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PE A2 > Physiology Notes > Flashcards

Physiology Notes Flashcards

1
Q

How long does the lactic acid system last?

A

60-120 seconds e.g. 800m

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2
Q

How long does the aerobic energy system last?

A

Long lasting e.g. a marathon

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3
Q

What is ATP?

A

An energy currency, found in all cells; when broken down it releases its stored energy

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4
Q

What is the Krebs cycle?

A

A series of chemical reactions in the mitochondria that oxidises acetylene CoA to carbon dioxide and combines hydrogen with hydrogen carriers.

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5
Q

How many ATP are produced in the Krebs cycle?

A

2-4

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6
Q

What is the electron transport chain?

A

A series of chemical reactions where hydrogen is oxidised and large amounts of ATP are generated

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7
Q

How many ATP are produced in the electron transport chain?

A

34

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8
Q

What is glycolysis?

A

The process of breaking down glycogen into pyruvic acid producing some (4 molecules) ATP.

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9
Q

What is beta oxidation?

A

The process by which fatty acid molecules are broken down in the mitochondria to generate acetyl CoA

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10
Q

At low levels of intensity where does energy come from?

A

A mix of fats and carbohydrates

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11
Q

At high intensity where does energy come from?

A

Carbohydrates

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12
Q

Why is fat use limited at high intensity?

A

By oxygen availability

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13
Q

How can training improve the aerobic energy system?

A

Cardiac hypertrophy and increased resting stroke volume

Increased blood volume and haemoglobin

Increased muscle stores of glycogen and triglycerides

Increased capillarisation of muscle

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14
Q

What are possible reasons for fatigue?

A

Build up of lactic acid

Dehydration

Glycogen depletion

Reduced levels of acetylcholine

Lack of PC stores

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15
Q

What is carbo loading?

A

A strategy used by athletes to maximise stores of glycogen in the muscles and liver

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16
Q

Summarise method one of glycogen loading

A

Deplete carbohydrate levels by eating low glycemic foods

Day before event eat meal high in carbs

Creates a super compensation of glycogen stores

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17
Q

Summarise method two of glycogen loading

A

2-3 mins high intensity training day before event

High carb intake after twenty minutes

Temporarily opens the carbohydrate window

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18
Q

What is thermoregulation?

A

The maintenance of a steady body temperature regardless of changes in the environment

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19
Q

What is EPOC?

A

Excess post oxygen consumption - volume of oxygen consumed in recovery above the resting rate

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20
Q

Summarise the characteristics of the fast component of recovery

A

Approx. 3 mins

Alactic component

Uses 2-4 litres of oxygen

ATP resynthesis

Resaturation of HB with oxygen

50% recover in 30 seconds

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21
Q

Summarise the characteristics of the slow component of recovery

A

Approx. 2 hours

Lactic component

Lactic acid got rid of by:

Oxidised into CO2 and water

In liver

Converted to glycogen

Used as energy

Some excreted in urine

Conversion to protein

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22
Q

What is VO2 max. ?

A

The maximum volume of oxygen that can be utilised by the body per minute.

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23
Q

What is lactate threshold?

A

The level of exercise intensity at which you are producing more lactate than can be removed

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24
Q

What does OBLA stand for?

A

Onset of blood lactate accumulation

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25
Q

What is OBLA?

A

The point at which lactic acid starts to accumulate in the blood

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26
Q

What is the relationship between VO2 max and lactate threshold?

A

Lactate threshold is a percentage of VO2 max.

The higher the VO2 max the more the delay in lactic acid build up.

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27
Q

What factors can contribute to a performers VO2 max?

A

Takes into account body weight

Lifestyle - e.g. lack of exercise

Training - e.g. endurance training

Age - VO2 max. decreases with age

Physiology - e.g. haemoglobin content

Gender - men tend to have 29% higher VO2 max

Body composition - higher % body fat decreases VO2 max

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28
Q

What are the characteristics of fast twitch muscle fibres?

A

Fast motor neurone conduction velocity

Low fatigue resistance

High force production

High contraction/relaxation time

High anaerobic enzyme activity

High PC stores

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29
Q

What is the difference between fast oxidative glycolytic fibres and fast glycolytic fibres?

A

FOG has a faster contraction and larger former production but fatigues more easily

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30
Q

What are the characteristics of slow twitch muscle fibres?

A

High triglyceride and glycogen stores

High capillary density

Many mitochondria

High aerobic enzyme activity

Low force production

More Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Low myoglobin content

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31
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction?

A

All the motor neurones leading to skeletal muscles have branches, each of which ends in a junction with a single muscle fibre. The place where a motor neurone meets a muscle fibre is a neuromuscular junction.

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32
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

A motor neurone and its muscle fibres

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33
Q

What is the all or nothing law?

A

Each muscle fibre within a motor unit either contracts or does not contract. There is no such thing as a partial contraction.

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34
Q

What is the difference between the motor neurone in a slow twitch motor unit compared to a fast twitch?

A

Smaller in diameter and activated 10-180 slow twitch muscle fibres rather than the 300-800 activated by a fast twitch motor neurone.

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35
Q

What is spatial summation?

A

Changes in strength of contraction brought about by altering the number and size of the motor units involved.

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36
Q

How do actin and myosin bind together to cause muscular contraction?

A

Filaments unable to bind due to tropomyosin

Sarcoplasmic reticulum release calcium ions which attach to troponin

Causes troponin to change shape/move tropomyosin

Exposes myosin binding site

Cross bridge forms and a power stroke occurs

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37
Q

When the myosin binds to actin energy is released. What is this energy used for?

A

Causes a change in shape of the myosin head. This causes a pulling of the actin filament and it is these interactions that cause the actin to slide over the myosin and is how the sarcomere contracts.

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38
Q

What is the aim of the supplement creatine?

A

Increases the amount of PC stored in the muscles

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39
Q

What are the benefits of creatine?

A

Allows ATP PC system to last longer

Help improve recovery

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40
Q

What are the drawbacks of creatine?

A

Dehydration

Bloating

Muscle cramps

Liver damage

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41
Q

What is the aim of the supplement protein?

A

Enhances muscle growth and repair

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42
Q

What are the benefits of protein?

A

Increase or maintain muscle mass

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43
Q

What are the drawbacks of protein?

A

Strain on liver and kidneys

Negative nitrogen balance can slow down muscle growth

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44
Q

What is the aim of the supplement bicarbonate soda?

A

Reduces acidity levels in the muscle cells

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45
Q

What are the benefits of bicarbonate soda?

A

Increases the buffering of lactate

Delays the onset of lactate accumulation

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46
Q

What are the drawbacks of bicarbonate soda?

A

Vomiting

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47
Q

What is the aim of the supplement caffeine?

A

It’s a stimulant

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48
Q

What are the benefits of caffeine?

A

Increased mental alertness

Continue at higher intensity for longer

Quicker reaction time

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49
Q

What are the drawbacks of caffeine?

A

Loss of fine control

Large amounts banned in sport

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50
Q

What is the aim of the supplement herbal remedies?

A

Remedies based on plant extracts

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51
Q

What are the benefits of herbal remedies?

A

Decrease body fat

Elevate blood testosterone levels

Increase muscle mass

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52
Q

What are the drawbacks of herbal remedies?

A

Many contain banned substances

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53
Q

What is the aim of the supplement glycogen loading?

A

A form of dietary manipulation involving maximising glycogen stores

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54
Q

What are the benefits of glycogen loading?

A

Increased glycogen stores

Delays fatigue

Increased endurance capacity

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55
Q

What are the drawbacks of glycogen loading?

A

Water retention

Heavy legs

Affects digestion

Water increase

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56
Q

What is the aim of the supplement anabolic steroids?

A

Artificially produced hormones

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57
Q

What are the benefits of anabolic steroids?

A

Promote muscle growth

Increase strength and lean body weight

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58
Q

What are the drawbacks of anabolic steroids?

A

Liver damage

Heart and immune system problems

Behaviour changes such as aggression and paranoia

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59
Q

What is the aim of the supplement HGH?

A

Artificiality produce hormones

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60
Q

What are the benefits of HGH?

A

Increased muscle mass

Decrease in fat

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61
Q

What are the drawbacks of HGH?

A

Heart and nerve diseases

Glucose intolerance

High levels of blood fats

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62
Q

What is the aim of the supplement beta blockers?

A

Help calm an individual and decrease anxiety

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63
Q

What are the benefits of beta blockers?

A

Improve accuracy and precision

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64
Q

What are the drawbacks of beta blockers?

A

Tiredness due to low blood pressure

Slower heart rate which will affect aerobic capacity

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65
Q

What is the aim of the supplement EPO?

A

A natural hormone produced by the kidneys but can now be artificially manufactured

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66
Q

What are the benefits of EPO?

A

Increase in red blood cells

Increase in oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

Increase in the amount of work performed

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67
Q

What are the drawbacks of EPO?

A

Can result in blood clotting/strokes

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68
Q

Water makes up 50-60% of an adults body mass. What is the importance of water?

A

Regulates body temperature

Carries nutrients and oxygen to cells

Helps convert food to nutrients

Removes waste

Protects and cushions vital organs and joints

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69
Q

How are water and electrolytes closely linked?

A

Electrolytes readily dissolve in water

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70
Q

What are the problems of water/electrolyte loss (dehydration) ?

A

Muscle fatigue

Muscle cramp

Increased heart rate

Reduced blood flow to skin

Lactic acid build up

Shortage of blood flow to working muscles

Slower reaction time

Irregular heart beat

Blood thickening

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71
Q

What must any attempt to maintain water and electrolytic balance be in relation to?

A

The intensity/duration of exercise

The environmental conditions

The convenience of ingesting fluids and electrolytes

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72
Q

What is the glycemic index?

A

A system for ranking carbohydrates according to how quickly they are converted to glucose and enter the blood stream

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73
Q

What is plyometrics training?

A

A type of training designed to improve power. Plyometric exercises involve bounding, jumping or hopping to make muscle groups work eccentrically before a powerful concentric contraction.

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74
Q

Plyometrics involve three phases, what are they collectively know as?

A

The stretch shortening cycle

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75
Q

What are the three phases of plyometrics?

A

Pre stretch - elastic energy generated and stored

Amortisation - time between eccentric and concentric contraction

The actual contraction

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76
Q

What happens in plyometrics?

A

An eccentric contraction activates the stretch reflex

This prevents over stretching

Detected by muscle spindles which send a message to the CNS

Concentric contraction caused by elastic power generated

The shorter the amortisation phase the more powerful the contraction

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77
Q

What is the process of PNF?

A

Can be passive or active

Usually involves a partner helping

Stretch target muscles to limit

Hold stretched position for a few seconds

Contract muscle group isometrically

Muscle relax

Stretch target muscles again

CRAC

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78
Q

What does CRAC stand for?

A

Contract, relax, antagonist, contract

79
Q

How does PNF work?

A

Muscle spindles detect change in muscle fibres

Activates stretch reflex

Aim of PNF is to overcome stretch reflex

Golgi tendon organs activated

Causes muscle to relax

Allows greater range of movement that initial stretch

80
Q

How long does the ATP-PC system last?

A

Short term - 10 seconds e.g. a sprint

81
Q

What are the three phases of altitude training?

A

Acclimatisation

Primary training

Recovery

82
Q

Describe the acclimatisation phase of altitude training

A

Starts immediately on arrival at latitude.

The athlete will get used to the reduced ppO2 and must not overdo exhaustive training

Duration ranges from 3-10 days

83
Q

Describe the primary training phase of altitude training

A

Lasts between 1-3 weeks

Aim is to progressively increase the training volume until the athlete reaches the intensity that was occurring at sea level.

84
Q

Describe the recovery phase of altitude training

A

Can last for 2-5 days

Training volume/intensity gradually reduced

Aims to prepare the athlete for the return to sea level and allow them to recover fully from the fatigue produced by high altitude training

85
Q

How high must it be above sea level to be altitude training?

A

Over 2000m

86
Q

How long must altitude training last?

A

At least 30 days

87
Q

How does altitude training work?

A

ppO2 lower

Body produces EPO

More red blood cells produced

Increased concentration of haemoglobin

Increased oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

Increased tolerance to lactic acid

88
Q

What is an alternative method to altitude training?

A

Oxygen tent

89
Q

What at the disadvantages of altitude training?

A

Altitude sickness

Main benefits lost within a few days back at sea level

Loss of fitness because difficult to train at same intensity

Psychological problems linked to time away from home

90
Q

What is a macro-cycle?

A

A long stretch of training which is intended to accomplish a significant overall goal. It covers a period of 1-2 years.

91
Q

What is a meso-cycle?

A

A block of training consisting of some number of micro-cycles which emphasises the reaching of a particular goal. Lasts 2-8 weeks.

92
Q

What is a micro-cycle?

A

A repeating group/pattern of training sessions. Last 1 day - a week.

93
Q

What is periodisation?

A

Dividing the year into training phases.

94
Q

Describe the pre season training phase of periodisation

A

Involves development of base levels of fitness.

It’s quantity rather than quality.

95
Q

Describe the competition phase of periodisation

A

Refinement of skills and maintenance of fitness levels

It’s quality rather than quantity

96
Q

Describe the tapering phase of periodisation

A

Preparation for specific competition

Mainly skills focus

97
Q

Describe the transition phase of periodisation

A

Active rest/out of season recovery period

98
Q

What is double periodisation?

A

Peaking twice within same season

99
Q

Elite athletes are capable of training at intensities close to their VO2 max and therefore close to a point where exhaustion may occur.

A

Why is it essential for elite athletes to achieve the right intensity of training?

100
Q

What is lactate sampling?

A

Taking blood samples to measure the level of lactic acid

101
Q

What is the point of lactate sampling?

A

Ensures training is at the correct intensity

Provides accurate/objective measure

Measures OBLA/lactate threshold

102
Q

Why would lactate levels rise during training?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis taking place in the exercising muscles

103
Q

What is the link between lactate reading and intensity of exercise?

A

The higher the reading of lactate the higher the intensity

104
Q

How can lactate reading be used to measure fitness potential?

A

It is linked to VO2 max.

105
Q

What is the respiratory exchange ratio?

A

Ratio of the carbon dioxide released compared to the oxygen used by the body

106
Q

What is the point of the respiratory exchange ratio?

A

Estimates carbohydrate and fat use during exercise

Tells if a performer is working aerobically or anaerobically

107
Q

What does it mean ifs performers respiratory exchange ratio is close to 1?

A

Using carbohydrates

108
Q

What does it mean if a performers respiratory exchange ratio is close to 0.7?

A

Using fats

109
Q

Why is using respiratory exchange ration limited to performers who are able to train using ergometers (e.g. cyclists, rowers, runners)?

A

Because of the need for the athlete to be linked to extensive laboratory equipment

110
Q

Humans are homeothermic, what does this mean?

A

They keep their internal body temperatures constant - about 37 degrees

111
Q

Regulating body temperature is a function of what?

A

The thermoregulatory centre

112
Q

Changes in body temperature are sent to the thermoregulatory centre. What are these changes detected by?

A

Thermoreceptors

113
Q

Define hypothermia

A

A condition in which body temperature is at a very low level

114
Q

Define hyperthermia

A

A condition in which body temperature is elevated to a very high level

115
Q

Vasodilation can aid thermoregulation. What is this?

A

Opening of blood vessels

116
Q

Vasoconstriction can aid thermoregulation. What is this?

A

Closing of blood vessels

117
Q

Radiation can aid thermoregulation. What is this?

A

Heat lost by infrared rays

118
Q

Conduction can aid thermoregulation. What is this?

A

Heat lost from skin to object

119
Q

Convection can aid thermoregulation. What is this?

A

Heat lost by movement of gases

120
Q

Evaporation can aid thermoregulation. What is this?

A

Heat lost by liquid to vapour (sweating)

121
Q

Heat retention can aid thermoregulation. What is this?

A

Hairs raised (shivering)

122
Q

What is rehabilitation?

A

Treatments designed to support the process of recovery from injury or illness, enabling the performer to regain maximum self-sufficiency and function as soon as possible.

123
Q

Give examples of how correct equipment can prevent injury

A

Tapering and bracing

Protective equipment

Shoes and boots

Appropriate clothing

124
Q

What is conditioning?

A

Physical activities that prepare the body for intense exercise

125
Q

What is core strength/stability?

A

The ability of the core muscles to maintain correct alignment of the spine and pelvis while the limbs are moving

126
Q

How can conditioning that improves core strength help injury prevention?

A

Improves posture and so makes performer less prone to lower back injuries.

127
Q

How is overtraining caused?

A

Over stressing the body during training sessions and now allowing sufficient time for recovery after an intense training session.

128
Q

How does overtraining increase the risk of strains, sprains and stress fractures?

A

Characteristics of an overtrained performer include long-lasting fatigue. Fatigued muscles provide inadequate support for tendons, bones and ligaments.

129
Q

To avoid injury as a result of overtraining, what should performers do?

A

Allow sufficient time for recovery

Restore glycogen stores after a hard session

Not train when ill

Use relaxation techniques to improve sleep

Ensure that diet is nutritionally balanced

130
Q

What is the long term athlete development programme?

A

A generic strategy for the development of performers from the nursery to the podium.

NGBs adapt it to their specific needs.

131
Q

What are the benefits of the active warm up?

A

Maintenance of warmth in the body and muscles

Preparation of the muscles and joints

Improvement of coordination and motor ability

132
Q

What are the benefits of the warm down/cool down?

A

Designed to decrease any injurious effects of the training session

Prevents blood pooling/lactic acid build up

Helps muscles relax/prevents stiffness

133
Q

What does DOMS stand for?

A

Delayed onset of muscle soreness

134
Q

What is DOMS?

A

The pain felt in the muscles the day after intense exercise

135
Q

How is DOMS caused?

A

By damage to the muscle fibres and connective tissue, resulting in inflammation and increased local muscle temperature.

136
Q

What strategys can be used to reduce DOMS?

A

Active warm up/cool down

Gradually increase intensity/duration of exercise

Massages

Ice baths

137
Q

How long should you sit in an ice bath for to reduce DOMS?

A

Involves sitting in ice cold water for 5-20 minutes

138
Q

Ice baths cause blood vessels to constrict. What does this mean?

A

Restricted blood flow to area

Reduces swelling/aids muscle repair

139
Q

After leaving an ice bath, vasodilation occurs. What does this do?

A

Area flooded with new blood

Fresh oxygen removes lactic acid

140
Q

RICE can be used to aid injury rehabilitation. What does this stand for?

A

Rest, ice, compression, elevation

141
Q

RICE treatment is the proper regime for what kind of injuries?

A

Soft tissue

142
Q

What is cryotherapy?

A

The use of cooling measure to treat chronic or acute injuries

143
Q

How does cryotherapy work?

A

A cryogenic chamber is cooled with liquid nitrogen to a temperature of -110 degrees

Patient placed in chamber for few minutes

Protected form frostbite with socks, gloves and mouth and ear protection but otherwise just wears a bathing suit

144
Q

How long can the pain relief of cryotherapy last?

A

Up to 6-8 hours after treatment

145
Q

What is a hyperbaric chamber?

A

An air tight chamber that can stimulate air pressure at altitude or at depth.

146
Q

How do hyperbaric chambers work?

A

Reduces pressure at injured area

Delivers 100% pure oxygen at high pressure

Haemoglobin fully saturated with O2

Excess oxygen dissolved in plasma

Oxygen reaches parts of body not normally saturated

Increased WBC activity at injured site

147
Q

What is a hypoxic tent?

A

A form of hyperbaric chamber that stimulates low pressure or altitude conditions

148
Q

How do hypoxic tents work?

A

Elite athletes sleep in tent over night

Stimulates effects of high altitude

Oxygen depletion causes higher production of EPO and thus haemoglobin by the body

Can help maintain fitness levels

149
Q

What is an oxygen tent?

A

An oxygen tent consists of a canopy placed over the head and shoulders and provides an oxygen rich environment

150
Q

What is Newton’s first law?

A

A body will remain in a state of uniform motion in a straight line, or remain at rest, unless compelled to change its state of motion by an external force acting upon it?

151
Q

The law of inertia is the basic law behind Newton’s first law, what is this?

A

The reluctance to change state of motion

152
Q

What is Newton’s second law?

A

The rate of change of momentum of an object is directly proportional to the force causing the change, and the resulting change in momentum takes place in the direction in which the force was applied.

153
Q

How is momentum calculated?

A

Mass x velocity

154
Q

What is momentum?

A

The quantity of motion of a body

155
Q

Summarise Newton’s second law?

A

Mass is constant

Force governs direction

The greater the force the greater the acceleration

Force = mass x acceleration

156
Q

What is Newton’s third law?

A

When an object exerts a force on a second object, there is a force equal in magnitude but opposite in direction, exerted by the second object on the first.

157
Q

Define force

A

Something that tends to cause a change in velocity, measured in meters per second squared

158
Q

Define impulse

A

The effect of a force acting over a period of time

159
Q

Define displacement

A

The shortest straight line measurement between two points

160
Q

Define velocity

A

The rate of change of displacement, measure in meters per second

161
Q

How is average speed calculated?

A

Distance covered divided by time taken

162
Q

How is average velocity calculated?

A

Displacement divided by time

163
Q

Define acceleration

A

The rate of change of velocity or the difference between final and initial velocities divided by the time taken

164
Q

Define deceleration

A

A negative change in velocity over time, or negative acceleration

165
Q

Define vector

A

A quantity that has two dimensions, magnitude and direction

166
Q

Define scalar

A

A quantity that has a single dimension, magnitude

167
Q

Define air resistance

A

Friction between a body and air particles

168
Q

Define gravity

A

The force of attraction between two bodies; the force pulls object towards the centre of the earth

169
Q

Define ground reaction force

A

The equal and opposite force given to a performer who exerts a muscular force into the ground

170
Q

Define friction

A

When an object moves or tries to move over another friction occurs acting parallel to the surfaces in contact and opposing the movement

171
Q

What are the two vertical forces acting in a performer when running?

A

Ground reaction

Gravity

172
Q

What are the two horizontal forces acting on a performer when running?

A

Friction

Air resistance

173
Q

Define angle of release

A

The angle at which an object is released, measured from the horizontal

174
Q

Define parabolic curve

A

The flight path of a projectile in the absence of air resistance

175
Q

Define horizontal component

A

The horizontal motion of an object in a parabolic flight path

176
Q

Define vertical component

A

The upward motion of an object in a parabolic flight curve

177
Q

Define height of release

A

The highest point above the ground that an object is released

178
Q

What will finding the optimum angle and height of release do?

A

Help maximise the distance thrown

179
Q

How is impulse calculated?

A

Force x time

180
Q

Define positive impulse

A

An impulse that moves the body - acceleration

181
Q

Define negative impulse

A

A force generated when absorbing body motion - landing/deceleration

182
Q

What is the net impulse of a sprinter accelerating at the start of the race?

A

Positive

183
Q

What is the net impulse of a sprinter at constant velocity midway through the race?

A

Zero

184
Q

What is the net impulse of a sprinter decelerating at the end of the race?

A

Negative

185
Q

Define angular momentum

A

The amount of motion that the body has during rotation

186
Q

How is angular momentum calculated?

A

Angular velocity x moment of inertia

187
Q

Define angular velocity

A

The rate of movement in rotation

188
Q

Define angular acceleration

A

The rate of change of velocity during angular movement

189
Q

Define movement arm

A

The perpendicular distance from the point of application of a force to the axis of rotation

190
Q

Define resistance arm

A

The mass and the lever system from the mass to the fulcrum

191
Q

Define effort arm

A

The point of the lever system from where the effort is applied to the fulcrum

192
Q

What happens to angular momentum during rotation?

A

It remains constant

193
Q

How can a performer speed up rotation?

A

Tuck body parts in to the axis of rotation

Angular velocity increases

Moment of inertia decreases

194
Q

How can a performer slow down rotation?

A

Extend body parts away from the axis of rotation

Angular velocity decreases

Moment of inertia increases

PE A2 (6 decks)

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