Placement Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three main functions of the liver?

A

Synthesis
Excretion
Storage

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2
Q

What liver function tests relate to hepatocytes?

A

ALT (alanine aminotransferase)

AST (aspartate aminotransferase)

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3
Q

Where are Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and y-Glutamyltransferase (GGT) usually found?

A

In the bile ducts of the liver

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4
Q

What might raised ALP and GGT levels be indicative of?

A

Obstructive liver disease

GGT levels are also a potential indicator of how much alcohol a patient drinks

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5
Q

What are the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors?

A

2
7
9
10

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6
Q

What can increased ESR suggest?

A
Pregnancy
TB
Rheumatoid arthritis
Anaemia
Some malignancies
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7
Q

What can increased neutrophils be caused by?

A
Infection
Ischaemic Necrosis (e.g. MI)
Metabolic disorders (e.g. diabetic acidosis)
Stress response (e.g. due to acute haemorrhage)
Inflammatory disease (e.g. rheumatic fever)
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8
Q

Why might creatine be low?

A

It is proportional to muscle mass in the body and if the person has low muscle mass they might have low creatine

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9
Q

What is refeeding?

A

It is the process of reintroducing food after starvation or malnourishment

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10
Q

What is refeeding caused by?

A

Sudden shifts in the electrolytes that help your body metabolise food

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11
Q

Why does refeeding syndrome occur?

A

When carb consumption is reduced, insulin secretion slows
The body changes to fats and proteins as sources of energy
This can deplete electrolyes levels
When food is reintroduced, there’’s an abrupt shift from fat metabolism back to carbohydrate metabolism
This causes insulin secretion to increase

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12
Q

What are some of the effects of refeeding syndrome?

A

Hypophosphataemia
Hypomagnesaemia
Hypokalaemia
Thiamine deficiency

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13
Q

Why does hypophosphataemia occur in refeeding syndrome?

A

Cells need electrolytes like phosphate to convert glucose to energy but phosphate is in short supply

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14
Q

What is Courvoisier’s Law?

A

Presence of a palpably enlarged gallbladder and accompanied with mild jaundice, the cause is unlikely to be gallstones

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15
Q

What is the typical presentation of pancreatic cancer?

A

Painless jaundice

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16
Q

What type of drug is Flucloxacillin?

A

Antibiotic

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17
Q

What are the indications of Flucloxacillin?

A

Infections due to beta-lactamase-producing staphylcocci
Cellulitis
Leg ulcer infection
Endocarditis

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18
Q

What are the side effects for all penicillins?

A

Diarrhoea
Hypersensitivity
Nausea
Vomiting

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19
Q

What are the side effects for Flucoxacillin other than the general side effects for penicillin?

A

Arthralgia
Fever
Neutropenia

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20
Q

What are the side effects of Paracetamol?

A

Thrombocytopaenia
Rash
Paracetamol Overdose

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21
Q

What type of drug is Amlodopine?

A

Calcium Channel Blocker

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22
Q

What are the indications for Amlodipine?

A

Prophylaxis of angina

Hypertension

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23
Q

What are the general side effects for all CCBs?

A
Abdominal Pain
Dizziness
Fatigue 
Nausea 
Headache 
Palpitations
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24
Q

What are the specific side effects for Amlodipine?

A
Constipation
Muscle cramps
Dyspepsia 
Alopecia
Oedema
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25
Q

What type of drug is Apixaban?

A

Anticoagulant

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26
Q

How does Apixaban work?

A

Direct inhibitor of activated factor X (factor Xa)

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27
Q

What are the indications of Apixaban?

A

Prophylaxis of VTE

Treatment of DVT

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28
Q

What are the side effects of Apixaban?

A
Anaemia 
Haemorrhage
Nausea 
Skin reactions
Hypotension
29
Q

What are the side effects for Statins?

A
Dizziness 
Flatulence
Headache 
Nausea 
Alopecia
30
Q

What are the side effects specifically for Atorvastatin?

A

Hyperglycaemia
Decreased appetite
Chest pain
Peripheral oedema

31
Q

What type of antibiotic is Clarithromycin?

A

Macrolide antibiotics

32
Q

What are the side effects for all Macrolides?

A
Appetite decreased
Headache
Nausea 
Insomnia 
Paraesthesia
33
Q

What are some specific side effects to Clarithromycin?

A

Burping
Dry Mouth
Thrombocytosis
Tremor

34
Q

What type of drug is Clopidogrel?

A

Antiplatelet

35
Q

What are some of the side effects for Clopidogrel?

A
Diarrhoea 
Haemorrhage 
Dizziness 
Headahe
Nausea
36
Q

What are the two parts of Co-amoxiclav?

A

Amoxicillin

Clavulanic acid

37
Q

Why do we use Co-amoxiclav?

A

Fights antibiotic resistance

Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor so prevents breakdown of amoxicillin by beta-lactamases

38
Q

What are the side effects for Co-Amoxiclav?

A

Increased risk of infection
Dizziness
Dyspepsia
Headache

39
Q

How does Denosumab work?

A

It is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits osteoclast formation, function, and survival, thereby decreasing bone resorption

40
Q

What is the main indication for Denosumab?

A

Osteoporosis

41
Q

What are the side effects for Denosumab?

A
Cataract 
Constipation
Hypocalcaemia 
Sciatica 
Increased risk of infection
42
Q

What type of drug is Dexamethasone?

A

Steroid (corticosteroid)

43
Q

What are some of the side effects for all corticosteroids?

A
Fatigue 
Headache
Hirsuitism 
Hypertension
Peptic Ulcer
Weight gain
44
Q

What type of drug is GTN spray?

A

Nitrate

45
Q

What are the side effects for all nitrates?

A
Arrhythmias 
Dizziness 
Headache 
Hypotension
Nausea
46
Q

What does SSRI stand for?

A

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

47
Q

What are SSRIs mainly used for?

A

As an antidepressant

48
Q

What does SNRI stand for?

A

Serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor

49
Q

What does PRN mean in a medical context?

A

Stands for pro re nata

Means the medication is not scheduled and it is taken as needed

50
Q

What are the most common causes of Anaemia?

A
Loss of blood 
Nutritional Deficiency 
Bone marrow problems 
Chemotherapy
Kidney Failure 
Sickle Cell
Thalassaemia
51
Q

What are some of the ways loss of blood can occur?

A
Traumatic injury 
Surgery 
Bleeding 
Colon Cancer
Stomach ulcer
52
Q

What nutritional deficiency can lead to anaemia?

A

Iron
Vitamin B12
Folate

53
Q

What patients might have a high Hb level?

A
People living in high altitudes 
People who smoke
Advanced lung disease
Polycythemia rubra vera
Abuse of the erythropoietin (Epogen) by athletes for blood doping
54
Q

What might give a false high Hb level?

A

Dehydration produces a falsely high Hb measurement that disappears when proper fluid balance is restored

55
Q

What are the causes of neutropenia?

A
Infections
Chemotherapy (most common cause)
Cancer 
Deficiencies 
Autoimmune diseases
56
Q

What infections can cause Neutropenia?

A

Hepatitis
Tb
Sepsis

57
Q

What deficiencies can cause Neutropenia?

A

B12
Folate
Copper

58
Q

What autoimmune diseases can cause neutropenia?

A

Crohn’s Disease
Lupus
Rheumatoid arthritis

59
Q

What conditions can cause lymphocytopenia?

A
Infectious diseases 
Autoimmune disorders 
Steroid therapy 
Blood diseases 
Radiation and Chemotherapy
60
Q

What infectious diseases can cause lymphocytopenia?

A
AIDS
Viral Hepatitis 
TB
Covid 
Typhoid fever
61
Q

What is an example of an autoimmune disorder that can cause lymphocytopenia?

A

Lupus

62
Q

What blood diseases can cause lymphocytopenia?

A

Hodgkin’s disease

Aplastic anaemia

63
Q

What are the two main aetiologies of thrombocytopenia?

A

Decreased production of platelets

Increased breakdown of platelets

64
Q

What can cause decreased production of platelets?

A
Leukaemia and other cancers
Some types of anaemia 
Viral infections (Hep C or HIV)
Chemotherapy drugs 
Heavy alcohol consumption
65
Q

What can cause increased breakdown of platelets?

A

Pregnancy
Autoimmune diseases
Medications

66
Q

What medications can cause increased breakdown of platelets?

A

Heparin
Quinine
Other antibiotics
Anticonvulsants

67
Q

What can cause an increased platelet count (thrombocytosis)?

A
Acute bleeding and blood loss 
Cancer 
Iron Defiency 
Splenectomy 
Inflammatory Disorders
68
Q

What inflammatory disorders can cause thrombocytosis?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis
Sarcoidosis
Inflammatory bowel disease