a transurethral prostatectomy?

A
  • BPH – benign prostatic hypertrophy*

- enlargement of organ or tissue due to increase in size of cells

38
Q

What is an ellick evacuator and what is it used for during TURP?

A

-a double bowled glass instrument used to aspirate resected tissue during TURP

39
Q

What type of irrigation is used for TURP and why? (4)

A
  • glycine*
  • non-electrolytic irrigation for TURP*
  • prevents burning of entire bladder
  • no conduction
  • isotonic
40
Q

3 types of resectoscopes used for TURP (3)

A
  • iglesias
  • nesbit
  • baumrucker
41
Q

function of 3-way foley catheter in TURP procedure? (3)

A
  • pressure hemostasis
  • bladder irrigation
  • urine elimination
42
Q

Sound used and function for TURP procedure?

A
  • van buren sound*

- used to dilate meatus and urethra

43
Q

TURP procedure complications? (5)

A
  • hemorrhage (most common)*
  • SSI
  • urethral stricture
  • urethral injury
  • TURP SYNDROME
44
Q

suprapubic prostatectomy: definition/aka

A
  • aka trans-vesicocapsular prostatectomy*
  • care taken to avoid injury to ureters*
  • enucleation of hyperplastic prostate adenoma
45
Q

simple retropubic prostatectomy approach

A

extravesical approach

46
Q

how is prostate dissected during suprapubic prostatectomy?

A

bluntly dissected by surgeons fingers

47
Q

What is phimosis?

A

-foreskin cannot be contracted due to congenital narrowing of opening of foreskin

48
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

-foreskin cannot be reduced due to being trapped by glans penis

49
Q

What is balanoposthitis (balanitis)?

A

-inflammation of the glans penis

50
Q

What are the two devices used to facilitate circumcision? (2)

A
  • gamco device

- plastibell

51
Q

What is a chordee?

A

-painful downward curvature of the penis on erection

52
Q

penectomy definition

A

surgical removal of the penis for medical or personal reasons

53
Q

Name 3 types of indwelling catheters used for suprapubic bladder drainage?

A
  • pezzar
  • malecot
  • foley
54
Q

hydrocelectomy: pathophysiology

A

collected serous fluid in membrane surrounding the tunic vaginalis

55
Q

orchiopexy

A

fixation in scrotum of undecided testis

56
Q

What is cryptorchidism/ who does it affect? (2)

A
  • undescended testicles

- premi babies

57
Q

What is a testicular torsion and how is it repaired? (2)

A
  • twisting of the spermatic cord

- can cause necrosis