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MSK > Physiology & Histology > Flashcards

Physiology & Histology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the largest type of tissue in the human body?

A

Muscle

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2
Q

Skeletal and cardiac muscles do NOT have striations. True/false?

A

False - only smooth muscle isn’t striated

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3
Q

Skeletal muscles are innervated by which nervous system?

A

Somatic

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4
Q

Cardiac & smooth muscle are innervated by which nervous system?

A

Autonomic

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5
Q

Skeletal muscle contraction is initiated how?

A

Neurogenic (via NMJ)

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6
Q

Cardiac muscle contraction is initiated how?

A

Myogenic (no NMJ)

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7
Q

Skeletal muscle has gap junctions. True/false?

A

False (has NMJ)

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8
Q

Cardiac muscle has gap junctions. True/false?

A

True

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9
Q

In cardiac muscle, calcium for excitation coupling comes from where?

A

ECF and sarcoplasmic reticulum (c.f. skeletal which is ONLY from sarcoplasmic reticulum)

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10
Q

What is the neurotransmitter at the NMJ?

A

Acetycholine

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11
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

A single alpha motor neurone + all the skeletal muscle fibres it innervates

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12
Q

Muscles which have fine movements tend to have more/fewer fibres per motor unit?

A

Fewer fibres per motor unit

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13
Q

What is the functional unit of muscle?

A

Sarcomere

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14
Q

Muscles are attached to the skeleton via

A

Tendons

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15
Q

Actin is responsible for thick/thin filaments

A

Thin

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16
Q

Myosin is responsible for thick/thin filaments

A

Thick

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17
Q

Sarcomeres are located between two __ lines

A

Z-lines

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18
Q

ATP is required for muscle _____ whule calcium is required for ______

A

ATP is needed for contracting & relaxing, while calcium is needed for switching on and off cross-bridge formation

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19
Q

The surface of the muscle fibre extends through the sarcoplasmic reticulum across multiple myofibrils through which structures?

A

Transverse (T) tubules

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20
Q

Graduation of skeletal muscle tension depends upon which 2 factors? (2)

A

1) Number of muscle fibres contracting within the muscle 2) Tension developed by each contracting muscle fibre

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21
Q

Tension of each contracting muscle fibre depends upon which 3 factors (3)

A

-Frequency & summation of contractions -Length of muscle fibre at onset of contraction -Thickness of muscle fibre

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22
Q

Can cardiac muscle become tetanised?

A

No, it has a dedicated refractory period

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23
Q

What is isotonic contraction?

A

Used for body movements & moving objects - it’s when the muscle tension remains constant but the muscle LENGTH changes

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24
Q

What is isometric contraction?

A

Used for supporting objects in fixed positions and maintenance of body posture. The muscle TENSION increases but the length remains the same

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25
Q

What are the 3 types of SKELETAL muscle fibres?

A

-Slow (Type I) -Fast oxidative (type IIa) -Fast glycolytic (type IIx)

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26
Q

In type I skeletal muscle fibres, how active is the myosin-ATPase activity?

A

Low

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27
Q

In Type IIa / IIx skeletal muscle fibres, how active is myosin-ATPase?

A

Highly active

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28
Q

How fast do type I muscle fibres contract?

A

Slow

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29
Q

What is the oxidative phosphorylation capacity of type IIx skeletal muscle fibres?

A

Low (they use anaerobic glycolysis to quickly make muscle)

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30
Q

Prolonged, relatively low-work aerobic activity is likely to be carried out mainly by which skeletal muscle fibre type?

A

Slow (type I)

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31
Q

Anaerobic metabolism and short, highly-intense activities are likely to be carried out mainly by which skeletal muscle fibre type?

A

Fast (type IIx)

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32
Q

A reflex is defined as…

A

A sterotyped response to a specific stimulus

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33
Q

Knee jerk reflex tests which spinal segments & nerve?

A

L3, L4. Tests femoral nerve.

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34
Q

Ankle jerk reflex tests which spinal segments & nerve?

A

S1, S2. Tests tibial nerve.

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35
Q

Biceps jerk reflex tests which spinal segments & nerve?

A

C5, C6. Musculocutaneous nerve

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36
Q

Brachioradialis reflex tests which spinal segmenets & nerve?

A

C5-C6. Radial nerve.

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37
Q

Which fibres sense muscle stretch?

A

Intrafusal muscle spindles

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38
Q

What’s the efferent motor nerve supply to the infrasual fibres within muscle?

A

Gamma-nerves

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39
Q

Do intrafusal / spindle nerves contribute to overall muscle strength?

A

No

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40
Q

Immediate energy (e.g. for instant fast sprint for 4seconds) comes from which cellular source? What if this was increased to 15 seconds?

A

ATP first for around 3-4 seconds

Creatinine if prolonged to 15 seconds

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41
Q

What are the 3 sources of generating cellular energy?

A

1) Creaitnine 2) Oxidative phosphorylation (if O2 is present) 3) Glycolysis

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42
Q

Low-energy work (e.g. posture or walking) will generally utilise which type of skeletal fibre?

A

Type 1 (slow oxidative)

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43
Q

Moderate work (e.g. jogging) will generally utilise which type of skeletal fibre?

A

Fast oxidative (type 2A)

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44
Q

High intensity workouts (e.g. jumping) will utilise which skeletal muscle fibre?

A

Fast glycolytic (type 2x)

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45
Q

The speed of contraction of muscle is determined by activity of which enzyme?

A

Myosin ATPase

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46
Q

Describe skeletal muscle in terms of: striations absence/present, unbranched/branched, multinucleate/ single nucleus?

A

Striations present Unbranched Multinucleate

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47
Q

In skeletal muscle, the nuclei are present at the centre/ periphery?

A

Periphery

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48
Q

A group of muscle fibres is called a…

A

Fascicle

49
Q

The connective tissue around a single fascicle is called…

A

Perimysium

50
Q

The connective tissue around a single muscle fibre is called…

A

Endomysium

51
Q

The connective tissue surrounding the whole muscle is called

A

Epimysium

52
Q

In typical muscle, thousands of sarcomeres are placed end-to-end to form a…

A

Myofibril

53
Q

Type 1 fibres have many/ few mitochondria?

A

Lots (very resistant to fatigue but slow to contract)

54
Q

Is cartilage vascular?

A

No (cells are nourised from diffusion from the ECM)

55
Q

The cells found inside cartilage are

A

Chondrocytes

56
Q

The chondrocytes live within a space called a

A

Lacuna

57
Q

ECM in hyaline cartilage is primarily made up of which 2 constituents?

A

1) Water (75%) 2) 25% organic material (type II collagen and proteoglycan aggregates)

58
Q

Fibrocartilage contains which type of collagen?

A

Type I

59
Q

Most common form of calcium phosphate in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

60
Q

What type of bone is at the epiphysis?

A

Cancellous / spongy

61
Q

Which type of bone makes up the diaphysis?

A

Cortical

62
Q

What small pores on bone allow blood vessels to penetrate?

A

Haversion Canals

63
Q

Which lines are found around osteons?

A

Cement lines (only if remodelling is present)

64
Q

Cement lines are only present if what process has occurred in bone?

A

Remodelling

65
Q

Which cell is responsible for bone remodelling?

A

Osteoclasts

66
Q

Osteoblasts have lots of/ little RER?

A

Lots of

67
Q

Osteoid is a collective name for?

A

The secretion of osteoblasts (contains collagen, GAGs, proteoglycans and other organic components)

68
Q

The mineral of bone is primarily

A

Hydroapatite

69
Q

Osteoclasts are believed to be derived from which cell?

A

Macrophage

70
Q

What is normal: lamellar or woven bone?

A

Lamellar. Woven indicates fracture (haphazard collagen deposition)

71
Q

Label the histological structures of muscle

A

A = Fascicle

B = Epimysium

C = Endomysium

D = Perimysium

72
Q

What is the white canals running between muscle fibres here?

A

Perimysium

73
Q

What does this section show?

A

Chondrocytes in lacunae

74
Q

Label the bone histology structures

A

A = Osteon

B = Haversion Canal

C = Chondrocytes in lacunae

D = Volkmann’s Canal

75
Q

What do the red arrows indicate?

A

Cement lines (Areas where the bone has been remodelled)

76
Q

Example of a fibrous joint

A

Skull

77
Q

Does fibrous joints allow movement?

A

No (e.g. skull joints)

78
Q

The intervertebral discs are made of which type of cartilage?

A

Cartilaginous (ampiathrosis)

79
Q

The costochondral joints are what type of joint?

A

Cartilaginous

80
Q

How thick is the synovial membrane in synovial joints?

A

Around 60 micrometers

81
Q

The articular surfaces of bones are covered by

A

Articular (hyaline) cartilage

82
Q

What is a compound articular joint?

A

An articular joint with more than one pair of articular surfaces (e.g. elbow joint)

83
Q

What is a simple synovial articular joint?

A

A synovial joint with one pair of articular surfaces (e.g. phalanges)

84
Q

Synovial fluid is adheisve, T/F?

A

True - allows free sliding between cartilaginous surfaces

85
Q

Synovial fluid contains hyaluronic acid & lubricin, T/F?

A

True

86
Q

The cartiage in joints is dry, T/F?

A

False - has an interstitial fluid

87
Q

The adult knee contains approx what volume of synovial fluid?

A

<3.5mL

88
Q

The synovial fluid is static (i.e. not refreshed), T/F?

A

False - continuously refreshed by the synovial membrane

89
Q

Viscosity varies how with joint movement? What effect does this have on elasticity?

A

Rapid movement decreases viscosity and increases elasticity

90
Q

Normal synovial fluid should have how many cells per mm3?

A

<200K per mm3

91
Q

Septic synovial fluid is transparent/opaque?

A

Opaque

92
Q

What are the zones of articular cartilage from top to bottom?

A

Superificial

Middle

Deep

Calcified

Subchondral zone

93
Q

Articular cartilage is what type of cartilage?

A

Hyaline

94
Q

Articular cartilage contains what type of collagen?

A

Type II

95
Q

What are the effects of ageing on the cartilage? (2)

A

Decreased water content and decreased collagen content

96
Q

Water content is highest where in the articular cartilage?

A

At the edges

97
Q

Proteoglycan occurs mainly in which zone of the articular cartilage?

A

Middle Zone

98
Q

Which compound in cartilage is responsible for its compressive properties?

A

Chondroitin sulfate (decreases with age)

99
Q

Which enzyme class breaks down cartilage?

A

Metalloprotease

100
Q

What effect does TNF alpha and IL-1 have on cartilage?

A

Lytic (catabolic)

101
Q

What effect does TGF-beta and IGF-1 have on cartilage?

A

Growth (anabolic)

102
Q

List 2 serum markers for cartilage degredation (2)

A

Keratin sulfate, type 2 collagen in synovial fluid. Both increased in conditions like OA.

103
Q

What are the 3 pain types?

A

Nociceptive (adaptive), inflammatory (adaptive) and pathological (maladaptive)

104
Q

Nociceptors are central/peripheral primary sensory afferents/efferents normally activated by intense stimuli.

A

Peripheral. Sensory afferents (relay pain sensation to the CNS).

105
Q

What’s the difference between 1st and 2nd order neurones? What type are nociceptors?

A

1st order relay information to 2nd order which relay it directly into the CNS. Nociceptors are first order neurones.

106
Q

Nociceptive pain is high/low threshold and tends to override reflexes in a reflex known as the…

A

High threshold.

Withdrawal reflex

107
Q

Is inflammatory pain adaptive?

A

Yes, a protective activation of immune system. Useful in pain such as wounds (prevents scratching/ reopening)

108
Q

Pathological pain is protective, T/F?

A

False - it is maladaptive and represents a misfiring of the pain warning system

109
Q

What subtype of nociceptor are responsible for first / fast pain?

A

Alpha-delta

110
Q

Which type of nociceptor is responsible for slow/ delayed pain?

A

C-fibres

111
Q

Why are there fast and slow pains?

A

Slow pain is carried in unmyelianted fibres (takes longer to reach CNS)

112
Q

Where are all the pain nociceptors located?

A

Dorsal root ganglion or trigeminal ganglion

113
Q

Peptidergic polymodal fibres are a subset of which pain fibre?

A

C-fibre

114
Q

What is unique about peptidergic C-fibres?

A

They have both sensory afferent and an efferent function (contribute to inflammation by releasing substance P) which sensitises other nociceptors to pain

115
Q

What is allodynia?

A

Non-painful stimuli causing the sensation of pain

116
Q

What are primary & secondary hyperalgesia?

A

Hyperalgesia - increased pain sensation

Primary - in the area affected (e.g. skin under bite wound)

Secondary - around the area affected (e.g. around bite wound in the undamaged tissues).

117
Q

What energy source will be used in exercise lasting <4 minutes?

A

Free ciruclating glucose

118
Q

What energy source will be used in prolonged exercise (up to 77 minutes)?

A

Glycogen

MSK (21 decks)

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