Physiology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

After 4 and 5 weeks after conceptions what structures are formed from the neural tube

A

forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain

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2
Q

What does the forebrain consist of

A

Diencephalon(thalamus, hypothalamus) and cerebral hemispheres

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3
Q

mesencephalon

A

midbrain

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4
Q

Hindbrain

A

pons, cerebellum, medulla oblongata

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5
Q

CSF travels freely through

A

subarachnoid space, central canal, and ventricles of brain

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6
Q

Largest portion of the brain~ 80% of mass

A

Cerebrum

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7
Q

The right/left cerebral hemispheres are connected by

A

corpus callosum

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8
Q

Raised folds are called… these folds are separated by depressed grooves called…. together called….

A

gyri, sulci, convolutions

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9
Q

Each hemisphere is divided deep sulci or fissures making up…

A

5 lobes

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10
Q

5 lobes

A

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, insula

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11
Q

Frontal and parietal lobes are separated by what sulcus

A

central sulcus

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12
Q

pre central gyrus (also called) is located… and is responsible for ….. neurons here are called…

A

(Primary motor cortex)-frontal lobe, motor control, upper motor neurons
Involved with control of voluntary muscles

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13
Q

postcentral gyrus is located in… and is responsible for… also called the…

A

parietal lobe, somatesthetic sensation (coming from receptors in skin, muscles, tendons, joints), somatosensory cortex
cutaneous and proprioceptive senses

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14
Q

Auditory center

A

temporal lobe

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15
Q

vision and coordination of eyes

A

occipital lobe

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16
Q

insula function

A

memory and integration of sensory responses with visceral responses: receives olfactory, gustatory, auditory, and pain information

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17
Q

What hemisphere is dominant and what is its function

A

left: language and analytical ability

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18
Q

right hemisphere is specialized for

A

spatial comprehension

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19
Q

Motor speech area is …. located where….

A

broca’s area; left inferior frontal gyrus

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20
Q

understanding language area is…. located where…..

A

wernickes area; m left superior temporal gyrus

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21
Q

information about written words is sent by

A

occipital lobe; visual cortex

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22
Q

werickes aphasia destroys

A

spoken and written language comprehension

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23
Q

Describe how speech works ( include brocas and wernickes areas)

A

Auditory and visual info is sent to wernickes area that will then send a signal to brocas area along the arcuate fasciculus. brocas area sends information to primary motor cortex to direct movement of appropriate muscles

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24
Q

Diencephalon includes and is surrounded by

A

it is part of forebrain that includes epithalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, part of pituitary gland, and the third ventricle. Surrounded by cerebral hemispheres.

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25
Q

Thalamus is… it acts as…. for …

A

paired masses of gray matter, relay center, for all sensory information except smell and sends to cerebrum

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26
Q

Epithalamus

A

contains choroid plexus and pineal gland

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27
Q

Hypothalamus

A

maintains homeostasis and regulates ANS; contains centers for hunger/satiety and thirst, regulation of body temp, regulation of sleep and wake, sexual arousal/performance, emotions of fear, anger, and pleasure, control of the endocrine system, controls hormone secretion from the pituitary gland

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28
Q

Regions of hypothalamus (5)

A

lateral: hunger Medial:satiety
per optic-anterior: shivering, hyperventilation, vasodilation, sweating
supraoptic: ADH production
paraventricular: oxytocin

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29
Q

cerebellum

A

gray matter outside, white matter inside. receive input from procioceptors in joints tendons and muscles. Needed for motor learning and proper timing and force required to move limbs in a specific task.

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30
Q

medulla oblongata

A

Has vital centers:
vasomotor center- controls blood vessel diameter
cardiac control center- controls heart rate
respiratory(rhythmicity) center- works with areas in pons to control breathing

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31
Q

white matter is composed of… arranged in…

A

ascending and descending fiber tracts; funiculi (6 columns)

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32
Q

ascending tracts

A

carry sensory impulses, given the prefix spino- and suffix of where it synapses

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33
Q

spinothalamic is what type of tract

A

ascending tract

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34
Q

anterior corticospinal tract is what type of tract

A

descending tract

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35
Q

descending tracts

A

carry motor impulses, given the suffix -spinal and the prefix of where they come from

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36
Q

pituitary gland is connection between

A

nervous system and endocrine system

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37
Q

somatic motor neurons have their cell bodies within the… and send axons to…

A

CNS, skeletal muscles

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38
Q

The stretch reflex does not depend on activation of

A

upper motor neurons

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39
Q

upper motor neurons vs lower motor neurons

A

upper motor neurons originate in the cerebral cortex and travel down to the brain stem or spinal cord, while the lower motor neurons begin in the spinal cord and go on to innervate muscles and glands throughout the body

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40
Q

Muscle stretch reflex

A

has only one synapse-monosynaptic reflex. Sensory neuron directly synapses with motor neuron(no interneuron)

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41
Q

Monosynaptic reflex arc

A

streching stimulation of muscle-sensory receptor- sensory neuron (dorsal root)- motor neuron (ventral horn)- muscular effector(contraction)

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42
Q

streching stimulation

A

sensory receptor-sensory neuron (dorsal root)- interneuron in CNS(inhibitory)- motor neuron (ventral horn)- muscular effect (antagonistic muscle relax)

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43
Q

What passes to the brain that allows conscious awareness that reflex has occurred

A

action potential

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44
Q

Reciprocal Innervation

A

stimulation of motor neurons to agonist muscle and inhibition of motor neurons to antagonist muscle

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45
Q

Reflexes that do not send to or receive signals from the brain

A

spinal reflexes

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46
Q

somatic motor neurons have cell bodies in the … and #? neuron(s) traveling from …. to ….

A

spinal cord, 1, spinal cord to effector

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47
Q

The ANS has how many sets of neurons in PNS

A

2

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48
Q

Preganglionic vs postganglionic neurons

A

pre- cell bodies in brain or spinal cord and synapses in an autonomic ganglion
post- cell bodies in autonomic ganglion and synapses on effector

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49
Q

Preganglionic neurons of sympathetic division come from _____ division of spinal cord

A

T1-L2 or thoracolumbar division

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50
Q

Preganglionic neurons of sympathetic division synapse in _____ that run ____ to spinal cord

A

sympathetic ganglia that run parallel to spinal cord also called paravertebral ganglia

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51
Q

paravertebral ganglia are connected and form a

A

sympathetic chain of ganglia

52
Q

Divergence vs Convergence

A

Divergence is when one preganglionic neuron synapse on several postganglionic neurons at different levels
convergence is when several preganglionic neurons at different levels synapse at one postganglionic neuron

53
Q

Preganglionic fibers that exit the spinal cord below the diaphragm pass through the sympathetic trunk without synapsing. Beyond the sympathetic chain these fibers are called

A

splanchnic nerves

54
Q

preganglionic fibers in splanchnic nerves synapse in

A

collateral ganglia

55
Q

collateral ganglia include

A

celiac, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesenteric ganglia

56
Q

Postganglionic fibers that arise from the collateral ganglia innervate what

A

organs of the digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems

57
Q

The adrenal _____ secretes _____ and _____ when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system as part of mass activation

A

medulla, epinephrine and norepinephrine

58
Q

mass activation

A

divergence and convergence can activates the entire sympathetic division for flight or flight responses in response to visceral stimuli

59
Q

The adrenal medulla is a ____ _____ and is innervated directly by ____ _____ ____

A

modified ganglion, preganglionic sympathetic neurons

60
Q

adrenal glands are apart of what division

A

sympathetic

61
Q

preganglionic neurons of parasympathetic division come from the _____ or ______ of the spinal cord

A

brain or sacral region of spinal cord or together craniosacral regions

62
Q

PS preganglionic neurons synapse on ____ located near or in _____ called _____

A

ganglia, effector organs, terminal ganglia

63
Q

terminal ganglia supply very ____ postganglionic neurons to the ____

A

short, effectors

64
Q

sympathetic function

A

activates fight or flight through release or norepinephrine from postganglionic neurons and secretes epinephrine from adrenal medulla, prepares body for intense physical activity by increasing heart rate and glucose and diverting blood to skeletal muscles, tonically regulates heart, blood vessels, and other organs

65
Q

parasympathetic functions

A

rest and digest through release of Ash from postganglionic neurons, slows hear rate and increases digestive activities

66
Q

What is the neurotransmitter of ALL preganglionic axons

A

ACh

67
Q

Cholinergic

A

nerve endings that when stimulated release ACh, released by most parasympathetic post ganglionic neurons

68
Q

Adrenergic

A

nerve endings that release epinephrine, norepinephrine, released by most sympathetic postganglionic neurons

69
Q

Response to adrenergic stimulation

A

can be epinephrine in blood or norepinephrine from sympathetic nerves;
stimulation: heart, dilatory muscles of iris, vasoconstriction of blood vessels ( contracts smooth muscle)
inhibition: bronchioles of lungs, other blood vessels; inhibits contraction and dilation

70
Q

Types of adrenergic receptors and functions

A

alpha and beta
Alpha receptors are more sensitive to norepinephrine
Beta receptors are more sensitive to blood epinephrine

71
Q

Response to cholinergic stimulation

A

ACh from all preganglionic neurons is stimulatory
ACh from postganglionic neurons in PS is stimulatory usually but some are inhibitory

72
Q

cholinergic receptors

A

Nicotinic- found in autonomic ganglia and skeletal muscle, stimulated by ACh from preganglionic neurons, serve as ligand gated Channels for Na and K
Muscarinic- found in visceral organs and stimulated by release of ACh from postganglionic neurons, can by stimulatory or inhibitory (opening Ca Na, or K channels), use G proteins and second messenger system

73
Q

nicotinic receptors in skeletal muscle cause _____ producing ____ its mechanism is

A

depolarization, action potentials and muscle contraction, ACh opens cation channels in receptor

74
Q

nicotinic receptors in autonomic ganglia respond by ______ and causing _____ the mechanism is ____

A

depolarization, postganglionic neuron activation, ACh opens cation channels in receptor

75
Q

Musarinic receptors in smooth muscles and gland vs heart

A

response in smooth muscle and glands is depolarization causing contraction and secretion
response in heart is hyper polarization, slowing rate of spontaneous depolarization
Mechanisms- ACh activates g-protein coupled receptors opening Ca channels in smooth muscles and glands while K channels open in heart

76
Q

preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division originate from

A

the brain (midbrain, pons, medulla) and in the sacral region

77
Q

What fibers occur in spinal nerves

A

sympathetic

78
Q

which fibers innervate the structures of the skin and why

A

Only sympathetic fibers occur in spinal nerves; therefore they are the only type to innervate blood vessels, sweat glands, and arrector pili muscles of the skin.

79
Q

cholinergic neurons

A

all preganglionic neurons, all somatic motor neurons, and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons

80
Q

Functions of circulatory system

A

transportation (respiratory gases, nutrients, and wastes), regulation (temperature and hormones), protection (clotting and immunity)

81
Q

Components of circulatory system

A

cardiovascular system- heart and blood vessels
lymphatic system- lymphatic vessels, lymphoid tissues, lymphatic organs (spleen, thymus, lymph nodes)

82
Q

Lub Dub sounds caused by

A

closing of AV valves (ventricular systole), closing of semilunar valves (ventricular diastole)

83
Q

heart mumur

A

abnormal heart sound due to abnormal blood flow may be caused by defective valves

84
Q

mitral stenosis

A

mitral valve calcifies and impairs flow between left atrium and ventricle, may result in thick RV and pulmonary hypertension

85
Q

Isovolumetric contraction

A

ventricles begin contraction, pressure rises, AV valves close (lub)

86
Q

ejection

A

pressure builds, semilunar valves open, and blood is ejected into arteries

87
Q

isovolumetric relaxation

A

pressure in ventricles falls, semilunar valves close (dub)

88
Q

rapid fill

A

pressure in ventricles is less than atria, AV valves open, ventricles fill

89
Q

atrial contraction

A

atria contract, sending last of blood to ventricles

90
Q

cardiac output

A

(stroke volume x cardiac rate) the volume of blood pumped each minute by each ventricle

91
Q

average heart rate, stroke volume, and cardiac output

A

70 bpm, 70 to 80 ml/beat, 5500 ml/min

92
Q

what neurotransmitters and cardiac center affect heart beat

A

medulla oblongata;
sympathetic norepinephrine increase heart beat
parasympathetic (vagus nerve) acetylcholine slows heart rate

93
Q

End-diastolic volume

A

total volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole

94
Q

End-systolic volume

A

total volume of blood left in ventricles after systole (1/3 of end-diastolic volume)

95
Q

Stroke volume is affected by what three things

A

preload, contractility, and afterload

96
Q

Preload also known as EDV

A

the tension on the ventricular walls produced by their filling with the end diastolic volume of blood (the load ion a muscle before it contracts)

97
Q

contractility

A

strength of ventricular contraction

98
Q

afterload

A

the total peripheral resistance, presents an impedance to the ejection of blood from the ventricles at systole

99
Q

Frank-Starling law of the heart

A

the relationship between EDV, contraction strength, and stroke volume is an intrinsic property of a heart muscle. If one variable increase then so do the others

100
Q

venous pressure/return

A

draining of blood into the atria

101
Q

external vs internal respiration

A

external- ventilation/gas exchange in lungs
internal- oxygen utilization/ gas exchange in tissues

102
Q

conducting zone

A

transports air to lungs. humidifies, warms, filters, and cleans air, voice production

103
Q

External intercostal muscles

A

raises rib cage during inspiration

104
Q

internal intercostal muscles

A

lowers rib cage during forced expiration

105
Q

parasternal intercostal muscle

A

works with external intercostal

106
Q

quiet expiration

A

relaxation of inspiratory muscles (passive) external and parasternal muscles relax

107
Q

forced expiration

A

internal intercostal muscles contract to lower ribs

108
Q

spirometry

A

records volume/frequency of air movement, measures lung volumes/ capacities
can diagnose restrictive/ obstructive Lung disorders

109
Q

Tidal volume (movement like a calm waves)

A

amount of air exhaled or inhaled in quiet breathing

110
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

air that can be forced out after tidal volume

111
Q

inspiratory reserve volume

A

amount of air that can be forced in after tidal volume

112
Q

residual volume

A

amount of air left in lungs after max expiration

113
Q

Vital capacity

A

max amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after max inhalation

114
Q

total lung capacity

A

amount of gas in lungs after max inspiration

115
Q

inspiratory capacity

A

amount of gas that can be inspired after normal expiration

116
Q

Functional residual capacity

A

amount of air left in lungs after normal expiration

117
Q

IRV+ERV+TV=?

A

Vital Capacity

118
Q

RV+ERV=

A

Functional residual capacity

119
Q

vital capacity+residual volume

A

total lung capacity

120
Q

Inspiratory capacity

A

total lung - functional residual capacity (RV+ ERV)
IRV+TV

121
Q

glutamate

A

major excitatory neurotransmitter in brain
80% of EPSPs in the cerebral cortex produced by glutamate
Energy needed for all of EPSPs constitutes major brain energy usage

122
Q

GABA

A

inhibitory, opens Cl channels when it binds to receptors
most common neurotransmitter in brain
involved with motor control

123
Q

glycine

A

produced IPSPs, opens Cl channels
makes it harder to reach threshold
spinal cord

124
Q

In the heart, acetylcholine (opens/closes) K+ channels producing ______ that increase/decrease heart rate while in smooth muscle it opens/closes K+ channels, producing ________ that relax/contract these muscles

A

opens (by beta-gamma complex), IPSPs, decrease
closes(by alpha subunit), EPSPs, contract

125
Q
A