Physiology, Kinesiology & Anatomy Flashcards
1
Q
What are the 4 STEPS to bridging the gap between current health/fitness levels and future goals?
A
Assess, Design, Instruct, Re-Assess
2
Q
What are the Goals mentioned by the client?
A
Explicit Goals
3
Q
Which type of muscle fibers are FAST TWITCH / ANAEROBIC fibers, which are good for brief powerful movements like weight lifting and sprints?
A
Type 2B Muscle Fibers
4
Q
Which type of muscle fibers are MODERATELY FAST twitch fibers, which are best for activities between 30 seconds to 2 minutes?
A
Type 2A Muscle Fibers
5
Q
Which type of muscle fibers are SLOW TWITCH / AEROBIC fibers, which are good for exercise longer than 3 minutes?
A
Type 1 Muscle Fibers
6
Q
What is it called when muscle fibers CONTRACT in response to electrical signals sent by motor neurons?
A
Action Potential
7
Q
What is a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it activates?
A
Motor Unit
8
Q
What is the fibrous cord attaching muscle to bone?
A
Tendon
9
Q
What are the 3 LAYERS OF FASCIA?
A
Epimysium - Outer
Perimysium - Group/Bundles
Endomysium - Inner
10
Q
What is the sheet of fibrous connective tissue that separates and contains muscle?
A
Fascia
11
Q
What are the 3 types of muscle?
A
Skeletal, Smooth and Cardiac
12
Q
What is soreness that extends beyond 48 hours?
A
DOMS
(Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness)
13
Q
What is soreness that lasts 24-48 hours?
A
PEMS
(Post Exercise Muscle Soreness)
14
Q
The increase in muscle cells in the body with corresponding increase in muscle size (and also very rare) is known as…
A
Hyperplasia
15
Q
The wasting or loss of muscle tissue resulting from a lack of use is known as…
A
Atrophy
16
Q
The increase in muscle size is known as…
A
Hypertrophy
17
Q
What are the strongest and weakest muscle actions?
A
Concentric is the weakest/shortening.
Eccentric is the strongest/lengthening.
(Also most prone to injury)
18
Q
Which muscle contraction is an exercise where muscle speed is consistent?
A
Isokinetic Contraction
19
Q
Which muscle contraction is an exercise where concentric and eccentric action is generated to move where muscle force doesn’t change?
A
Isotonic Contraction
20
Q
Which muscle contraction is when a muscle neither shortens or lengthens and works to hold everything in place?
A
Isometric Contraction
21
Q
Which muscle contraction is when a muscle LENGTHENS under tension - also the down/decelerating/negative movement?
A
Eccentric Contraction
22
Q
Which muscle contraction is when a muscle SHORTENS under tension - also the LIFTING UP phase?
A
Concentric Contraction
23
Q
What Law states that bones adapt to the mechanical stress placed upon them?
A
Wolff’s Law
24
Q
What is the disk of cartilaginous cells separating the diaphysis and epiphysis, as well as the SITE OF LONGITUDINAL GROWTH?
A
Epiphyseal Plate
25
What type of strength is the measure of how quickly work is performed?
Power
26
What type of strength is the ability to sustain muscular contraction for long durations?
Strength Endurance
27
What type of strength is the max force muscle can generate in relation to body weight?
Relative Strength
28
What type of strength is the max amount of strength needed to produce 1 rep max?
Absolute Strength
29
What skeletal muscle role is responsible for eliminating or cancelling out an undesired movement?
Neutralizer
30
What skeletal muscle role is responsible for stabilizing an adjacent segment?
Stabilizer
31
What skeletal muscle role is responsible for opposing the concentric muscle action of the agonist?
Antagonist
32
What skeletal muscle role is the muscle that assists indirectly to bring about a desired movement?
Synergist (AKA Assistant Mover)
33
What skeletal muscle role is the muscle that is doing the majority of the work at any point in time?
Agonist (AKA Prime Mover)
34
What is the chain of systems (nervous/muscle/skeletal) that link together to create human movement?
Kinetic Chain
35
What Law states that the more a signal passes a path stimulating muscle fibers, the less resistance there is?
The Law of Facilitation
36
What is the study of cellular reactions within the body during and after exercise?
Exercise Physiology
37
What is the process of adaptation due to stress placed on the body?
General Adaptation Syndrome
38
What part of the motor division of the nervous system INNERVATES skeletal muscle to create movement via MOTOR NEURONS?
Somatic Nervous System
39
What part of the motor division of the nervous system controls INVOLUNTARY functions of the body, such as heart rate, blood pressure and respiration?
Autonomic Nervous System
40
What are the 2 parts of the Autonomic Nervous System?
Sympathetic and Parasympathetic Nervous Systems
41
The fight and flight response relates to which nervous system?
Sympathetic NS
42
The rest and digest response relates to which nervous system?
Parasympathetic
43
What are the 2 parts of the Peripheral Nervous System?
Sensory Division and Motor Division
44
The part of the Peripheral NS that informs the Central Nervous System of Stimuli is the...
Sensory Division
45
The part of the Peripheral NS that initiates muscular and glandular response is the...
Motor Division
46
What are the 2 major divisions of the Nervous System?
Central NS and Peripheral NS
47
The brain and spinal cord relates to which division of the Nervous System?
Central NS
48
The division of the Nervous System that lies outside the CNS and includes SENSORY and MOTOR divisions is the...
Peripheral NS
49
What are the 5 types of bones?
Flat, Long, Short, Irregular, Sesamoid
50
Tarsals and Carpals are what type of bone?
Short Bone
51
The Skull, Thoracic Cage, Pelvis and Scapula are all what type of bone?
Flat Bone
52
The Spinal Column (vertebrae and sacrum) and Pelvis (pubis, ilium and ischium) are what type of bone?
Irregular Bone
53
The tibia, femur, phalanges, humerus, radius, ulna and metacarpals are what type of bone?
Long Bone
54
Small round bones commonly found in the tendons of the hands, knees and feet are what type of bone?
Sesamoid Bone
55
The PATELLA is an example of which type of bone?
Sesamoid Bone
56
What type of bones protect internal organs and provide large areas of attachment for muscles?
Flat Bones
57
What type of bones provide stability and some movement in the wrist and ankle joints?
Short Bones
58
What type of bones protect tendons from stress and wear?
Sesamoid Bones
59
What types of bones protect internal organs with their complex shapes?
Irregular Bones
60
What type of bones support weight and facilitate movement?
Long Bones
61
The HUMERUS, RADIUS and ULNA are bones in the...
Elbow Complex
62
Large volumes of bone are removed through bone resorption and replaced through...
Deposit
63
What bone disease occurs when bone resorption exceeds bone deposits?
Osteoporosis
64
What is the breakdown of bone and release of minerals to blood?
Resorption
65
What are the 3 types of joints?
Synarthrodial, Amphiarthroses and Diarthrodial
66
What types of joints are immoveable, such as the pelvis?
Synarthrodial Joints
67
What type of joints are semi-movable, such as the sacroiliac (SI) & pubis?
Amphiarthroses Joints
68
What type of joints are freely movable joints, such as the hip and knee?
Diarthrodial Joints
69
These characteristics refer to which type of joint?
Cartilage between the bone for cushon,
Cavity that encapsulates everything,
Synovial Membrane that releases Synovial fluid that makes it slick for easy movement
Diarthrodial Joints
70
What diarthrodial joint type has two saddle shaped surfaces allowing two degrees of freedom, such as the carpo-metacarpal joint of the thumb?
Saddle Joint
71
What diarthrodial joint type is Biaxial - one plane of movement that dominates two planes of motion (such as the knee)?
Condyloid Joint
72
What diarthrodial joint type has ONE degree of freedom (flexion/extension), such as the elbow?
Hinge Joint
73
What diarthrodial joint type has flat surfaces that allows translation between two bones?
Plane "Gliding" Joint
74
What diarthrodial joint type has only ONE degree of motion by rotation?
Pivot Joint
75
What diarthrodial joint type is known as the "ball and socket" allowing motion in all planes of movement (such as the hip joint)?
Multiaxial Joint
76
What is the (study of) motion/movement of joint surfaces called?
Arthrokinematics
77
Connective tissue connecting bones that contain collagen, maintaining contact surface of joints by preventing unwanted motion, and a passive stabilizer not meant to be stretched are characteristics of...
Ligaments
78
What is the breakdown of molecules to release energy?
Catabolism
79
What is the synthesis of molecules from smaller precursors utilizing the energy from catabolic reactions?
Anabolism
80
_______ is when catabolic reactions are so substantial that repair and synthesis from anabolic reactions cannot occur, leading to injury and illness/disease. occur. (TLDR: Too intense, or the right nutrients, or rest/recovery not achieved).
Overtraining
81
What is the process of removing electrons from molecules?
Oxidation
82
A substance produced by a living organism which acts as a catalyst to bring about a specific biochemical reaction.
Enzyme
83
Energy is measured in _______ which are measurements of heat.
Calories
1c = 1kcal = 4.2kj
84
_______ is the primary and immediate energy currency for all of your muscle cells for up to 5 seconds.
ATP
(Adenosine Triphosphate)
85
ATP is formed when _______ and an _________ are combined.
Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) &
Inorganic Phosphate (Pi).
86
_______ is the measurement of cardiopulmonary fitness and maximal oxygen uptake during a maximal exercise effort of 2-5 min.
VO2 Max
87
The _________ System of Energy is dominant when oxygen is delivered to cell to meet energy production needs.
Aerobic
88
The ________ System of Energy is dominant when body goes to work and oxygen can’t be delivered quick enough.
Anaerobic
89
What are the 3 Metabolic Pathways/Systems?
Anaerobic Pathway 1 (ATP-PC System)
Anaerobic Pathway 2 (Glycolytic System)
Aerobic System
90
What Metabolic Pathway/Energy System stores creatine phosphate in muscles and uses it as an immediate form of energy & can quickly replenish ATP (high intensity short duration)?
ATP-PC System (Anaerobic Pathway 1)
91
What Metabolic Pathway/Energy System produces energy quickly by breaking down glucose or glycogen to pyruvate (primary during strength training)?
Glycolytic System (Anaerobic Pathway 2)
92
What Metabolic Pathway/Energy System gets fuel through oxygen (main fuel for low intensity)?
Aerobic System
93
________ is what is produced when the body runs out of ATP and when there's not enough oxygen getting to the muscles, causing a burning sensation.
Lactate
94
At rest it takes 25 min to remove _____% of lactate from muscle and 75 min to remove _____%
50% and 95%
95
_____________ is the point at which, during incremental exercise, lactate builds up in the blood stream at a level that is higher than resting values.
Lactate Threshold
96
____________ is the exertion level between aerobic and anaerobic training, and the point during exercise when your body must switch from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism. It's also a useful measure for deciding exercise intensity for training and racing in endurance sports.
Anaerobic Threshold
97
Fat burns __________ and carbs burn ___________
Fat - aerobically
Carbs - anaerobically
98
The sequence of reactions by which most living cells generate energy during the process of aerobic respiration. It takes place in the mitochondria, consuming oxygen, producing carbon dioxide and water as waste products, and converting ADP to energy-rich ATP.
Kreb Cycle
99
The breakdown of fat to make ATP and primary pathway of catabolism of fatty acids for energy during rest and low impact.
Lipolysis
100
The ATP–PCr system is the main energy provider for a high intensity exercise of short duration up to _____ seconds
10 seconds
101
This system will start up at around 6 seconds and 30 seconds for fast glycolysis or all the way to 2 minutes if the exercise is lower in intensity.
The glycolysis system
102
Which system kicks in around 2-3 minutes as the primary source of energy during moderate activities?
Aerobic System
103
This system is the slowest for production of ATP but has the greatest capacity for it, meaning you get more ATP during this system, but it can’t keep up with demands of higher intensity exercise.
Aerobic System
104
Delivering oxygen and nutrients, the removal of waste and CO2, the transport of hormones, the maintenance of body temperature and prevention of infection are all roles of the ____________.
Cardiovascular System
105
What are the 4 chambers of the heart?
Left and right atrium are upper chambers and left and right ventricle are lower chambers.
106
The sequence of blood flow starting from oxygen poor blood entering the heart
Right Atrium > Right Ventricle > Arteries (Lungs) > Veins > Left Atrium > Left Ventricle > Aorta > Body
“Left is LeaVing”
107
The part of the heart responsible for pulmonary circulation (blood flow from the body to lungs).
Right Ventricle
108
The part of the heart responsible for systemic circulation (blood from lungs to body)
Left Ventricle
109
The process of bringing deoxygenated blood back to right atrium.
Venous return
110
_____________ measures how many times per minute your heart beats, while ____________ measures how strongly your heart and blood vessels pump blood to the rest of your body.
Heart Rate (also "Pulse") &
Blood Pressure
111
Regarding blood pressure, __________ is the top number, which is the maximum pressure the heart exerts while beating, while _________ is the bottom number is the amount of pressure in the arteries between beats.
Systolic - top number
Diastolic - bottom number
112
Normal Blood Pressure is ____/____ and High Blood Pressure is ____/_____.
120/80 (Normal)
140/90+ (High)
113
What are the 3 types of blood vessels?
Arteries
Veins
Capillaries
114
A breathing technique that can be used to help diagnose a problem with the autonomic nervous system and be used to help restore a normal heart rate if your heart starts beating too fast.
Vasalva maneuver
115
A normal resting heart rate for adults ranges from ___ to ___ beats per minute.
60 to 80
116
The FITTR Principle stands for:
Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, and Rate
117
How do you measure Estimated Maximum Heart Rate?
subtract age from 220.
118
_____________ is the difference between your maximum (peak) heart rate and your resting heart rate.
Heart Rate Reserve
119
________ is how quickly your heart goes back to resting heart rate after exercise. Also, the more fit a person becomes, the quicker the person goes back to this.
Recovery Heart Rate
120
The variation in beat to beat difference in heart rates is _____.
(The more fit someone is, the more variation there is, because their heart is so in tune with their body and how quickly it needs to pump. "A fine tuned sports car.")
Heart Rate Variability
121
50 to 85 percent of your maximum heart rate is your _______ heart rate.
Target Heart Rate
122
This formula is the most common means to calculate your exercise intensity. It's an equation that blends your maximum heart rate, resting heart rate, and target percentage into one easy-to-use calculation, ideal for endurance athletes.
Karvonen Formula
123
What are the 3 external systems that influence heart rate?
Sympathetic NS
Parasympathetic NS
Endocrine System
124
The complex network of glands and organs that uses hormones to control and coordinate your body's metabolism, energy level, reproduction, growth and development, and response to injury, stress, and mood.
Endocrine System
125
The ratio of CO2 expired to O2 consumed. This ratio is an estimate of the type of energy substrate that the body is currently using predominantly (carbohydrates vs fat) for fuel.
Respiratory Exchange Ratio (RER)
126
Which heart rate based training is more custom based per individual and done through a formula?
Heart Rate Reserve
127
If an individual male is 45 years or older or a female 55 years or older it is the trainer’s job to urge the client to have this doctor- supervised treadmill stress test performed. Once the test is performed, heart rate training zones are accurately known without the need for mathematical formulas.
VO2Max
128
Training based on _____________ is the best way for athletes; training in intervals to drive the threshold higher.
Anaerobic Threshold / Lactate Threshold
129
A normal condition that occurs quickly due to an increase in training volume or intensity, which can last a few days or few weeks.
Overrreaching
130
A condition that occurs slowly over several months due to an increase in volume with inadequate recovery, and can take several weeks or even up to years to recover from.
Overtraining
131
This device measures ventilation, the movement of air into and out of the lungs to determine aerobic capacity.
Spirometer
132
The greatest volume of air that can be expelled from the lungs after taking the deepest possible breath.
Vital Capacity
133
The amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle.
Tidal Volume
134
The volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum forceful expiration (the volume of air that cannot be expelled from the lungs).
Residual Volume (RV)
135
The extra volume of air that can be expired with maximum effort beyond the level reached at the end of a normal, quiet expiration.
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
136
The volume of air in the lungs upon the maximum effort of inhalation (average of 6 liters for healthy adults).
Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
137
The positioning of the body (and starting place of movement) when it is standing upright and facing forward with each arm hanging on either side of the body, and the palms facing forward.
Anatomical Position
138
A more natural standing position with palms facing each other.
Also called Fundamental Starting Position
Anatomical Neutral or
Fundamental Starting Position
139
The plane of movement that correlates to forward and backward motion.
Saggital Plane
140
The plane of movement that correlates to left and right motion.
Frontal Plane
141
The plane of movement that divides the body into top and bottom halves and correlates with rotational movement.
Horizontal Plane
142
The anatomical movement descriptors for the front and back of body are ________ and ________.
Anterior (front of body) &
Posterior (back of body)
143
The anatomical movement descriptors for the above and below a reference point are ___________ and ____________.
Superior (above) &
Inferior (below)
144
The anatomical movement descriptors for toward and away from the midline of the body are ___________ and ___________.
Medial (toward midline of body) & Lateral (away from the midline of the body)
145
The anatomical movement descriptors that are closer and farther from a reference point are _________ and __________.
Proximal (closer) &
Distal (farther)
146
The anatomical movement descriptors that correlate to one or both sides are ________ and _______.
Bilateral (both sides) &
Unilateral (one side)
147
The anatomical movement descriptors that correlate to near the surface and far below the surface are __________ and _________.
Superficial (near the surface) & Deep
148
The anatomical movement descriptors that are towards the head and towards the tailbone are __________ and _________.
Cephalic (towards the head) & Caudal (towards the tailbone)
149
The anatomical movement descriptors that correlate to laying face down and laying face up are _________ and _________.
Prone (laying face down) & Supine (laying on back face up)
150
Arthrokinematics are the movements of _____________ and Osteokinematics are movements of _____________.
Joints & Bones
151
Forward & Back movements such as a Lunge, and Extension/Flexion are movements of which plane AND axis of motion?
Sagittal Plane / Coronal Axis
152
Movement out to side, Abduction and Adduction are movements of which plane AND axis of motion?
Frontal Plane / Anterior-Posterior Axis
153
External/Lateral Rotation and Internal/Medial Rotation are movements of which plane AND axis of motion?
Horizontal Plane / Longitudinal Axis
154
The pulling forward of the scapula/shoulder blades is called:
Protraction
155
The pulling back of scapula/shoulder blades is called:
Retraction
156
The movement of shoulder shrugging is called:
Elevation
157
The movement of lowering the shoulder blades/scapula is called:
Depression
158
The ankle movement in which the foot points down is called:
Plantarflexion
159
The ankle movement in which the foot points up is called:
Dorsiflexion
160
The ankle movement in which the foot rotates outward is called:
Eversion
161
The ankle movement in which the foot rotates inward is called:
Inversion
162
Match Pronation and Supination with:
Eversion, Inversion, Plantarflexion, Dorsiflexion
Pronation - Dorsiflexion & Eversion
Supination - Plantarflexion & Inversion
163
The rotation of the forearm and hand so that the palm faces forward or upward. also : a corresponding movement of the foot and leg in which the foot rolls outward with an elevated arch.
Supination
164
The rotation of the forearm and hand so that the palm faces downward. Also, a corresponding movement of the foot and leg in which the foot rolls inward with dorsiflexion.
Pronation
165
What is the largest synovial (diarthrodial) joint in the body?
The Knee
166
Which joint is essentially a hinge joint capable of flexion and extension and works in all 3 planes?
The Knee joint
167
What are the four ligaments that support the knee joint?
MCL, LCL, ACL, PCL
168
What is the name of the musculoskeletal structures that stabilize the spine and pelvis?
The Lumbo-Pelvic Hip Complex
169
A postural deviation characterized by the top of the pelvis rotating forward, increasing the curve in the lower back and flexing the hips. (Created by lumbar extension and hip flexion).
Anterior Pelvic Tilt
170
A postural condition in which the front of the pelvis rises and the back of the pelvis drops, while the pelvis rotates upwards.
(Created by lumbar flexion and hip extension)
Posterior Pelvic Tilt
171
The most mobile joint in the lower extremity is the __________.
Hip Complex
172
What kind of joint is the hip?
Ball & socket (synovial joint)
173
The hip joint is responsible for what types of movement?
Flexion, Extension, Abduction, Adduction, Internal & External Rotation
174
The 5 regions of the spine from top to bottom are:
Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacrum, Coccyx
175
How many vertebrae are in the Cervical Region of the Spine?
7
176
Which region of the spine has the most motion?
Cervical
177
How many vertebrae are in the Thoracic Region of the Spine?
12
178
Which region of the spine has has more range of motion than the thoracic spine, but less than the cervical spine?
Lumbar
179
What kind of curve does the the Cervical and Lumbar regions of the spine have?
Lordotic Curve
180
What are the motions of the spinal column?
Flexion, Extension, Lateral Flexion, Rotation, Pelvic Titling
181
These are where movement takes place in the spine, and acts like shock absorbers. They are tough. Built like a radial tire. They can take lots of force, allows you to flex and rotate.
Intervertebral Discs
182
What are the two main parts of an intervertebral disc?
Annulus (tough on the outside) & Nucleus (jelly filled sack)
183
Intervertebral discs receive nourishment through movement, a process known as:
Imbibition
184
The spine is most vulnerable in the forwardly ___________ position. It's made worse with added weight and rotating and can lead to disc herniation or bulges.
Flexed Position
185
The Shoulder Complex is made up of how many bones and joints?
3 bones, 4 joints
186
The 3 bones of the Shoulder Complex are:
Clavicle (collar bone),
Scapula (shoulder blade),
Humerus (arm bone)
187
The Glengumerous, Scapulothoracic, Sternoclavicular and Acromioclavicular Joints are part of the:
Shoulder Complex
188
What are the movements of the Shoulder Complex?
-Flexion and extension,
-Adduction and abduction,
-Internal and external rotation
-Shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction (like a chest fly)
189
What is the range of motion in shoulder flexion and shoulder extension?
180 degrees (flexion)
60 degrees (extension)
190
What is the range of motion in shoulder adduction and abduction?
180 degrees (adduction)
75 degrees (abduction)
191
What is the range of motion for internal and external shoulder rotation?
90 degrees
192
What is the range of motion for shoulder HORIZONTAL adduction and abduction (like a chest fly)?
135 degrees (adduction)
45 degrees (abduction)
193
What are the 3 bones of the Elbow Complex?
Humerous, Radius (thumb side), Ulna (pinky side)
194
The only 2 bones to cross over each other are ________ & ________ and located in the ________ complex.
Radius & Ulna
Elbow Complex
195
The movements of the elbow complex are:
Pronation and Supination
Flexion and Extension
196
What are the 3 main parts of a muscle?
Belly - the bulging part of muscle
Origin (Head)- the less moveable attachment
Insertion- the moveable attachments
197
What part of the muscle is the bulging part of the muscle?
Belly
198
What part of the muscle is the less moveable attachment?
Origin (aka Head)
199
What part of the muscle are the moveable attachments?
Insertion
200
Soleus,
Gastrocnemius,
Perineum Longus,
Anterior Tibialis are muscles of the:
Calves
201
What prime movers are the following?
Biceps Femoris,
Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus & Gastrocnemius (calves) are muscles of the:
Knee flexors
202
What prime movers are the following?
Rectus femoris,
Vastus Intermedius,
Vastus Lateralis &
Vastus Medialis
Knee Extensors
203
Name the muscle group:
The Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus &
Biceps Femoris
Thighs/Hamstrings
204
What prime movers are the following?
Psoas Major,
Iliacus,
Illiopsoas
Hip Flexors
205
What prime movers are the following?
Rectus Femoris,
Tensor Fascia Latae,
Sartorius &
Pecineus
Assistant Hip Flexors
206
What prime movers are the following?
Gluteus Maximus,
Biceps Femoris,
Semitendinosus & Semimembranosus
Hip Extensors
207
What prime movers are the following, which are responsible for pulling legs out to the side?
Gluteus Medius &
Gluteus Minimus
Hip Abductors
208
What prime movers are the following, which are responsible for pulling the leg inward from the side & helping with frontal plane stabilization?
Adductor Magnus,
Adductor Longus,
Adductor Brevis,
Gracilis
Hip Adductors
209
What prime movers are the following?
Piriformis,
Gemellus Superior,
Gemellus Inferior,
Obturator Internus,
Obturator Externus,
Quadratus Femoris
Hip External Rotators
210
What prime movers are the following?
Gluteus Minimus,
Tensor Cascia Latae, Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus,
Gluteus Medius
Hip Internal Rotators
211
Gastrocnemius (big calves), Soleus (deeper under calves),
Anterior Tibialis (front shin) &
Peroneus Longus (main muscle for eversion) are major muscles of the:
Ankle-Foot Complex
212
True or False?
Lower extremity muscles which are often tight and weak, and cause difficulties with progression of exercise include the gastrocnemius, soleus, anterior tibialis, and peroneus longus.
True
213
What muscle group consists of:
Rectus Femoris,
Vastus Intermedius,
Vastus Lateralis,
Vastus Medialis
Quadriceps
214
What is the order of the following Anterior Muscles from deep to superficial?
External Oblique,
Rectus Abdominus,
Transverse Abdominus,
Internal Oblique
Transverse Abdominus,
Internal Oblique
Rectus Abdominus
External Oblique
(or... TIRE!)
215
What muscle is the deepest anterior/abdominal muscle, that wraps around you horizontally like a weight belt? It connects all the way to the thoracal lumbar fascia and back into the vertebrae. It is considered the biggest stabilizer of the spine.
Transverse Abdominus
216
What abdominal muscles are shaped like a V and upside-down V and are for rotation & lateral flexion & bending?
External Obliques
217
The visual muscles for 6 packs, which are less important than the others, but are what we all want for aesthetics.
Rectus Abdominus
218
What muscle group is the following:
Spinalis Thoracis,
Iliocostalis Cervicis,
Spinalis Cervicis,
Iliocostalis Thoracis,
Longissimus Thoracis,
Iliocostalis Lumborum
Erector Spinae (Back Muscles)
219
What muscle group is the following:
Supraspinatus,
Infraspinatus,
Teres Minor,
Subscapularis
Shoulder Complex/Rotator Cuff
220
What muscles are involved with the Scapular Motions of Abduction & Protraction?
Serratus Anterior &
Pectoralis Major
221
What muscles are involved with the Scapular Motions of Adduction & Retraction?
Rhomboids,
Middle Trapezius,
Levator Scapulae
222
What muscles are involved with the Scupular Motion of Elevation?
Upper Traps
Levator Scapulae
Rhomboids
223
What muscles are involved with the Scapular Motion of Depression (muscles pulling down)?
Lower Traps,
Pectoralis Minor
224
Anterior Deltoid,
Upper (Clavicular) Pec Major &
Coracobrachialis
These are Major _________ Muscles of the Shoulder.
a. Extensor
b. Flexor
c. Abductor
d. Adductor
b. Major FLEXOR Muscles of the Shoulder
225
Latissimus Doris,
Lower (Sternal) Pec Major &
Teres Major
These are Major _________ Muscles of the Shoulder (when resistance is present).
a. Abductor
b. Adductor
c. Extensor
d. Flexor
E. Extensor & Adductor
E. Extensor & Adductor
226
Middle Deltoid,
Supraspinatus
These are Major ________ Muscles of the Shoulder.
a. Extensor
b. Flexor
c. Abductor
b. Adductor
c. Abductor
227
Pectoralis Major,
Anterior Deltoid,
Coracobrachialis
These are Major _________ Muscles of the Shoulder (pressing motion).
a. Horizontal Abductors
b. Horizontal Adductors
c. Horizontal Flexors
d. Horizontal Extensors
b. Horizontal Adductors
228
Posteroir & Middle Deltoid,
Infraspinatus,
Teres Minor
These are Major _________ Muscles of the Shoulder.
a. Horizontal Abductors
b. Horizontal Adductors
c. Horizontal Flexors
d. Horizontal Extensors
a. Horizontal Abductors
229
In the elbow complex, the biceps act as a:
a. pronator
b. supinator
c. extensor
d. flexor
b. Supinator
This is a bad question. They are flexors too.
230
A pronated wrist works the:
a. Biceps Brachii
b. Brachialis
c. Brachioradialis
b. Brachialis
231
The Hammer curl position works the:
a. Brachialis & Brachioradialis
b. Biceps Brachii
c. Biceps Brachii & Brachialis
d. Brachioradialis & Biceps Brachii
a. Brachialis & Brachioradialis
232
Triceps Brachii....
a. are Elbow Flexors
b. are Elbow Extensors
c. insert into the Ulna (forearm bone)
d. insert into the Infraspinitus
e. a & d
f. b & c
f. b & c
Elbow Flexors and insert into the Ulna.
233
True or False:
The primary job of the rotator cuff is to maintain the integrity and alignment of the gleno-humeral joint.
True
234
During horizontal adduction, the pectoralis major acts in which of the following fashions?
a. Antagonist
b. Agonist
c. Flexor
d. Supinator
b. Agonist
235
What muscle performs forearm supination?
Supinator
236
What muscle performs forearm pronation?
Pronator Quadratus
