Biomechanics, Flexibility & Nutrition Flashcards

1
Q

__________ evaluates the motion of a living organism and the action of the forces on it.

A

Biomechanics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The job of the personal trainer is to:

A. Get your client from where they are to where they want to go.
B. Bridge the gap.
C. Help them get to their goals they can’t do on their own safely and effectively.
D. All the above

A

D. All the Above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

To Get MAX PERFORMANCE you need _________ and _________ Efficiency.

A

Mechanical & Psychological Efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The study of movement itself without regard to forces on it (Analysis includes speed, distance, and acceleration).

A

Kinematics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The study of forces acting on system.

A

Kinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The scientific and artistic study of human body movement.

A

Kinesiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A push or a pull that will start something in motion, stop its motion, speed it up or slow it down.

A

Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Forces generated by the body tissues and their effect on movement.

A

Internal Forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Forces that act against the human body and can be produced by an external object or in reaction to the voluntary exertion of force against an external object.

(Gravity, Bodyweight, Water, Resistance Bands, etc)

A

External Forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Measurement of objects in motion.

A

Momentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The internal force that resists the applied force is called ______. The deformation of the length caused by the external forces is called a ________.

A

Stress / Strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The steps of Biomechanical Analysis

A
  1. Description:
    Develop a theoretical model of the most effective technique and describe what it would look like. Determine what you want to see when you observe your clients.
  2. Observation:
    Observe the performance of your client to determine what that person’s technique actually looks like.
  3. Evaluation:
    Compare the individualized ideal technique to the observed performance. Identify and evaluate the errors.
  4. Instruction:
    Educate the client by providing feedback and the instruction necessary to correct those errors.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or False:

Vectors are the quantity that can be fully described by its magnitude (example: mass of dumbbell would be same in gym as it would be on moon even though weight changes).

Scalars are things that have both magnitude and direction (example: dumbbell would weigh more on earth than moon).

A

False.

Scalars are the quantity that can be fully described by its magnitude and Vectors are things that have both magnitude and direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The rotational analogue of force (the load).

A

Torque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The shortest distance between the force vector and the joint axis.

A

Moment Arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Movement that is due to one joint moving about its axis.

A

Single Joint Movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Movement produced due to several joints working together.

A

Compound Joint Movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The scientific study of the measurements and proportions of the human body.

A

Anthopometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the law that states an object at rest remains at rest, and an object in motion remains in motion at constant speed and in a straight line unless acted on by an unbalanced force?

A

Newton’s First Law of Motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An _______ chain is one in which movement of one joint is independent of the other joints in the chain…

…while a _________ chain is one in which movement of one joint causes the other joints in the chain to move in a predictable manner. (Ex: the foot or hand is in contact with the surface on which you are exercising).

A

Open / Closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bench press, Leg extension, Hamstring curl, Lat pulldown are examples of

A. Open Chain Exercises
B. Closed Chain Exercises

A

A. Open Chain Exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Push-ups, Lunges, Deadlifts. Tricep dips are examples of

A. Open Chain Exercises
B. Closed Chain Exercises

A

B. Closed Chain Exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The rate at which work is done.

A

Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or False:

In biomechanical analysis, we first analyze the kinetics (forces of the movement).

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. The amount if force applied to lever.
  2. The distance of the application of force to lever.
  3. The angle of force being applied to lever.

These are the elements of…..?

A

Torque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

True or False:

Optimize the technique for the individual. Certain people in their genetics can perform certain things better than others.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

True or False:

Someone with a longer femur, in a squat, they will need to hinge more at the hip and stick their butt back, meaning more on their hip joint & lower back because they have a longer femur.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The force acting in a direction that’s parallel to (over the top of) a surface.

A

Shear Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The force upon a lever directed towards the contact surface.

A

Compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The force upon a lever directed away from the contact surface.

A

Distraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The relationship between the length of the muscle and the tension produced by the muscle.

A

Length-Tension Relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the Component of Muscle Contraction found in myofibrils where cross-bridging of actin and myosin take place?

A

Contractile (Active) Component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the Component of Muscle Contraction found in the tendon and the actin-myosin cross-bridges (acting like a spring)?

A

Series Elastic (Passive) Component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the Component of Muscle Contraction found in the sarcolemma and the connective tissue around the muscle (endomysium, perimysium, epimysium)? As the muscle is lengthened, the parallel elastic component prevents external forces from pulling the contractile elements apart.

A

Parallel Elastic (Passive) Component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of Torque?

A. The greater the force the greater the load.
B. The longer the lever the more the load.
C. The further the angle to 90° the more the load.
D. The longer the momentum arm the more the load.
E. The closer the angle to 90° the more the load.

A

C. The further the angle to 90° the more the load.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the ability of joint to achieve full range of motion with proper balance of elasticity and plasticity?

A

Flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the ability of both muscular and connective tissue to return to normal length after being stretched?

A

Elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The Parallel Elastic Components of Muscle Connective Tissue are:

A. Epimysium
B. Perimysium
C. Endomysium
D. A & B
C. A & C
E. A, B & C
F. None of the above

A

E. Epimysium, Perimysium and Endomysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The Series Elastic Components are:

A. Joints
B. Tendons
C. Muscle Spindle
D. All the above
E. None of the above

A

B. Tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The ability of connective tissue to achieve a new and greater length after stretch with out returning to normal length.

A

Plasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

This protects muscle from over lengthening by quickly contracting muscle.

A

Muscle Spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

This protects muscle by causing it to relax when muscle develops too much tension, allowing you to stretch further.

A

Golgi Tendon Organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The act of causing the muscle to relax in this manner is known as:

A

Autogenic Inhibition

Example: Bringing the pectoralis major through its full range of motion (horizontal abduction) where it contracts to protect itself and is then allowed to relax when the GTO overrides the muscle spindle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The act of the antagonist relaxing due to contraction by the agonist.

A

Reciprocal Inhibition

Example: The hip flexors will be reciprocally inhibited and forced to relax when their antagonist, the gluteus maximus, contracts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The act of putting pressure upon the muscle to loosen up tight tissues is called:

A

Self Myofascial Release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The type of stretching that involves holding a position for 20-30 seconds and is best utilized AFTER a workout.

A

Static Stretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The type of stretching that moves through an active full range of motion and is best utilized BEFORE or DURING a workout.

A

Dynamic Stretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

This intense stretching method uses bouncing movements to push your body beyond its normal range of motion.

A

Ballistic Stretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What stretching method is a partner-assisted stretch involving both passive and active muscle actions allowing the antagonist to reach new ROMs?

A

PNF Stretching
(Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

This stretching method utilizes a foam roller for self myofacial release and is best for both before AND after workout.

A

SMFR Stretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The process before a workout 5 TO 10 minutes allowing appropriate increase body temp and blood flow circulation.

A

Warm Up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The process after a workout 10 TO 15 MINUTES at 40 to 50% intensity to decrease soreness and rid body of metabolic waste

A

Cool Down

53
Q

What is the normal ROM for the Ankle/foot joint?

Dorsi flexion 10-20degree
Plantar flexion 45degree
Inversion 30 degree
Eversion 20degree

A
54
Q

True or False:

Areas of discomfort in SMFR stretching is where you need to focus the most.

A

True

55
Q

True or False:

You must focus on mobility with your clients, then flexibility.

A

FALSE.

Flexibility first Mobility second

56
Q

True or False:

Prior to warming up or stretching your client, you must first ASSESS THEIR SPECIFIC FLEXIBILITY NEEDS.

A

True

57
Q

Self Myofascial Release…

A. Works by the Golgi tendon organ overriding the muscle spindle.
B. Places external pressure on tight areas.
C. Can be seen as a form of self massage.
D. All the above.

A

D. All the Above

58
Q

True or False:

Self Myofascial Release works by the Muscle Spindle overriding the Golgi Tendon Organ

A

False.

The Golgi Tendon Organ overrides the Muscle Spindle

59
Q

The normal ROM for ankle dorsiflexion is:

A

10-20 degrees

60
Q

The normal ROM for ankle plantarflexion is:

A

45 degrees

61
Q

The normal ROM for ankle Inversion and Eversion is:

(Inversion - Sole facing midline of body & big toe elevated)

(Eversion - Sole facing away from midline of body, smaller toes elevated)

A

Inversion - 30 Degrees
Eversion - 20 Degrees

62
Q

The four parts of Nutrition are:

A. Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption, Metabolism
B. Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats, Water
C. Micronutrients, Macronutrients, Monosaccharides, Disaccharides

A

A. Ingestion, Digestion, Absorption, Metabolism

63
Q

What are the 6 Categories of Nutrients?

A

Carbs
Fats
Protein
Water
Vitamins
Minerals

64
Q

True or False:

In athletes, possible differences based on the goals and type of athlete might include the specific timing of nutrients, increased carbohydrates and increased protein.

A

True

65
Q

The Four Macronutrients are:

A

Carbs, Fats, Protein, Water

66
Q

The Two Micronutrients are:

A

Vitamins & Minerals

67
Q

How many calories of energy do each of the macronutrients below provide per gram?

Carbohydrate:
Protein:
Fat:
Alcohol:

A

Carbohydrate: 4 kcal/g
Protein: 4 kcal/g
Fat: 9 kcal/g
Alcohol: 7 kcal/g

68
Q

This Macronutrient provides energy for the body:

A

Carbohydrate

69
Q

This Macronutrient helps build and repair tissues:

A

Protein

70
Q

This Macronutrient is a necessary for cells, protecting internal organs & providing vitamins:

A

Fat

71
Q

What comprises about 60 percent of the body, is the most important nutrient, and is crucial for various chemical reactions in the body?

A

Water

72
Q

What Micronutrient regulates various body processes, but does NOT provide energy?

A

Vitamins

73
Q

True or False

Vitamins and Minerals regulate various body processes AND provide energy.

A

False

They do NOT provide energy.

74
Q

___________ are the measurement of heat and energy.

A

Calories

75
Q

What is the process of ingestion, digestion, absorption and metabolism of food better known as?

A

Nutrition

76
Q

Adults should get _______% of their calories from carbs.

A. 20-30%
B. 20-40%
C. 40-50%
D. 45-60%

A

D. 45-60%

77
Q

The 3 Types of Carbs are:

A

Sugar, Starch & Fiber

78
Q

Are Monosaccharides and Disaccharides (sugars) SIMPLE or COMPLEX Carbs?

A

Simple

79
Q

Are Starches/Fibers (grains, veggies, fruits) SIMPLE or COMPLEX carbs?

A

Complex

80
Q

_____________ are the simplest form of carbs.

A

Monosaccharides

81
Q

What form of carbs are Sucrose, Lactose, and Maltose?

A

Disaccharides

82
Q

The combination of Sucrose and Glucose is:

A. Lactose
B. Fructose
C. Maltose
D. Galactose

A

B. Fructose

83
Q

The combination of Glucose and Galactose is:

A. Lactose
B. Fructose
C. Maltose
D. Sucrose

A

A. Lactose

84
Q

The combination of Glucose and Glucose is:

A. Lactose
B. Fructose
C. Maltose
D. Galactose

A

B. Maltose

85
Q

Complex Carbs are also known as:

A

Polysaccharides

86
Q

What is the primary difference between simple and complex carbs?

A

The TIME it takes to breakdown:
Simple provides immediate energy, and complex provides sustained energy.

87
Q

True or False:

The more complex the carb, the better it is for your body.

A

True

88
Q

True or False:

Complex Carbs Increase the risk of heart disease, some cancers and other health related benefits, and therefor should be the minority of carb intake.

A

False:

Complex Carbs REDUCE the risk and should be that MAJORITY of carb intake.

89
Q

Which is NOT a benefit of Fiber?

A. Makes you “full”
B. Stabilizes blood sugar
C. Provides immediate energy
D. Prevents constipation
E. Decreases fat and cholesterol absorption

A

C. provides immediate energy. (it’s complex, not simple!)

90
Q

The recommended servings per day for fruits/veggies are ___ g per day and can be upwards of ___ g per day for active individuals.

A

5 servings per day.

Upwards of 13 servings for active individuals.

91
Q

The effect that food or meal has on blood glucose levels after consumption is referred to as:

A

Glycemic Response

92
Q

What are the 3 subgroups of Fiber?

A

Functional fiber (performs specific beneficial functions in body like stabilizing blood sugar )

Dietary fiber (non digestible carbs and lignins in plants)

Total fiber (sum of functional and dietary)

93
Q

This subgroup of Fiber is non-digestible and EXTRACTED from plants or SYNTHETICALLY made performs specific beneficial benefits and functions in the body such as stabilizing blood sugar and “feeling full.”

A

Functional Fiber

94
Q

This subgroup of Fiber consists of non-digestible carbohydrates and lignans that occur NATURALLY in plants.

A

Dietary Fiber

95
Q

This subgroup of Fiber is ths sum of both Functional and Dietary Fiber.

A

Total Fiber

96
Q

What is the recommended Fiber intake for men and women 19-50 years old?

A

Men: 38g
Women: 25g

(the average man or woman only gets around 13-14g).

97
Q

The recommended carb intake for Moderate, Vigorous & Extreme Endurance is:

A. 2 - 3g / 3 - 4g / 4 - 5g per pound of body weight
B. 2.3 - 3.2g / 3.2 - 4.5g / 4.5 - 6g per pound of body weight
C. 3.2 - 4.5g / 4.5 - 6g / 6 - 7.5g per pound of body weight

A

B. 2.3 - 3.2g / 3.2 - 4.5g / 4.5 - 6g per pound of body weight

98
Q

The Building blocks of protein are:

A

Amino Acids

99
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major type of carbohydrate?

A. Sugar
B. Starch
C. Wheat
D. Fiber

A

C. Wheat

100
Q

Is it better to primarily eat foods ranked HIGH on the glycemic index or LOW on the glycemic index?

A

Low

101
Q

When are simple sugars (monosaccharides and disaccharides) best consumed?
A. During a workout
B. After a workout
C. Before a workout
D. During and after a workout
E. Before and during a workout

A

D. During and after a workout

102
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a complex carbohydrate?

A. Whole Wheat Bread
B. Honey
C. Strawberries
D. Dried Beans

A

B. Honey

103
Q

Where in the body is glycogen stored?

A

Muscles and Liver

104
Q

Amino Acids are bonded by:

A

Peptide Bonds

105
Q

These amino acids must be consumed because the body CANNOT produce them by itself

A

Essential Amino Acids

106
Q

These amino acids CAN be produced by the body (but still very important).

A

Nonessential Amino Acids

107
Q

A complete protein consists of (how many) amino acids?

A

20 Amino Acids

108
Q

Of the 20 amino acids, how many of them are ESSENTIAL amino acids?

A

9

109
Q

Which amio acid cannot be synthesized by children?

A. Tyrosine
B. Histidine
C. Lysine
D. Leucine

A

B. Histidine

110
Q

When working with a vegetarian client, be cautious of the quality of protein they consume and consult with a:

A

RD (Registered Dietitian)

111
Q

When two or more proteins are combined to compensate for deficiencies in essential amino acid content in each protein is better known as:

A

Complimentary Proteins

112
Q

True or False:

The primary functions of protein include building and repairing body tissues, regulation of physiological processes within the body, and the formation of hormones.

A

True

113
Q

Pair the recommended amount of protein for each of the following:

Endurance Athlete
Recreational Athlete
Strength Training Athlete
Sedentary Adult

0.4g per lb of body weight
0.5 - 0.7g per lb of body weight
0.6 - 0.7g per lb of body weight
0.7 - 0.8g per lb of body weight

A

Sedentary Adult:
0.4g per lb of body weight

Recreational Athlete:
0.5 - 0.7g per lb of body weight

Endurance Athlete:
0.6 - 0.7g per lb of body weight

Strength Training Athlete:
0.7 - 0.8g per lb of body weight

114
Q

What are the 4 types of fat?

A

Saturated, Monounsaturated, Polyunsaturated & Trans Fats

115
Q

Which type of fat is solid at room temperature, such as butter or animal fats?

(NESTA refers to it as the “full bus”)

A

Saturated Fat

116
Q

Which type of fats are liquid at room temperature?

(NESTA refers to them as one seat filled on the bus, and more than one seat filled.)

A

Monounsaturated Fat &
Polyunsaturated Fat

117
Q

Of the below, which fats should be avoided?

Which should be limited?

Which 2 are essential and should replace the other 2?

-Polyunsaturated
-Trans Fats
-Saturated Fats
-Monounsaturated Fats

A

Fats to avoid:
Trans Fats

Fats to limit:
Saturated Fats

“Good” Fats:
Polyunsaturated & Monounsaturated

118
Q

Which type of fats are changed through hydrogenation?

A

Trans Fats

119
Q

Saturated Fats are…

A. Solid at Room Temperature
B. “Saturated” with Hydrogen
C. Primarily Animal Fats
D. All the above

A

D. All the above

120
Q

Which fat is considered the most harmful and increases the risk for cardiovascular disease than any other fat?

A

Trans Fat

121
Q

True or False:

Essential Fatty Acids have been shown as important in heart health.

A

True

122
Q

Which of the following is the correct order for gastric emptying time from fastest to slowest?

A. FATS < PROTEINS < CARBS
B. CARBS < PROTEINS < FATS
C. CARBS < FATS < PROTEINS
D. FATS < CARBS < PROTEINS
E. PROTEINS < CARBS < FAT

A

B. CARBS < PROTEINS < FATS

123
Q

The time it takes for the stomach to empty (1-4 hours, based on the food consumed) is called:

A

Gastric Emptying

124
Q

What nutrient is the most important nutrient and effects performance more than any other nutrient?

A

Water

125
Q

Water is:

__ to __0% of Body Mass
&
and __ to __% of Lean Body Mass

A

50-60% of Body Mass
72-75% of Lean Body Mass

126
Q

It only takes ___% of loss in body weight for performance to suffer.

A

2%

127
Q

What is the recommended amount of fluid to consume to replace 1lb of body weight after a workout?

A

20-24oz

128
Q

Which of the following is NOT a crucial function of water in the body?

A. Transport glucose, oxygen and fats in blood to working muscles.
B. Eliminates waste
C. Regulates body temperature
D. Catalyzation metabolic reactions
E. Lubricates and cushions organs and tissues

A

D. Catalyzation metabolic reactions

129
Q

A condition that occurs when the level of sodium in the blood is too low. Can be caused by overhydration.

A

Hyponatremia