Physiology Final Flashcards

1
Q
The lysosome contains the following bactericidal agents, except: 
A. Lysozyme 
B. Lysoferrin 
C. Lysolecithin 
D. Acid hydrolase 
E. None of the above.
A

C
Answer: C. The lysosomes contain bactericidal agents that can kill phagocytized bacteria before they can cause cellular damage. These agents include (1) lysozyme, which dissolves the bacterial cell membrane; (2) lysoferrin, which binds iron and other substances before they can promote bacterial growth; and (3) acid at a pH of about 5.0, which activates the hydrolases and inactivates bacterial metabolic systems. (Guyton 11th ed, page 20).

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2
Q
What is/are the BEST index/indices of left ventricular pre-load? 
A. Ventricular enddiastolic volume 
B. Pulmonary wedge pressure 
C. Left atrial pressure 
D. Pulmonary venous pressure 
E. B and C
A

A
Answer: A. The best indices of left ventricular preload are ventricular EDV and EDP. Less reliable indices include left atrial pressure, pulmonary venous pressure, pulmonary wedge pressure. (Kaplan Step 1, lecture notes, page71).

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3
Q

Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) causes the following ECG changes, EXCEPT:
A. QRS complex prolongation
B. Large QRS complexes
C. T-wave inversion immediately after a premature beat
D. None of the above
E. A and C

A

D
Answer: D. PVCs cause specific effects in ECG, as follows: 1. The QRS complex is usually considerably prolonged. The reason is that the impulse is conducted mainly through slowly conducting muscle of the ventricles rather than through the Purkinje system. 2. The QRS complex has a high voltage for the following reasons: when the normal impulse passes through the heart, it passes through both ventricles nearly simultaneously; consequently, in the normal heart, the depolarization waves of the two sides of the heartラmainly of opposite polarity to each otherラ partially neutralize each other in the electrocardiogram.When a PVC occurs, the impulse almost always travels in only one direction, so that there is no such neutralization effect, and one entire side or end of the ventricles is depolarized ahead of the other; this causes large electrical potentials. 3. After almost all PVCs, the T wave has an electrical potential polarity exactly opposite to that of the QRS complex, because the slow conduction of the impulse through the cardiac muscle causes the muscle fibers that depolarize first also to repolarize first. (Guyton, 11th ed, Chapter 13, page 151).

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4
Q
The principle that in the spinal cord the dorsal roots are sensory and the ventral roots are motor is known as the: 
A. Bell-Magendie law 
B. Maestrini law 
C. Frank-Starling law 
D. Polyvagal principle 
E. Muller law
A

A
Answer: A. The principle that in the spinal cord the dorsal roots are sensory and the ventral roots are motor is known as the Bell-Magendie law (Ganong, 2003).

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5
Q
The basic rhythm of respiration is generated mainly in: 
A. Ventral respiratory group, medulla 
B. Dorsal respiratory group, medulla 
C. Pneumotaxic center, pons 
D. All of the above 
E. A and B only
A

B
Answer: B. The basic rhythm of respiration is generated mainly in the dorsal respiratory group of neurons. The neurons of the ventral respiratory group remain almost totally inactive during normal quiet respiration. Therefore, normal quiet breathing is caused only by repetitive inspiratory signals from the dorsal respiratory group transmitted mainly to the diaphragm, and expiration results from elastic recoil of the lungs and thoracic cage. They are especially important in providing the powerful expiratory signals to the abdominal muscles during very heavy expiration. The function of the pneumotaxic center is primarily to limit inspiration. (Guyton, page 514).

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6
Q
A normal 25-year old man has a respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute. What is his alveolar ventilation? 
A. 6 L 
B. 5 L 
C. 4 L 
D. 7 L
A

B
Answer: B. Computation is 500ml (normal tidal volume) ヨ 150ml (normal anatomic dead space, assuming that this subject has 0 physiologic dead space) = 350ml x 14 = 4,900 ml, rounded off to 5L.

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding voltage-gated sodium ion channels?
A. They are opened when the membrane is hyperpolarized.
B. They pump 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions inwards.
C. They display a high conductance in the resting membrane.
D. They are virtually closed when the cell is at rest

A

D
Answer: D. Voltage-gated Na channels are opened during depolarization. NaK ATPase pump is the one pumping 3 Na out and 2 K in. There is virtually minimal/negligible conductance of sodium in a resting membrane.

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8
Q
The triggering mechanism for the genesis of REM sleep depends on neurons that release: 
A. Acetylcholine 
B. Serotonin 
C. Norepinephrine 
D. Dopamine
A

A
Answer: A. Physiologically, certain neurons in the brain stem, known as REM sleep-on cells, (located in the pontine tegmentum), are particularly active during REM sleep and are probably responsible for its occurrence. The release of certain neurotransmitters, the monoamines(norepinephrine, serotonin and histamine), is completely shut down during REM. Acetylcholine is released in high levels as a result of wakefulness and alertness, but it is also found in high levels during REM sleep. Its lowest levels have been found in slow wave sleep when there is no cortical arousal, but relaxation. People that have been unfortunate enough to be exposed to organophosphates insecticides, which are ACh agonists, spend more time in REM sleep than individuals who have not been exposed to these toxins. All this evidence suggests that ACh is involved in controlling REM sleep as well as arousa

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9
Q
BB, 35-year old male office worker on his preemployment check-up, showed marked enlargement of bone of the extremities and significant coarsening of his facial feature. His jaw was likewise enlarged and protruding. This condition is most commonly associated with a tumor located in:
A. Posterior pituitary
B. Adrenal glands
C. Anterior Pituitary
D. Lungs
A

C
Answer is C. The patient described has acromegaly, which is a result of increased growth hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland after the epiphyseal plates have already closed. In over 90 percent of acromegaly patients, the overproduction of growth hormones is caused by a benign tumor of the pituitary gland, called an adenoma

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10
Q
What will be the result of prolonged diastole? 
A. Increase heart rate
B. Reduced peripheral resistance 
C. Reduced stroke volume 
D. Better filling of the ventricles 
E. A and D
A

D
Answer: D. Prolonged diastole permits more time for ventricular filling, hence better filling of the ventricle. Prolonging the diastole will result in decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume. Duration of diastole has no effect on peripheral resistance

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11
Q

The sympathetic nervous system modulates the output of the pacemaker cells of the heart by:
A. increasing cAMP causing a steep rise in phase 4
B. decreasing the activity of L type Ca++ channels and lowering the threshold
C. increasing the activity of the rectifying K+ channels in phase 3
D. increasing the activity of slow Ca++ channels in phase 2
E. All of the above

A

A
Answer: A. Sympathetic activation, which releases norepinephrine (NE), increases pacemaker rate by decreasing gK+ and increasing slow inward gCa++ and gNa+; the pacemaker current (If) is enhanced. These changes increase the slope of phase 4 so that the pacemaker potential more rapidly reaches the threshold for action potential generation.

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12
Q
The hormone secreted mainly by the corpus luteum is: 
A. Progesterone 
B. Testosterone 
C. Estrogen 
D. Inhibin 
E. None of the above
A

A

Answer: A. Corpus luteum secretes progesterone to start the luteal (secretory) phase of the menstrual cycle.

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13
Q
Following massive hemorrhage during delivery, a 29-year old female was unable to breastfed due to absence of milk secretion. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this clinical picture? 
A. Symptoms of hyperthyroidism 
B. Elevated prolactin secretion 
C. Cushingメs disease
D. Decreased gonadotropin secretion 
E. All of the above
A

D
Answer: D. The patient is suffering from postpartum pituitary necrosis secondary to massive haemorrhage (Sheehanメs syndrome). Therefore, it is expected that all hormones produced by the pituitary gland will be decreased. There will be hypothyroidism, decreased prolactin secretion (reason for inability to produce milk) and decreased gonadotropin secretion

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14
Q

Which of the following is/are one of the principal means by which acclimatization to high altitudes come about?
A. Lower than normal pulmonary ventilation
B. Decreased number of red blood cells
C. Reduced diffusing capacity of the lungs
D. Decreased vascularity of peripheral tissues
E. None of the above

A

E
Answer: E. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) increased diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2. (Guyton 11th ed, page 539)

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15
Q
The deficiency of what trace element is associated with skin lesions, weakened immune system, and hypogonadal dwarfism? 
A. Copper 
B. Chromium 
C. Cobalt 
D. Zinc
E. Iron
A

D
Answer D. Patients with zinc deficiency will present with skin ulcer, depressed immune response and hypogonadal dwarfism.

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16
Q
In the sarcomere, which of the following keep/s the myosin and actin in place? 
A. Titin 
B. Z disc 
C. Myofibrils 
D. All of the above 
E. A and B only
A

A
Answer: A. The side-by-side relationship between the myosin and actin filaments is difficult to maintain. This is achieved by a large number of filamentous molecules of a protein called titin (Guyton, 11th ed).

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17
Q
DM, 45 year old female, went to you as her physician complaining of weight gain, even though her diet was controlled. Upon physical examination, you found out that she has elevated blood pressure, purple striae on the trunk, growth of fat pads along the collar bone and hirsutism. Laboratory revealed elevated blood sodium levels and low blood potassium levels. Increased production of which hormone would explain her symptoms? 
A. Insulin 
B. Cortisol 
C. Glucagon 
D. Aldosterone 
E. Testosterone
A

B
Answer: B. The patient has a condition called Cushingメs syndrome. This is manifested by abnormally elevated levels of cortisol.

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18
Q
A newborn male was held at the NICU because he did not pass out meconium after 48 hours of life. Plain abdominal radiographs showed distended bowel loops with a paucity of air in the rectum. Absence of which of the following is/are expected to be seen in the biopsy of the affected segment? 
A. Meissnerメs plexus 
B. Auerbachメs plexus 
C. Myenteric plexus 
D. All of the above 
E. A and B only
A

D
Answer: D. Both the myenteric (Auerbach) plexus and the submucosal (Meissner) plexus are absent from the muscular layer of the bowel wall in Hirschprungメs disease.

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19
Q
Which of the following is primarily utilized by an athlete during the first 8- 10 seconds of a 100- meter run? 
A. Glycogen-lactic acid system 
B. Aerobic system
C. Phosphagen energy system 
D. A and B 
E. All of the above
A

C
Answer: C. The phosphagen energy system can provide maximal muscle power for 8 to 10 seconds, almost enough for the 100-meter run. The glycogen-lactic acid system can provide 1.3 to 1.6 minutes of maximal muscle activity in addition to the 8 to 10 seconds provided by the phosphagen system, although at somewhat reduced muscle power. Aerobic system is required for prolonged athletic activity

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20
Q

The concentrating mechanism of the nephron depends upon the maintenance of a gradient of increasing osmolality along the medullary pyramids. Which of the following is/are true regarding the production of this gradient?
A. It is produced by the operation of the loops of Henle as countercurrent exchanger
B. It is maintained by the operation of the vasa recta as countercurrent multiplier
C. It is generated by insertion of aquaporins at collecting tubules as stimulated by vasopressin
D. A and B only
E. None of the above

A

E
Answer: E. The concentrating mechanism depends upon the maintenance of a gradient of increasing osmolality along the medullary pyramids. This gradient is produced by the operation of the loops of Henle as countercurrent multipliers and maintained by the operation of the vasa recta as countercurrent exchangers. (Guyton, 11th ed)

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21
Q

A 35 year old male from a nearby city was a diagnosed case of pulmonary tuberculosis . Lesion from this kind of infection is usually walled off by a fibrous tissue but if it fails, abscess cavities and multiple areas of fibrosis will develop causing which of the following consequences?
A. Reduced vital capacity
B. Reduced membrane surface area
C. Increased thickness of the surface membrane
D. Abnormal V/Q ratio
E. All of the above

A

E

All of the choices are consequences of PTB infection.

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22
Q
Jackie Casimiro, a full time teacher, is currently involved in a hunger strike joined by various teachers as a protest for the low compensation given to them by the government. Common to hunger strikes ,hunger contraction causes hunger pangs especially in young healthy individual. Hunger pangs are usually strongest when? 
A. 1st 12 hours 
B. 36-48 hours 
C. on the 3rd-4th day 
D. on the 2nd week 
E. None of the above choices
A

C

Hunger pangs are strongest in the 3rd- 4th day. SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE

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23
Q
All of the following lung volume and lung capacities cannot be measured clinically except? 
A. TV 
B. ERV 
C. RV
D. FRC
E.  TLC
A

A

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24
Q

Which characteristic or component is shared by skeletal muscle and smooth muscle?
A. Thick and thin filaments arranged in sarcomeres
B. Troponin C. Elevation of intracellular Ca for excitation-contraction coupling
D. Spontaneous depolarization of the membrane potential
E. High degree of electrical coupling between cells

A

C
an elevation of intracellular calcium is
common to mechanism of excitationcontraction
coupling in skeletal
muscles.

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25
Q

Which of the following structures has a primary function to coordinate rate, range, force and direction of movement?
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Premotor cortex and supplementary motor cortex
C. Prefrontal cortex
D. Basal ganglia
E. Cerebellum

A

E
output of prkinje cells from the cerebellar cortex to deep cerebellar nuclei is inhibitory. This output modulates movement and is responsible for coordination.

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26
Q
All of the following are muscles for inspiration except? 
A. External Intercostals 
B. SCM C. Anterior Serrati 
D. Scalene 
E. Internal Intercostals
A

E

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27
Q
Slow waves as an electrical activity of GI smooth muscles are actually not true action potentials. It is a cyclic opening of calcium channel (depolarization) and opening of Na channel (repolarization) which bring undulating changes in RMP by the use of a pace maker (Interstitial cells of Cajal). These waves are found to be slowest in which part of the GI tract? 
A. Esophagus 
B. Stomach 
C. Small intestines 
D. Colon 
E. Rectum
A

B

Slow waves are slowest in the stomach and fastest in the small intestines

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28
Q
Stimulation of gastric acid secretion is potentiated/initiated by all of the following EXCEPT: 
A. Histamine 
B. Gastrin 
C. Acetylcholine
D.Secretin
A

D

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29
Q
Jennifer Arcilla is a professional mountain climber and is used to changes brought about by high altitude. Normally an unacclimatized person can remain conscious up to 50 % of its arterial oxygen is saturated. At 10, 000 feet, arterial oxygenation is at 90 % and drops rapidly as one ascends. What is the most important observed effect to an individual at this level? 
A. Drowsiness 
B. Lassitude 
C. Headache 
D. Decreased mental proficiency 
E. Euphoria
A

D
at 10, 000 feet: most impt effect is Decreased mental proficiency, the rest of the choices can be observed at 12,000 feet

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30
Q

All of the following are characteristics of isovolumetric ventricular contraction phase of the cardiac cycle , EXCEPT:
A. It is a period between closure of the AV valves and opening of Semilunar valves
B. There is an abrupt increase in the ventricular pressure more than the atrial pressure
C. All valves are closed in this phase
D. In this phase, the 1st heart sound is produced
E. End Systolic Volume is involved

A

E

A-D are correct. End diastolic volume instead of End Systolic Volume is involved in this phase.

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31
Q

In one physiology class, you are tasked to study the cardiac cycle along with the heart sounds and its origin. Which of the following pair of heart sounds and its origin is INCORRECT?
A. S1- closure of AV valves
B. S2- closure of SL valves
C. S3- rapid filling phase (flow of blood from atria to ventricle)
D. S4- atrial systole
E. All of the above choices are correct

A

E

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32
Q

Which of the following phases of SA nodal conduction is responsible for its automaticity?
A. Phase O-upstroke of action potential (depolarization brought about by increase Ca conductance)
B. Phase 3- repolarization (outward K current)
C. Phase 4- slow depolarization (inward Na current)
D. Phase 5- fast Ca current
E. None of the above

A

C

Phase 4- slow conduction, inward Na current is respinsible for SA nodal automaticity

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33
Q
All of the following are vasoconstrictors, EXCEPT: 
A. Serotonin 
B. Endothelin 
C. Bradykinin 
D. Histamine 
E. C and D
A

E

Bradykinin and histamine are vasodilators

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34
Q

A 56 year old female was admitted due to uncontrolled DM Type 2. Further work ups revealed that her kidney function is already impaired significantly and she is then already anemic due to lack of production of erythropoietin brought about by kidney damage. Where is erythropoietin produced in a normal kidney?
A. Renal Papilla
B. Fibrous capsule
C. Macula Densa
D. Peritubular Capillaries (Interstitial cells)
E. Lacis cells

A

D

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35
Q

Which of the following would cause an increase in both glomerular filtration rate and renal plasma flow?
A. hyperproteinemia
B. A ureteral stone
C. Dilation of the afferent arteriole
D. Dilation of the efferent arteriole
E. Constriction of the afferent arteriole

A

C

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36
Q
A man presents with hypertension and hypokalemia. Measurement of his arterial blood gases reveal a pH of 7.5 and a calculated HCO3 of 32 mEq/L. His serum cortisol and VMA are normal, his serum aldosterone is increased and his plasma renin activity is decreased. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his hypertension?
A.    Cushing's syndrome
B.     Cushings's disease
C.     Conn's syndrome  
D.     Renal artery stenosis
E.     Pheochromocytoma
A

C
hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkaLOSIS , ELEVATED ALDOSTERONE AND LOW RENIN ARE ALL CONSISTENT TO CONN’S SYNDROME.

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37
Q
Propagation of the action potential through the heart is slowest in which of the following? 
A. SA node 
B. AV node 
C. Purkinje fibers 
D. Ventricular muscle 
E. None of the above
A

B

slowest= Av node. Fastest= purkinje fibers

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38
Q
Among the following organs, which is most vulnerable to hypoglycemia because of its dependence on the circulating glucose for energy? 
A. Liver 
B. Kidney 
C. Skeletal Muscle 
D. Brain 
E. Pancreas
A

D

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39
Q

Change/s in the lung volumes of capacities of patients with restrictive lung disease:
A. Decrease in TLC
B. Decrease in residual volume
C. Decrease in Functional Capacity
D. Decrease in Expiratory reserve volume
E. All of the above

A

E

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40
Q
A 23 year old female was admitted due to DHF. Her attending physician requested for bleeding parameters including PT, PTT, CT and BT. Bleeding time is a test of? 
A. Intrinsic pathway 
B. Extrinsic pathway 
C. Platelet Function 
D. A and B 
E. All of the above
A

C

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41
Q
The least common of granulocytes but very important in immediate hypersensitivity reactions because it releases Histamine. 
A. Basophil 
B. Eosinophil 
C. Neutrophil 
D. NK cells 
E. Lymphocytes
A

A
Basophils are the least common among the granulocytes. In the tissues, they are called Mast cells and are responsible for release of Histamine during Type 1 Hypersensitivity reaction.

42
Q
This is the most powerful structure of the optical system. 
A. Cornea 
B. Fovea 
C. Uvea 
D. Retina
E.  Lens
A

A
Fovea is the center of central vision. Uvea is the mi-vascular layer of the eye. Retina serves as the “film” of the eye. The Lens keeps the images focused.

43
Q
The heart recieves its blood supply during the Incisura. Which statement/s is/are true regarding the Incisura? 
A. It occurs during Systole 
B. It occurs during Diastole 
C. During Ventricular contraction 
D. During Ventricular relaxation
E. A and C 
F. B and D
A

F
During diastole, the negative pressure at the LV have a suction effect on the aortic valve, causing it to close. The closure of the aortic valve (pulling of the cusps together, and away from the wall of aorta) is the oppurtunity for the coronary arteries (whose openings are on the walls of the base of the aorta) to recieve blood. Because during systole, the cusps of the aortic valve cover them.

44
Q
This hormone initiates the process of spermatogenesis. 
A. LH B. FSH 
C. Testosterone 
D. Inhibin 
E. TSH
A

B

FSH stimulates the sertoli cells and initiates the spermatogenesis.

45
Q
This hormone is directly responsible for spermatogenesis. 
A. LH 
B. FSH 
C. Testosterone 
D. Inhibin 
E. TSH
A

C

Testosterone directly stimulates the semiferous tubules to produce sperm cells

46
Q

The residual volume is the amount of gas remaining in th lungs after maximal exhalation. What is the function of this lung volume?
A. Prevents collapse of the lungs
B. Acts as oxygen reserve for hypoxic states
C. Provides the oxygen needed in between breaths
D. A and C only
E. All of the above

A

D
The residual volume is NOT an oxygen reserve. The lungs can NEVER store oxygen!! It prevents complete collapse of the lungs after maximal exhalation and provides oxygen in between breaths

47
Q
This is an onion-like mechanoreceptor present on skin surface which primarily function is to detect vibration and pressure. 
A. Paccinian Corpuscle 
B. Merkel cells 
C. Meissner's corpuscle 
D. A and B 
E. A and C
A

A

48
Q

Aldosterone is very important in controlling peripheral blood pressure. It execute this function by
A. Upregulating basolateral Na/K pump, which pumps sodium out of cell
B. Causing reabsorption of sodium
C. Secreting Potassium
D. A and B only
E. All of the above

A

D

All the choices given are done by Aldosterone. BUT with regards to BP control, only choices A and B are applicable

49
Q
The first heart sound is created by the closure of? 
A. AV Valves
B. Semilunar Valves 
C. Mitral and Tricuspid Valves 
D. A and C 
E. B and C
A

D

The Atriventricular valves are the Mitral and Tricuspid valves.

50
Q
If the SA node is the pacemaker of the heart, what is the pacemaker of peristalsis? 
A. Interstitial cells of Cajal 
B. Meissner's plexus 
C. Submucosal plexus 
D. B and C only 
E. All of the above
A

A

51
Q
Bilirubin conjugation occurs at the liver. Which among the choices is/are jaundice due to conjugated bilirubin? 
A. Dubin-Johnson Syndrome 
B. Rotor syndrome 
C. Criggler-Najjar Syndrome 
D. A and B only 
E. A and C only
A

D

Conjugated - Dubin and Rotor

52
Q

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Acetylcholine?
A. Degraded into Choline and acetate after the action potential
B. Acetylcholinesterase acts as inhibitor for its degradation
C. The amount of reuptake is more than that of being degraded
D. A and C only
E. All of the above

A

A

53
Q
The irregular curvature of the cornea may result in an error of refraction called 
A. presbyopia 
B. myopia 
C. Near-sightedness 
D. Far-sightedness 
E. Astigmatism
A

E

54
Q
The opercular/triangular parts of the inferior frontal gyrus is also called 
A. Broca's area 
B. Brodmann 44,45 
C. Auditory association area 
D. A and B 
E. A and C
A

D

55
Q
This intracellular organelle is responsible for beta-oxidation of long chain fatty-acids. 
A. Lysosome 
B. Peroxisome 
C. Golgi body 
D. Mitochondrai 
E. Endoplasmic reticulum
A

B

56
Q
This is a structural cytoskeleton that is the link between the extracellular matrix, cytoplasm and nucleus. This also serves as tumor marker. 
A. Microfilament 
B. Intermediate filament 
C. Microtubule 
D. A and B 
E. A and C
A

B

57
Q
These are cells found in the respiratory tract that is capable of metabolizing airborne toxins 
A. Basal cells 
B. Goblet cells 
C. Clara cells 
D. Type I pneumocytes 
E. Type II pneumocytes
A

C

58
Q
This shifts the hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve to the left 
A. Carbon dioxide 
B. Alkalosis 
C. 2,3-DPG 
D. Exercise 
E. Increase in temperature
A

B

59
Q
The increase of stroke volume during exercise is primarily due to an increase in 
A. Venous return 
B. Heart rate 
C. Peripheral resistance 
D. B and C 
E. All of the above
A

A

60
Q

A 57 year old patient had an acute myocardial infarction. BP was 70/40 and cardiac output is 1/3 of normal. The central venous should be
A. Unchanged
B. Increased due to decrease peripheral resistance
C. Decreased due to decrease peripheral resistance
D. Increased due to decrease venous return
E. Decrease due to decrease venous return

A

E

61
Q
This best describes gap junctions: 
A. They are attachments between cells that permit intercellular communication 
B. Intracellular pathway for solutes
C. May be "tight" or "leaky"
D. Loosely attached to basement membrane
E.  All of the above
A

A
A gap junction or nexus is a specialized intercellular connection between the cytoplasm of two cells. B and c describes a tight junction

62
Q
Na/K ATPase pump is an example of what type of cellular transport? 
A. Facilitated diffusion 
B. Primary active transport 
C. Simple Diffusion 
D. Secondary active transport 
E. Symport
A

B
Primary active transport, also called direct active transport, directly uses energy to transport molecules across a membrane.

63
Q

This is true of action potentials:
A. Depolarization makes the membrane potential more negative
B. Hyperpolarization makes the membrane potential less negative
C. The RMP of skeletal muscles is approximately -95mV
D. Repolarization closes the activation gates of the sodium channel
E. all of the above

A

C
Depolarization makes the membrane potential less negative allowing it to reach threshold to produce an action potential. Repolarization returns the RMP near threshold making it more negative. Hyperpolarization further makes the RMP more negative. RMP of skeletal muscles = -95mV

64
Q
During muscular contraction these regions in the sarcomere shorten: 
A. A band 
B. I band 
C. H band 
D. Z line
E. B and c
A

E

Both I band and H band shorten during muscle contractions.

65
Q

This is true of the ANS except:
A. Parasympathetic ganglia are located near the effector organs
B. Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic NS originate from the thoracolumbar region
C. Ganglionic neurotransmitters of both PANS and SANS is Ach
D. SANS receptors at the effector organs is primarily muscarinic
E. None of the above

A

D

Receptors for the sympathetic nervous system: alpha and beta

66
Q
Activation of alpha 2 receptors of the sympathetic nervous system causes? 
A. Increased cAMP 
B. Decreased cAMP 
C. Increased IP3/DAG 
D. Opening of the Na/K channels 
E. None of the above
A

B
alpha 2 receptors are inhibitory Gprotein coupled receptors that when stimulated, causes inhibition of adenylate cyclase, decreasing cAMP.

67
Q
M�ni�re's disease is primarily due to\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? 
A. Structural defect of the ear 
B. Excess perilymph production 
C. Excess endolymph production
D. Paralysis of the stereocilia
E.  Lack of cupula
A

C
M�ni�re’s disease is idiopathic, but it is believed to be linked to endolymphatic hydrops, an excess of fluid in the inner ear. It is thought that endolymphatic fluid bursts from its normal channels in the ear and flows into other areas, causing damage.

68
Q
In active adults, this type of Eeg tracing predominates: 
A. alpha 
B. beta 
C. theta 
D. gamma 
E. Delta
A

B
alpha - relaxed, closed eyes, beta - active, alert, theta - drowsiness, gamma - mplicated in creating the unity of conscious perception, delta - adult slow - wave sleep

69
Q
The fourth heart sound is due to: 
A. Closure of AV valves 
B. Closure of SL valves 
C. Rapid ventricular filling against SL valve 
D. Contraction of atrium 
E. None of the above
A

D
In healthy adults, there are two normal heart sounds often described as a lub and a dub (or dup), that occur in sequence with each heartbeat. These are the first heart sound (S1) and second heart sound (S2), produced by the closing of the AV valves and semilunar valves respectively. S3 is produced by rapid ventricular filling. S4 is produced by atrial contraction

70
Q

The Frank - Starling Law states that:
A. An increase in SV and CO occurs in response to decreased HR
B. An increase in SV and CO occurs in response to decreased TPR
C. An increase in SV and CO occurs in response to increased HR
D. an increased in SV and CO occurs in response to increased venous return
E. all of the above

A

D
The FrankヨStarling law of the heart states that the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart (the end diastolic volume) when all other factors remain constant.

71
Q
Which of the following can be measured by spirometry? 
A. Residual volume 
B. Tidal Volume 
C. Functional Residual Capacity 
D. Total Lung Capacity 
E. All of the above
A

B

Residual volume, functional residual capacity and total lung capacity cannot be measured by spirometry.

72
Q
Which of the following causes increased oxygen delivery capacity of hemoglobin? 
A. Decreased temperature 
B. Increased pH 
C. Increased hydrogen concentration
D. Decreased pCO2
E. All of the above
A

C
All the other factors causes shift of theO2-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left, which increases affinity, thereby decreasing delivery capacity.

73
Q
Which of the following causes a shift of potassium into cells resulting in hypokalemia? 
A. exercise 
B. acidosis 
C. B-antagonists 
D. insulin 
E. All of the above
A

D

Factors that causes intracellular shift of potassium includes: Insulin, Bagonists, Alkalosis, Hyposmolarity.

74
Q

The following statements correctly describes serum anion gap:
A. Represents unmeasured anions in serum
B. Includes PO4, citrate, sulfate, chloride and protein
C. The normal value for the anion gap is 12 +/-4.
D. A and C
E. A and B

A

D

Anion gap represents po4, citrate, sulfate and protein, chloride is not included.

75
Q
This structures primarily controls gastro-intestinal smooth muscle motility? 
A. Auerbach's plexus (myenteric) 
B. Meissuer's Plexus 
C. Submuscosal Plexus 
D. Migrating motor complex / MMC 
E. None of the Above
A

A
Auerbach’s plexus (or myenteric plexus) provides motor innervation to both layers of the tunica muscularis, having both parasympathetic and sympathetic input, whereas Meissner’s plexus has only parasympathetic fibers and provides secretomotor innervation to the mucosa nearest the lumen of the gut.

76
Q

True of cholecystokinin / CCK, except?
A. Stimulates contraction of the GB
B. Prolings Gastric emptying time
C. Release is stimulated by triglycerides
D. Stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion
E. None of the Above

A

C
The presence of fatty acids and/or certain amino acids in the chyme entering the duodenum is the greatest stimulator of CCK release.

77
Q

Which of the following is a direct action of growth hormone?
A. Linear Growth
B. Lean body mass
C. Organ size
D. Glucose uptake into cells (diabetogenic)
E. None of the Above

A

D

All other functions are actions of GH through IGF.

78
Q
Describe the relationship between volume of gas and temperature? 
A. Boyle's Law 
B. Charles' Law 
C. Gay-Lussac's Law 
D. Avogadro's Law 
E. None of the Above
A

B
Boyle’s law - relation bet pressure and volume; Gay - Lussac’s - Pressure ant temperature; Avogadro’s law - Volume and molar composition

79
Q
Direct effect of excess T3 in Grave's ---, except? 
A. Tachycardia 
B. Hyperthermia 
C. Exophthalmos 
D. Tremors 
E. None of the Above
A

C

exophthalmos is due to the autoimmune effect of grave’s disease

80
Q
This is the largest zone in the adrenal cortex? 
A. Z. glomerulosa 
B. Z. fasciculata 
C. Z. reticularis 
D. Z. pellucida 
E. None of the Above
A

B
The zona fasciculata constitutes the middle zone of the adrenal cortex, sitting directly beneath the zona glomerulosa. Constituent cells are organized into bundles or “fascicles”

81
Q
During spermatogenesis, sperm cells require several days to mature in which part of the male reproductive system?
A. Epididymis
B. Rete testis
C. Efferent ductules
D. Vas deferens
A

A
Answer: A. Epididymis (pp. 975, Guyton & Hall: Textbook of Medical Physiology, 12th ed.) Notes: The sperm require several days to pass through the 6-meter-long tubule of the epididymis. After 18-24 hours, they develop the capability of motility. *SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE

82
Q
A 55 yo male patient was immediately brought into the ED due to hypoglycemic manifestations after administration of insulin. Blood glucose taken revealed 40 mg/100ml. Among the following choices, these symptoms are most likely manifested by this patient; except 
A. Clonic seizures 
B. Hallucinations 
C. State of Coma 
D. Loss of consciousness
A

B
Answer: B. Hallucinations (pp. 954, Guyton & Hall: Textbook of Medical Physiology, 12th ed.)
Notes:
ユ 50-70 mg/100ml: hallucinations, extreme nervousness, trembles all over, breaks out in a sweet.
ユ 20-50 mg/100ml and lower: clonic seizures, LOC, coma *SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE

83
Q

A young college student had nausea, vomiting, visual disorders, and muscular paralysis after eating canned tuna fish. The probable diagnosis is botulism, caused by ingestion of the Clostridium botulinum toxin. The physiological effect of this toxin is to
A. Bind to and thus inactivate acetylcholine receptors at myoneural junctions
B. Prevent release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, thus inhibiting muscle contraction
C. Inhibit release of acetylcholine from presynaptic membranes
D. Inhibit hydrolysis of adenosine triphosphate during the contraction cycle

A

C
Answer: C. Inhibit release of acetylcholine from presynaptic membranes.
Notes: The toxin from Clostridium botulinum inhibits the release of acetylcholine, the neurotransmitter at myoneural junctions. As a result, motor nerve impulses cannot be transmitted across the junction, and muscle cells are not stimulated to contract.

84
Q

Characteristics of humoral immunity include the following:
A. The body develops circulating antibodies which are globin molecules in the blood that are capable of attacking the invading agent
B. Achieved through the formation of large numbers of activated lymphocytes designed to destroy foreign agent
C. T lymphocytes produce immunoglobulins
D. All of these

A

A
Answer: A. The body develops circulating antibodies which are globin molecules in the blood that are capable of attacking the invading agent

85
Q

The extrinsic mechanism for initiating the formation of prothrombin activator begins with a traumatized vascular wall or extravascular tissues and occurs according to the following steps; except
A. Release of tissue factor
B. Activation of factor X
C. Activation of factor XI
D. Effect of activated actor X to form prothrombin activator

A

C

Answer: C. Activation of factor XI Notes: Factor XI ヨ Intrinsic pathway

86
Q
One of the following is not a depolarization wave 
A. P wave 
B. QRS complex 
C. T wave 
D. None of these
A

C
Answer: C. T wave
Notes: T wave - repolarization

87
Q
Some varieties of cabbage block peroxidase enzyme required for iodination of tyrosine leading to growth of glandular tissues and forming a goiter. This effect is similar to which antithyroid substance? 
A. Thiocyanate 
B. Propylthiouracil 
C. Inorganic iodides 
D. Both B and C
A

B

Answer: B. Propylthiouracil

88
Q

Capacitation of the spermatozoa include the following changes; except
A. Membrane of the sperm becomes less permeable to calcium ions
B. While the spermatozoa remains in the fluid of the male genital ducts, they were continually exposed to many floating vesicles from the semeniferous tubules containing cholesterol
C. The uterine and the fallopian tube fluids wash away the various inhibitory factors that has suppressed sperm activity in the male genital ducts
D. None of these

A

A
Answer: A. Membrane of the sperm becomes less permeable to calcium ions Notes: Membrane of the sperm becomes more permeable to calcium ions

89
Q

What is the main difference between voltage-gated and ligandgated ion channels?
A. Voltage-gated channels are located in cardiac cells whereas ligandgated are in neuronal cells
B. Voltage-gated are activated by membrane potential changes whereas ligand-gated channels are by chemical messenger binding
C. Ligand-gated are found in resting conformational state
D. Ligand-gated channels contain an a-subunit protein

A

B
Answer: B. Voltage-gated are activated by membrane potential changes whereas ligand-gated channels are by chemical messenger binding

90
Q
A 45 yo female has severe scarring of the lungs or pulmonary fibrosis and underwent a left pneumonectomy several years earlier because of recurrent infections. She was admitted to the ICU with respiratory failure with hypoxemia caused by severe bronchitis. On the ventilator with FiO2 of 0.35, her ABG shows Pa O2 = 80mmHg, PaCO2 = 60mmHg, pH = 7.34 with an RR = 25 cpm, VT = 350mL. What is the most likely cause of this patientメs hypoxemia? 
A. Decreased FiO2
B. Diffusion abnormality 
C. V/Q mismatch 
D. Shunt
A

C

Answer: C. V/Q mismatch

91
Q
After completion of an endurance training program (3-5x/wk, 30- 60min/day for 3 months at 60% VO2max), all of the following will occur in skeletal muscle; except 
A. Increased biceps crosssectional area 
B. Increased mitochondrial density 
C. Angiogenesis 
D. Increased utilization of fats
A

A
Answer: A. Increased biceps crosssectional area Notes: Increased biceps cross-sectional area is a result of resistance training, not endurance.

92
Q
The excitatory cells of the SA and AV nodes transmit electrochemical stimuli via which of the following? 
A. Desmosomes 
B. Gap junctions 
C. Basement mambranes 
D. Tight junction
A

B

93
Q

A 36 y.o man is evaluated at the office because of complaints of fatigue, weight gain and irritability. Routine lab tests are performed and TSH level was found to be elevated. Patient is concerned about his condition and the relationship between hypothyroidism and his symptoms. Which of the following statements regarding second messenger system is true?
A. Most receptor proteins are completely extracellular.
B. Both the first messenger and second messenger mediators of cell signalling function within the cell cytoplasm.
C. Adenylate cyclase stimulates the conversion of cAMP to ATP.
D. IP3 greatly increases cytoplasmic calcium concentrations.

A

D
Answer: D
G proteins have intracellular portion. First messenger-extracellular; second messenger- intracellular.cAMP activates protein kinase A.

94
Q

A 34 yr-old male is brought into the emergency room, having been found unconscious in his apartment. Apparently he has been in this state for 2 days. Labs for blood & urine are consistent with elevated antidiuretic hormone. Which of these will directly stimulate ADH in this patient?
A. Angiotensinogen
B. Extracellular fluid osmolality increase
C. Temperature decrease
D. Thyroid hormone
E. Volume increase

A

B

ADH acts to increase renal water conservation secondary to dehydration

95
Q
A 45 yr-old male was suffering from unstable angina and is undergoing cardiac testing. At rest. HR is 70 bpm. His left ventricular end diastolic volume is estimated to be 150 ml while his end systolic volume is 80 ml. What is his estimated cardiac output? 
A. 3900 ml/min 
B. 4400 ml/min 
C. 4900 ml/min 
D. 5400 ml/min 
E. 5900 ml/min
A

C
Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying heart rate by stroke volume. Stroke volume is the difference between EDV & ESV. So, 150-80 = 70 ml. Stroke volume. 70 ml x 70 bpm = 4900 ml/min.

96
Q

A 23 yr-old female has serum electrolytes tested as part of a routine physical. The lab results reveal mild hypokalemia. Which of the following will promote movement of extracellular potassium into the intracellular fluid compartment and cause hypokalemia?
A. ECF hyperosmolality
B. IV administration of a beta-adrenergic blocker
C. IV insulin
D. Metabolic acidosis
E. Physical exercise

A

C

Insulin stimulates the uptake of K into the cells via Na+ K+ ATPase.

97
Q

Normal metabolism by the body generates large quantities of acid. In spite of this, normal blood pH is slightly alkaline 7.4 This extracellular fluid alkalinity is maintained primarily by the bodyメs removal of which of these?
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Ketoacids such as acetoacetic acid
D. Lactic acid
E. Titrable acids such as phosphoric acid

A

B
The vast majority of metabolic acid excretion is in the form of volatile acid carbon dioxide which is removed via the lungs. Much smaller quantities of non-volatile acids must be excreted in the urine.

98
Q
Which of the following is an adaptive response to moving from sea level to higher elevation. 
A. Bronchial relaxation 
B. Decreased cardiac output 
C. Decreased circulating levels of EPO 
D. Decreased levels of 2,3 DPG in RBC 
E. Hyperventilation
A

E
At high elevation the decreased atmospheric pressure means there is less available O2. Hyperventilation helps to bring alveolar and thus arterial O2 levels back towards normal.

99
Q

During a marathon attempt a runner collapses and is admitted with severe dehydration. Which of the following is most likely to occur in this patient?
A. Decreased firing of baroreceptors
B. Decresed plasma osmolality
C. High renal water excretion
D. Low plasma ADH levels
E. Low water permeability of collecting duct tubular cells

A

A
Acute dehydration results in decreased plasma volume, cardiac output and arterial pressure which leads to low firing rate of baroreceptors.

100
Q
GABA is an amino acid that functions as neurotransmitter in the CNS. GABA typically causes increased chloride conductance and functions as an inhibitory neurotransmitter. Assume that the equilibrium potential for Chloride in particular cell is -80 mV and that application of GABA inhibits the cell without any change in resting membrane potential, what is the RMP of the cell?
A. +80 mV 
B. 0 mV 
C. -70 mV 
D. -80mV 
E. -90 mV
A

D
If the equilibrium potential of the ion (Cl) is more negative than the RMP, increasing conductance of that ion will hyperpolarize the membrane.If and only if the RMP equals equilibrium potential for an ion will an increase in the conductance to that ion not cause a change in membrane potential.