Physiology 201-300 Flashcards
How many oxygen molecules can 1 myoglobin molecule bind? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
A
Myoglobin can only bind 1 molecule of oxygen, Hemoglobin can carry 4 molecules of oxygen
An MRI of a patient who suffered from a deceleration accident revealed a lesion on the right visual cortex posterior to the lateral geniculate body, which of the following visual defects would be expected?
A. Right homonymous hemianopia
B. Left homonymous hemianopia
C. Left hemianopia with macular sparing
D. Right hemianopia with macular sparing
E. Bilateral Hemianopia
C
Lesions of the right visual cortex posterior to the lateral geniculate body will present with left hemianopia with macular sparing. Lesions of the optic tract will present with homonymous hemianopia.
Which component of the complement system promotes opsonization? A. C3a B. C3b C. C4a D. C4b E. C5a
B
On a NORMAL individual, What is the alveolar ventilation, given the following: Tidal Volume : 500mL, RR:22cpm? A. 7.7 L B. 8.8 L C. 9.9 L D. 10.0 L E. 11.0 L
A
AV= (TV-Physiologic Dead space) x RR; AV= (500-150) x 22; AV:7,700mL/ 7.7 L (a similar computation-question was asked in the boards)
Majority of Carbon dioxide is transported in the body thru which form? A. HCO3 B. H2CO3 C. Free CO2 D. CO2 bound to albumin E. COOH
A
Pulmonary Embolism shows a V/Q ratio of: A. More than 1 B. Zero C. Less than 1 D. Negative 0.8 E. Infinite
E
In Pulmonary embolism there is good ventilation but zero perfusion hence V/Q ratio is infinite, there is continuous ventilation with no perfusion.
Which of the following shifts the Hemoglobin association curve to the left: A. Fever B. High pH C. Increased 2,3 BPG D. Exercise E. Increased CO2
B
The hemoglobin Dissociation curve shifts to the right in: Increased CO2, ACIDOSIS (low pH), Increased 2,3 -BPG, Exercise, Increased Temperature. (similar to SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE, came out 3x!!!)
Which of the following combination of hormones is synergistic with each other to promote HCl secretion? A. VIP, Ach, Histamine B. Ach, Histamine, Gastrin C. Secretin, CCK, Ach D. Motilin, Secretin, Gastrin E. Somatostatin, Gastrin, CCK
B
Ach, Histamine, and Gastrin are all involved in the several mechanisms of HCl secretion. Histamine is the most important of the 3.
Basophilic Cells of the Pituitary gland secretes the following: A. FSH B. GH C. Prolactin D. A and B E. All of the above
A
Basophilic Cells of the Anterior Pituitary Gland secretes the ff: FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, and MSH
Decreased Acetylcholine levels in the brain is thought to be the reason for developing Alzheimer's Disease. Where is Acetylcholine produced in the brain? A. Locus Ceruleus of the Pons B. Ventral Tegmentum C. Basal Nucleus of Meynert D. Nucleus Accumbens E. Raphe Nucleus
C
Locus Ceruleus-NE, Serotonin- Raphe Nucleus, Dopamine- Ventral tegmentum of Substantia Nigra, GABANucleus Accumbens
While walking at the mall, you incidentally saw your highschool crush, and your heart started beating fast. The heart rate is dependent on whate phase of the action potential of the SA node? A. Phase 0 B. Phase 1 C. Phase 2 D. Phase 3 E. Phase 4
E
The action potential of the SA node starts at Phase 4 followed by a phase 0 then a phase 3. The more steeper the phase 4 the easier it is to reach the threshold, hence a faster cardiac rate.
Which of the following is NOT a Sympathetic response? A. Mydriasis B. Uterine contraction C. Uterine relaxation D. Piloerection E. Erection
E
Erection is a Parasympathetic response. Uterine contraction and relaxation are both sympathetic responses acting on alpha-1 receptor and Beta-2 receptors, respectively. Mydriasis and piloerection are both sympathetic responses
Your lola is sufferring from cataract, bragging in front of her amigas, she asks you: "what part of the eye is the most important factor in refraction?", you will say that it is the: A. Retina B. Lens C. Uvea D. Cornea E. Pupil
D
The refractive power of the eye is 59 diopters and 2/3s of this is from the cornea, 1/3 is provided by the lens.
Among which of the following hypoxemic conditions will manifest as a normal Alveolararterial Gradient? A. High altitude B. V/Q mismatch C. Diffusion Limitation D. Right to left shunt E. None of the above
A
A patient presents to you in the ER with Sinus tachycardia, you immediately performed carotid massage to decrease the HR. Which of the following is responsible for the transmition of afferent signals from the carotid sinus to the medulla. A. CN V B. CN VII C. CN VIII D. CN IX E. CN X
D
CN IX/ Glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for transmitting the afferent signal from the carotid sinus, its branch is specifically termed as the Herring’s Nerve.
This phase of the cell cycle is where the 2nd heart sound is heard, the ventricular pressure decreases but the ventricular volume remains the same A. Atrial Contraction B. Isovolumic Contraction C. Rapid Ventricular Ejection D. Reduced Ventricular Ejection E. Isovolumic Relaxation
E
In Isovolumic relaxation the the aortic pressure is greater than the ventricular pressure hence the semilunar valve closes and the second heart sound is heard.
A nurse accidentally infused a large amount of Calcium gluconate into your patient, what will be the expected cardiac effect? A. Increased Heart rate B. Arrhythmia C. Increased Cardiac output D. Decreased Heart rate E. None of the above
B
Osmotic Diuretics act on all parts of the Nephron EXCEPT: A. Proximal Convoluted Tubule B. Loop of Henle C. Distal Convoluted Tubules D. Collecting Ducts E. No exception
C
Glucose Transporters (GLUT) are of what type of Transport Mechanism? A. Simple Diffusion B. Facilitated Diffusion C. Primary Active Transport D. Cotransport E. Counter transport
B
GLUTs are passive transport mechanisms, has a downhill approach and is carrier mediated, which does not use metabolic energy, they are also independent of Na gradient.
On what phase of the female menstrual cycle is a patient in, given the following lab results: Estrogen, FSH and LH: INCREASED; Progesterone: DECREASED? A. Menstruation B. Follicular Phase C. Ovulation D. Luteal Phase E. Proliferative Phase
C
Which myofibril band does not shorten during contraction? A. H band B. A band C. I band D. All of the above
B
*Generally a recall type of exam. Hband (heller) is the zone of the thick filaments that is not superimposed by the thin filaments; whereas A-band (anisotropic) contains the entire length of a single thick filament; and finally, Iband (isotropic) is the zone of thin filaments that is not superimposed by thick filaments. During contraction, the A-band does not change its length, whereas the I-band and the H-band shorten. This also causes the Z lines to come closer together.
Which of the following ECG findings will best suggest an old inferior wall myocardial infarction?
A. Q wave in the beginning of QRS complex in lead I
B. Q wave in leads II, III, avF
C. J point elevation in leads II, III, avF
D. All of the above
B
The appearance of Q waves (i.e. significant Q - wider and deeper waves) indicates that irreversible myocardial cell death has occurred. Its presence is diagnostic of MI. Leads II, III, avF assess the posterior wall territory. J point is the place where ST segment takes off from the QRS complex and said to have ho pathologic implications whatsoever.
Osmotic pressure is defined as the amount of pressure required to stop movement of water through a semipermeable membrane. Which of the following is not true about osmotic pressure?
A. It is determined by the number of particles per unit volume of fluid.
B. It is determined by the mass of particles per unit volume of fluid.
C. The molar concentration of the solution dictates the osmotic pressure.
D. None of the above
B
How much body water is lost in the feces during prolonged heavy exercise? A. 50 ml/day B. 100 ml/day C. 250 ml/day D. 400 ml/day
B
Must memorize several values; they are asked. Water loss from the skin and feces remain constant even during prolonged heavy exercise, set at 350 and 100 ml/day, respectively. On the other hand, loss from respiration increases from 350 to 650 ml/day; sweat - from 100 to 5000 ml/day. Urine finally decreases from 1400 to as little as 500 ml/day.
Which of the following will decrease the glomerular filtration rate?
A. An increase in the hydraulic conductivity of the glomerulus
B. An increase in the glomerular capillary osmotic pressure
C. A decrease in the sympathetic activity to the afferent renal vasculature
D. A moderate increase in angiotensin II acting on efferent arterioles
B
Hydraulic conductivity influences the filtration coefficient and hence the GFR. It refers to the ease with which substances can pass through the glomerular capillary membrane. Increasing the conductivity, therefore will not decrease the GFR. Decreasing the sympathetic effect on afferent arteriole would mean dilatation and an increase in glomerular hydrostatic pressure and hence increased GFR. Moderate increase in angiotensin II will cause efferent arteriole constriction and will contribute to increased ccapillary hydrostatic pressure. It should be noted however that in excessive stimulation by angiotensin II, the severe constriction will eventually increase the glomerular capillary oncotic pressure (trapped protein and ions) and therefore will diminish GFR.
What is the last nucleated stage found in erythropoiesis? A. Basophilic erythroblast B. Polychromatophilic erythroblast C. Orthochromatic erythroblast D. Reticulocyte
C
Reticulocyte, on the other hand, is the earliest RBC stage found in peripheral blood. It is already anucleated.
What is the endothelial cell molecule responsible for the adhesion, arrest and transmigration of all leukocytes? A. P-selectin B. VCAM C. ICAM D. Integrins
C
Please refer to Acute and Chronic Inflammation Chapter of Robbins (Unit 1, Chapter 2, Table 2-1, p. 54, 7th ed). It was very helpful! =)
Which of the following platelet/coagulation studies results are most consistent with von Willebrand’s disease?
A. NORMAL bleeding time, platelet count, PT and PTT
B. NORMAL bleeding time, platelet count, PT; PROLONGED PTT
C. PROLONGED bleeding time; NORMAL platelet count and PT; PROLONGED PTT
D. PROLONGED bleeding time; LOW platelet count; PROLONGED PT and PTT
C
Appreciate the purpose of the different lab tests including: BLEEDING TIME - a qualitative test for platelet function (we mean, does it adhere, aggregate well?), while PLATELET COUNT - obviously, a quantitative test. PT is a coagulation test that assesses both the extrinsic (factors VII, III/tissue factor) and the common (factors V, X, II, I, XIII) pathways - mnemonic: PeT. While PTT assesses both the intrinsic (HMWK, factors XII, XI, VIII, IX) and the common pathways - mnemonic: PiTT. In von Willebrand disease, there is problem with vWf which is important both in platelet adhesion and in intrinsic pathway stabilizer/vehicle/cofactor of factor VIII) hence prolonged BT and PTT.
Speech is a complex mechanism that makes use of the respiratory system, cerebral cortex, and the articulation and phonation structures of the mouth and nasal cavities. Its mechanical function phonation is particularly achieved through the: A. Tongue B. Larynx C. Lips D. Epiglotti
B
Zone 2, the predominant pulmonary blood flow type in the lung apices, is characterized by:
A. Alveolar air pressure that is greater than arterial pressure during the entire cardiac cycle
B. Alveolar air pressure that is lesser than arterial pressure during systole but greater only during diastole
C. Arterial pressure and pulmonary capillary pressure remaining greater than alveolar air pressure at all times
D. None of the above
B
Option A refers to Zone 1, while option C refers to Zone 3. Normally, the lungs have only zones 2 and 3 blood flow - zone 2 (intermittent blood flow) in the apices, and zone 3 (continuous flow) in all lower areas
Vasopressin secretion is triggered by:
A. LOW blood volume; LOW blood pressure; HIGH urine osmolality
B. HIGH blood volume; HIGH blood alcohol; LOW plasma osmolality
C. HIGH blood pressure; HIGH body alcohol; HIGH urine osmolality
D. LOW blood volume; LOW blood pressure; HIGH plasma osmolality
D
Vasopressin or ADH is waterregulating hormone (waterconserving). It responds to low blood/plasma volume, low BP, and high plasma osmolality — all suggesting water depletion.
Which of the following will cause increased K secretion? A. Hyperaldosteronism B. Alkalosis C. Luminal anions D. All of the above E. None of the above
D
All of the following will shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right except: A. Increased 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate B. Hypercarbia C. Fever D. Alkalosis E. None of the above
D
*Should you fail to master this topic, you may not take the physio exam =). The O2 dissociation curve (which is, by the way, sigmoidal in shape) shifts to the right (meaning hemoglobin has lower affinity to O2 and releases more O2 to tissues) happens during C-A-B-ET: high Carbon dioxide; Acidosis or low pH or high H ions; increased 2,3- Bisphosphoglycerate; Exercise; and high Temperature or fever
Pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease is believed to involve the destruction of:
A. Dopamine-secreting cell bodies in the substantia nigra pars compacta
B. Acetylcholineproducing neurons in many parts of the brain
C. GABA-producing neurons in caudate nucleus
D. Norepinephrinesecreting neurons in locus cereleus
B
Option A is Parkinson’s; option C is Huntington’s. At least know their basic pathophysio, useful also
What is the importance of secondary peristaltic waves in GI functions?
A. It mediates what is known as the gastrocolic reflex.
B. It delays gastric emptying time promoting mixing of foods until they form chyme.
C. It is responsible for the mass movements of the colon.
D. It mediates esophageal contraction until all retained foods are emptied into the stomach.
D
Primary and secondary peristalsis are exhibited by the esophagus. Primary peristalsis is the wave that begins in the pharynx and spreads into the esophagus during the pharyngeal stage of swallowing. If it fails to move into the stomach all the food that have gone to the esophagus, secondary peristalsis results from distention of the esophagus itself by the retained food and continue until all of them reach the stomach.
Pancreatic secretion is stimulated by: A. Cholecystokinin B. Secretin C. Acetylcholine D. All of these
D
This serves as the feeding center of the brain, destruction of which results in progressive inanition - marked weight loss, muscle weakness and decreased metabolism:
A. Ventromedial nuclei of hypothalamus
B. Lateral nuclei of hypothalamus
C. Anteroventral walls of the 3rd ventricle
D. Posteromedial walls of the 3rd ventricle
B
Option A is the satiety center; stimulation of which results in aphagia (refuses to eat), and conversely, its destruction leads to voracious eating.
Which of the following is effected by somatotropin?
A. Enhances amino acid reuptake and protein synthesis by cells
B. Stimulates the transcription of DNA to RNA for translation
C. May cause excessive mobilization of fat from the adipose tissue
D. All of the above
D
Somatotropin is GH. Its tissue effector are the insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) or somatomedins, particularly IGF 1 or somatomedin C. They are synthesized from the liver
This refers to the extra osmotic pressure caused by cations, primarily Na and K, held in the plasma by the proteins -- contributing to the total plasma colloid osmotic pressure: A. Bohr effect B. Scavenger system principle C. Bainbridge D. Donnan effect
D
The specific ability to pump iodide actively to the interior of the thyroid cell from its basal membrane is known as: A. Organification B. Iodide trapping C. Oxidation of iodide ion D. Deiodination
B
Oxidation of iodide ion is considered as the first essential step in thyroid hormone synthesis because it requires that iodide be converted to the oxidized ions before combining directly with amino acid tyrosine. In contrast, organification refers to the binding of iodine with the thyroglobulin molecule.
