Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Name 3 factors that stimulate the release of renin?

A

Reduced sodium in the distal convoluted tubule detected by macula densa

reduced renal perfusion pressure

Sympathetic innervation of JGA by B1 adrenoceptors

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2
Q

What inhibits the release of renin?

A

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)

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3
Q

What is the most significant event to contribute to wound healing following injury?

A

Platelet degranulation

It is the earliest phase and results in haemostasis

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4
Q

What is the mechanism of action of corticosteroids?

A

Bind to intracellular receptors that travel to nucleus to affect gene transcription

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5
Q

Compare LCIS to DCIS?

A

DCIS more common and more likely to be invasive malignancy and need early intervention

LCIS more likely to be multifocal and metastasise to contralateral breast. Investigate with MRI breast first

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6
Q

What do secretin and cholecystokinin secrete into pancreatic juice from the pancreas?

A

Secretin - water and electrolytes

Cholecystokinin - enzymes

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7
Q

Commonest cause of blood stained nipple discharge in young women?

A

intraductal papilloma

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8
Q

What is Waterhouse- Friderichsen syndrome?

What is it most often caused by?

A

Adrenal gland failure due to bleeding into the adrenal glands

Caused by severe bacterial infection, most commonly meningococcus neisseria meningitidis

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9
Q

Which pancreatic cells release insulin?

A

Beta cells in the islets of langerhan release insulin

Beta cells are the most common types of cell found in the islet of langerhan

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10
Q

Compare the cell types in the islet of langerhan that produce glucagon, somatostatin and pancreatic polypeptide?

A

Glucagon - Alpha cells

Somatostatin - delta cells

F cells - pancreatic polypeptide

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11
Q

Which immunoglobulin involved in autoimmune conditions ?

A

IgG

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12
Q

Compare if fractures of the distal radius are volar or dorsally displaced in Smith’s or Colle’s fractures?

A

Colle’s - dorsal displacement of fracture

Smith’s - volar displacement of fracture

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13
Q

What caecal diameter in an obstructed patient is a sign of impending perforation and indication for prompt surgery?

A

Caecal diameter of >12cm

Also in the presence of caecal tenderness

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14
Q

If lesion causing large bowel obstruction lies in splenic flexure or transverse colon, which surgery should be carried out?

A

Extended right hemicolectomy with ileocolic anastomosis

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15
Q

Which surgical procedure is most likely to be carried out in rectal cancer or for distal sigmoid lesions?

A

High anterior resection +/- loop colostomy

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16
Q

In post menopausal women, what process accounts for most oestrogen production?

A

Aromatisation

Therefore, aromatase inhibitors (letrozole, anastrozole) are the preferred agents to treat breast cancer in this group

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17
Q

Which type of organisms in particular increase the risk of post splenectomy sepsis?

A

Encapsulated organisms

E.Coli, Strep Pneumoniae, salmonella, Klebsiella, H.Influenza

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18
Q

How should lesions suspicious of melanoma be treated?

A

Excision biopsy

Avoid incisional or punch biopsy of lesions suspected to be melanoma

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19
Q

Name 2 contraindications for using cell saver devices during surgery?

A

Infection and malignancy

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20
Q

In an incidental finding of an adrenal lesion, what is the most appropriate first line investigation?

A

Hormonal assay

If lesion is >4cm, it should usually be excised

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21
Q

Which type of oesophageal cancer is most associated with hx of Barrett’s oesophagus and short history of dysphagia?

A

Adenocarcinoma

SCC usually has longer, more progressive history of dysphagia

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22
Q

What thyroid neoplasm is responsible for a mass with oxyphil cells and scanty thyroid colloid?

A

Follicular carcinoma

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23
Q

Which thyroid cancer is a tumour of the parafollicular C cells?

Serum levels of what are often raised?

A

Medullary carcinoma

Serum calcitonin levels often raised

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24
Q

Following resection, what additional treatment is offered to patients with colorectal cancer and nodal mets?

A

Chemotherapy

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25
Q

What is TUR syndrome?

A

Trans urethral resection syndrome - occurs when irrigation fluid enters systemic circulation

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26
Q

What triad of features are seen in TUR syndrome?

A

Hyponatremia - dilutional
Fluid overload
Glycine toxicity

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27
Q

How is TUR (trans urethral resection) syndrome managed?

A

Fluid restriction and treatment of complications associated with hyponatremia

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28
Q

What is the difference between isograft and allograft?

A

Isograft - transplant between 2 individuals who are genetically identical

Allograft - transplant between 2 individuals from the same species, not genetically identical

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29
Q

What is an autograft?

A

Transplant of organ/tissue from one part of the body to another in the same individual

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30
Q

Which is the only type of diathermy to not have the risk of causing damage to end vessels?

A

Bipolar units

The electric current flows from one electrode to the other so heating is localised to area between two electrodes and surrounding tissue damage minimised

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31
Q

What is the best surgical strategy for avoidance of complete abdominal wound dehiscence?

A

Mass closure of midline wound is preferred

Known as Jenkins rule

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32
Q

How should lesions suspicious for malignant melanoma be biopsied ?

A

Excision biopsy always

incision biopsy can make subsequent histopathological assessment difficult

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33
Q

What margin should be excised in a suspicious lesion with breslow thickness of:
a) 2-4mm thick
b) >4mm thick

A

a) 2-4mm thick needs 2-3 cm margins

b) >4mm thick needs 3cm margins

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34
Q

Where is calcium mainly absorbed?

Which procedure will have greatest impact on patients calcium metabolism?

A

Absorbed in small bowel

Small bowel resection will have biggest impact on calcium absorption

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35
Q

What is more sensitive and specific than amylase when investigating for pancreatitis?

A

Serum lipase

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36
Q

When should a total duct excision (hadfields procedure) be performed rather than a microdochectomy?

A

In duct ectasia with severe symptoms, a total duct excision may be warranted

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37
Q

How should a failed colonoscopy be managed in the first instance?

A

CT Colonography

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38
Q

Which cell type to gliomas arise from?

A

Neuroglial cells

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39
Q

How is most splenic trauma managed?

A

Most managed conservatively

Hilar injuries (grade IV) tend to require surgery

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40
Q

What is the difference between weber A, B and C ankle fractures?

A

Where the fracture is in relation to the syndesmosis

A - below syndesmosis - stable

B- in line with syndesmosis - variable

C - above syndesmosis - unstable

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41
Q

Describe the Bainbridge reflex?

A

The increase in heart rate mediated by atrial stretch receptors following a rapid infusion of blood

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42
Q

What system is very good for managing splenic bleeding?

A

Argon plasma coagulation system

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43
Q

Name the Ig involved in hyperacute organ transplant reactions?

A

Hyperacute - IgG class I antibodies in the recipient

Acute - IgA

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44
Q

Which type of breast cancer often occurs in pregnancy or lactation?

A

Inflammatory carcinoma

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45
Q

When is mastectomy favoured over WLE in DCIS?

A

If DCIS is >4cm, mastectomy is generally preferred

Although ultimately depends on size of breast

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46
Q

How should DALM lesions complicating ulcerative colitis be managed?

A

Panprocolectomy

Refers to dysplasia associated lesion or mass.

They have a high incidence of invasive foci

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47
Q

Which 2 clotting factors are most sensitive to temperature?

A

Factors V and VIII

This is the reason FFP is frozen so soon after collection

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48
Q

Which blood product is a rich source of Factor VIII and fibrinogen?

A

Cryoprecipitate

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49
Q

Which nerve can be damaged in post triangle LN biopsy?

A

Accessory nerve

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50
Q

What should be given first line in acute adrenal insufficiency?

A

Hydrocortisone 100mg IV

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51
Q

What artery supplies the greater curvature and lesser curvature of the stomach?

A

Greater curvature = Gastroepiploic artery (branch of gastroduodenal artery)

Lesser curvature = left gastric and right gastric branch of hepatic artery

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52
Q

Compare the most common cause of hypercalcemia in hospitalised patients and those in the community in the UK?

A

Hospital - metastatic malignancy

Community - primary hyperparathyroidism

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53
Q

What is the site of action of furosemide?

A

The ascending loop of Henle

Works to reduce the absorption of NaCl

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54
Q

What is considered the gold standard imaging for the detection of renal scarring?

A

DSMA scan

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55
Q

Which rare cutaneous tumour causes lymphovascualr invasion and is associated with visceral mets?

A

Merkel tumour

Rare but aggressive, purple lesion on sun exposed skin of elderly
Surgical excision 1st line

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56
Q

What disease are Reed Steenberg cells characteristically found in?

A

Hodgkins Lymphoma

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57
Q

Which heparin regime do vascular surgeons request prior to cross clamping to help prevent further intra arterial thromboses?

A

3,000 units of systemic heparin, 3-5 mins prior to cross clamping

Giving heparin at induction will cause bleeding during routine dissection

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58
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of heparin?

A

It prevents binding between antithrombin and thrombin and factor Xa

This prevents the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

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59
Q

Why is unfractionated heparin preferred in surgical patients over LMWH?

A

Unfractionated heparin has a shorter duration of action and is easier to reverse

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60
Q

Compare the origin of neuroblastoma and nephroblastoma in kids?

Which is more associated with hypertension?

A

Neuroblastoma - origin in adrenal gland

Nephroblastoma - origin in kidney

Nephroblastoma more associated with hypertension

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61
Q

How are neuro and nephroblastomas treated in kids?

A

Neuroblastoma - Surg resection, radiotherapy and chemotherapy

Nephroblastoma - surg resection and chemotherapy

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62
Q

How is unfractionated heparin reversed?

A

Protamine sulphate

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63
Q

Compare treatment for haemorrhoids and fissure

A

Haemorrhoids - rubber band ligation

Fissure - topical GTN +/- surgery

Haemorrhoids painless bleeding, fissure painful

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64
Q

Which corticosteroid does not interfere with lab analysis of serum cortisol?

A

Dexamethasone

it can be given as glucocorticoid replacement during testing for Addisons as it does not interfere with cortisol levels

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65
Q

Which part of the adrenal gland releases cortisol?

A

Zona fasciculata

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66
Q

What medication is administered in most cases of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

How does it work?

A

Nimodipine

Its a calcium channel blocker that reduces cerebral vasospasm and improves outcomes

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67
Q

When is the oxygen dissociation curve shifted to the Right?

A

Raised oxygen delivery to tissues is required

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68
Q

How does DPG work in terms of oxygen dissociation?

A

It binds to Hb molecule and releases O2 to tissues

Released from erythrocytes during glycolysis

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69
Q

In which conditions is 2,3 DPG increased?

A

Conditions associated with poor oxygen delivery to tissues

More 2, 3 DPG facilitates oxygen delivery to tissues

Chronic anemia causes increased 2,3,DPG

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70
Q

Compare how the Bohr and HaLdane effects affect O2 delivery to tissues?

A

HaLdane - shifts O2 curve to Left. Less O2 delivered to tissue (ie - increased saturation of Hb with O2)

Bohr - shifts O2 curve to Right. Raised O2 delivery to tissues. (ie- reduced saturation of Hb with O2)

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71
Q

What acid base disturbance does diarrhoea/high output stoma case?

A

Metabolic acidosis

Patients may compensate by hyperventilating

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72
Q

What Kidney stone composition causes a stag horn calculs?

A

Struvite

Seen in chronic infection with urease producing enzymes

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73
Q

What is the most common cause high output diarrhoea following terminal ileal resection?

How is this treated?

A

Malabsorption of bile salts

Treat with oral cholestyramine (a bile salt binding agent)

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74
Q

Which channels does lignocaine block?

A

Neuronal sodium channels

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75
Q

Which clotting factors are affected by heparin?

A

CFs 2, 9, 10, 11

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76
Q

Which clotting factors are affected by warfarin ?

A

CFs 2, 7, 9, 10

Warfarin is a vit K antagonist.
Vit K works to regulate production of CFs 2,7,9,10. If it is antagonised, less of these CFs will be produced

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77
Q

Name the medial and lateral walls of the femoral canal?

A

Medial wall = lacunar ligament

Lateral wall = femoral vein

DON’T mistake femoral canal for femoral triangle!

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78
Q

Which cell secretes the majority of tumour necrosis factor in humans?

A

Macrophages

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79
Q

Which skin condition is associated with crohn’s disease?

A

Pyoderma Gangrenosum

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80
Q

What imaging technique is used to investigate failing renal transplants?

A

MAG 3 renogram

It is the investigation of choice for imaging in patients with existing renal impairment

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81
Q

Which type of polyp has the greatest risk of malignant transformation?

A

Villous adenoma

Patients with hamartomatous polyp syndromes may have an increased risk of malignancy, but the polyps themself carry little risk

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82
Q

Which type of oesophageal cancer is most common in a patient with a history of GORD?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma usually doesn’t have as strong a history

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83
Q

In patients requiring long term ventilation, what is the best option to maintain airway?

A

Tracheostomy

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84
Q

Name 3 nerves at risk during excision of branchial cyst?

A

Mandibular branch of facial nerve

Greater Auricular nerve

Accessory nerve

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85
Q

Where in the intestine is iron best absorbed?

A

Duodenum and jejunum (proximal small bowel)

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86
Q

What is the difference between a CT with contrast and a CT without contrast?

A

Contrast enhances the visibility of blood vessels and soft tissues so essential in suspected neoplasms or to show inflammation

Non contrast CTs used for evaluating bone structures and acute haemorrhage

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87
Q

Which primary cancer site is most likely to cause hyper vascular secondary spread to bones?

A

Renal cell cancer

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88
Q

Which muscle relaxant induces neuromuscular excitability?

A

Suxamethonium

It may induce muscular contractions following administration, which can raise potassium

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89
Q

What do neutrophils produce as a microbicidal agent?

A

Hydrogen peroxide

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90
Q

What is a histological diagnostic feature of acute inflammation?

A

Presence of neutrophil polymorphs

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91
Q

Compare the urinary and serum diagnostic marker for carcinoid syndrome?

A

Urinary marker - 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)

Serum marker - Chromogranin A

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92
Q

What is secreted in carcinoid syndrome? Where does the syndrome typically originate?

A

Serotonin

Originates in neuroendocrine cells mainly in intestine

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93
Q

How is carcinoid syndrome treated?

A

Octerotide
or
Surgical removal

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94
Q

Which type of septicaemia is associated with carcinoma of the colon?

A

Streptococcus Bovis (a gram positive)

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95
Q

Deficiency of which electrolyte can cause hypocalcemia?

A

Magnesium - it is require for PTH secretion and action on target cells

Hypomagnesaemia can cause hypocalcemia

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96
Q

Which clotting factors will Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation consume quickest initially?

A

Factor V and VIII (and platelets) initially

DIC cause simultaneous coagulation and haemorrhage which ultimately leads to bleeding

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97
Q

Why do diverticulum almost never occur in the rectum?

A

The rectum has a longitudinal muscle coat

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98
Q

Compare the location and rate of progression of small cell and squamous lung cancers?

A

Small cell - located centrally, rapid rate of progression and dissemination. Typically arise in larger airways

Squamous cell carcinoma - located centrally, more slow growing

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99
Q

Which cell is most commonly encountered in acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophil polymorphs

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100
Q

Compare urinary tests for phaeochromocytoma and carcinoid syndrome ?

A

Phaeochromocytoma - urinary metanephrines

Carcinoid syndrome - Urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)

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101
Q

Name 4 causes of a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A
  • lactate (shock, hypoxia)
  • ketones (DKA)
  • urate (renal failure)
  • acid poisoning (methanol, salicylates)
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102
Q

Name 4 causes of a normal anion gap acidosis?

A
  • GI bicarb loss (diarrhoea)
  • renal tubular acidosis
  • addison’s disease
  • drugs (acelazolamide)
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103
Q

Name 3 most common organisms causing post splenectomy sepsis?

A

Strep pneumoniae
H. Influenzae
Meningococci

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104
Q

Which tumour marker is elevated in colonic cancer?

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

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105
Q

What is the most common and important viral infection seen in solid organ transplant recipients? How is it treated?

A

Cytomegalovirus

Vague symptoms, treatment with IV ganciclovir

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106
Q

What is the normal range for anion gap?

A

10-18mmol/l

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107
Q

Compare the surgical management for gastric cancers if it is <5cm or >5cm from the OG junction?

A

<5cm from OG junction = total gastrectomy

> 5cm (to 10cm) from OG junction= subtotal gastrectomy

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108
Q

What is the name of the procedure used to treat paediatric intestinal malrotaiton with volvulus?

A

Ladds procedure

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109
Q

What proportion of calcium filtered at the glomerulus is reabsorbed by the renal tubules?

A

95%

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110
Q

Which local anaesthetic agent is most likely to induce adrenal suppression?

A

Etomidate

It also has a pretty favourable cardiac profile

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111
Q

What one characteristic differentiates invasive malignancy from in situ disease?

A

Invasion of the basement membrane

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112
Q

Which hepatitis is most commonly picked up by travellers (ie - infective hepatitis)?

A

Hepatitis A

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113
Q

Name the triad of symptoms in Lariche Syndrome?

A
  1. Impotence
  2. Atrophy of buttock and leg muscles
  3. Claudication of buttocks and thighs

It is atherosclerotic occlusive disease involving the abdominal aorta +/- iliac arteries

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114
Q

Which condition typically presents with abdominal and neuropsychiatric symptoms?

A

Acute Intermittent Porphyria

Often present with motor neuropathy, abdominal pain and depression

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115
Q

What is raised in acute intermittent porphyrias?

A

Urinary porphobilinogen

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116
Q

Compare the mediators involved in type I, II, III, IV hypersensitivity reactions?

A

A - allergic/anaphylactic - IgE

C - cytotoxic- IgM, IgG

I- immune mediated - IgG, IgM, IgA

D - delayed - T cell mediated

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117
Q

Compare the reticulocyte count in sickle cell anaemia and transient aplastic crises due to parvovirus ?

A

Sickle cell anaemia = reticulocytosis (elevated retic count)

Transient aplastic crisis = reticulocytopenia (reduced retic count)

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118
Q

Describe the systemic vascular resistance in sepsis?

A

SVR is reduced in sepsis

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119
Q

What is the name of a hernia containing Meckels Diverticulum?

A

Littres hernia

120
Q

Why is carbon monoxide used to calculate the transfer factor of the lungs?

A

Hb binds more strongly to CO than O2 or CO2

Therefore, the difference in the amount breathed in and the amount breathed out gives a maximum diffusion value

121
Q

How does area of septum and thickness affect the volume of diffusion in the lung?

A

Vol of distribution = area/thickness

Area increases, vol of distribution increases

Thickness increases, vol of distribution decreases

122
Q

How does pul haemorrhage affect TLCO?

Why?

A

Pulmonary haemorrhage causes raised TLCO.

Blood in the airways recruits CO

123
Q

How does asthma affect TLCO?

Why?

A

Asthma causes raised TLCO

Bronchoconstriction means less air is expelled from airways and there is increased vascular recruitment around the alveoli

This increases transfer factor

124
Q

Which aspect of wound healing is defective in diabetics?

A

Neutrophil recruitment into the wound

125
Q

If a mottled limb with suspected limb ischemia blanches on pressure, is that an earlier or later sign than if it doesn’t blanch on pressure?

A

If mottled limb blanches on pressure, it is an earlier sign than if the limb does not blanch on pressure

No blanching suggests it has been ischemic for 12-24 hours and requires amputation

126
Q

What is the treatment of choice for renal pelvis stones greater than 20mm?

A

Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy

Stones >20mm unlikely to pass spontaneously

127
Q

Compare how renal stones 10-20mm and >20mm are treated?

A

10-20mm - shockwave lithotripsy

> 20mm - Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy

128
Q

What is the primary event that results in AAA?

A

The loss of the intima with loss of elastic fibres from the tunica media

129
Q

What is one of the most common causes of colovesical fistulas?

A

Diverticular disease

130
Q

Fibroadenomas of the breast that have a diameter greater than what should be biopsied?

A

Diameter greater than 4mm

Via a core biopsy

131
Q

What is the name given to the condition associated with chlamydia that causes pelvic inflammatory disease and perihepatic inflammation and adhesion formation?

How is it managed?

A

Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome

Managed medically - doxycycline or azithromycin

132
Q

Describe the difference between Buckle and Greenstick fractures?

A

Greenstick fracture causes unilateral cortical disruption and haematoma

Buckle fracture shows periosteal haematoma formation only

133
Q

Which component of the FBC is first to be affected following a splenectomy?

A

Reticulocyte and granulocyte count increase first

Then, reticulocyte count raises

134
Q

What is the most common type of breast cancer in the older, postmenopausal women?

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

135
Q

What is the most common location to find an Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

Femoral Diaphysis

A sarcoma found in this location is more likely to be Ewing’s sarcoma than an osteosarcoma

136
Q

Name 4 contraindications to lung cancer surgery?

A

FEV<1.5l
Vocal chord paralysis
SVC obstruction
Malignant pleural effusion

137
Q

Describe the clinical picture seen in Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

Ipsilateral paralysis, loss of proprioception and fine touch (DCML pathway)

Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation (spinothalamic tract)

138
Q

In Brown Sequard syndrome, why is the loss of pain and temperature sensation contralateral to injured area?

A

The spinothalamic tract decussates at a level below the cord transection

139
Q

Which thyroid cancer is associated with psammoma bodies? What are these comprised of?

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

Psammoma bodies made up of clusters of microcalcification

139
Q

How should patients with metastatic bone disease secondary to prostate cancer be treated? (3 components)

A

Androgen suppression
Radiotherapy
Biphosphonates

140
Q

What is the first line treatment for anal cancer ?

A

Radical chemoradiotherapy

141
Q

What affect does adrenaline have on renin secretion?

A

It stimulates its release from the juxtaglomerular cells

142
Q

Should chemotherapy be given for renal cell adenocarcinoma?

A

No - chemotherapy is not effective in patients with renal adenocarcinoma

144
Q

Compare surgical options for T1 and T2 lesions in RCC? Is adjuvant therapy used?

A

T1 lesions - partial nephrectomy

T2 lesions - radical nephrectomy

There is no benefit to adjacent therapy in patients with completely resected disease

145
Q

Is erection and ejaculation parasympathetic or sympathetic innervation?

A

Erection = parasympathetic

Ejaculation = sympathetic

“P is for Points, S is for Shoots”

146
Q

Compare the arteriovenous structures affected by Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome and Sturge-weber syndrome?

A

Sturge Weber- affects face and CNS

Klippel-Trenaunay - affects a single extremity (leg most common site, usually affects blood and lymph vessels)

147
Q

What is the name of an AV ulcer that has grown in size and become a squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Marjolin’s ulcer

Occur at site of chronic inflammation or prev injury

148
Q

Compare the bone fractured and the site of dislocation in Monteggia and Galezzi fractures ?

A

Monteggia - Ulnar # with proximal radioulnar joint dislocation

Galezzi - Radial shaft # with distal radioulnar joint dislocation

149
Q

What is aspirated from a joint in pseudogout?

A

Calcium Pyrophosphate crystals

weakly positively bifringent rhomboid shaped crystals

150
Q

How does oxygen carrying capacity of stored transfusion blood compare to fresh blood?

A

It has an increased affinity for oxygen

It has less 2,3 DPG and therefore a higher affinity for O2

151
Q

Compare Richter’s and Littre’s hernia?

A

Richter’s - part of the small bowel (usually anti mesenteric border) is strangulated within a hernia

Littre’s- hernia of a Meckel’s diverticulum

152
Q

What size of suture material is best used to repair major veins damaged in surgery?

A

5/0 Prolene

153
Q

Should biopsies be taken in suspected testicular cancer?

A

No - a biopsy runs the risk of spreading the cancer to another lymphatic field

An orchidectomy via inguinal approach should be carried out if cancer is suspected

154
Q

What is most commonly the presenting feature of MEN II genetic condition?

A

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

155
Q

Compare the approach to managing hydroceles in children and adults ?

A

Children - underlying pathology is patent processus vaginalis = inguinal approach used

Adults - scrotal approach used (Jaboulay or Lords procedure)

156
Q

Which bacteria is resistant to chlorine and therefore common in returning travellers who have been swimming in pools?

A

Giardia Lamblia

Also causes fat malabsorption, so stools float and are greasy

157
Q

What is the best investigation to assess for compression of the upper airways?

A

Flow volume loop

158
Q

Which respiratory centre is depressed by opiates ?

A

Medullary respiratory centre

159
Q

If time between onset of acute limb ischemia and surgery exceeds 6 hours, what procedure in addition to embolectomy should be considered?

A

Below knee fasciotomy

Delayed limb re perfusion increases risk of compartment syndrome

160
Q

Compare discharge from patent urachus and persistent Vitelli-intestinal duct in babies?

A

Patent urachus = urinary discharge

Persistent vitello-intestinal duct = small bowel contents discharge

161
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid?

A

Inhibition of plasmin

This prevents fibrin degradation

It is an anti-fibrinolytic

162
Q

In deceleration injuries, where is the aorta most likely to rupture with respect to the left subclavian artery?

A

Most commonly distal to the left subclavian artery

163
Q

A raised CA 125 is indicative of which cancer?

A

Ovarian cancer

164
Q

Compare which cancer is associated with the following tumour marker:
CA 125
CA 19-9
CA 15-3
CEA

A

CA 125 = ovarian
CA 19-9 = Pancreatic
CA 15-3 = Breast cancer
CEA = colorectal cancer

165
Q

Which composition of renal stones are associated with an inherited metabolic disorder?

A

Cystine stones

166
Q

Compare venous doppler and venous duplex scans?

A

Venous doppler: compressing the vessel manually to assess junctional incompetence. The simplest investigation

Venous duplex: provides info including flow, used to provide vein maps for bypass surgery. More detailed than CT angio

167
Q

If there is no improvement after 5-7 days of cons management of UC, what procedure should be done?

A

Sub total colectomy and end ileostomy

Panprocolectomy should not be carried out in unwell patients

168
Q

Which part of the colon is removed in Hartmann’s procedure?

A

The sigmoid colon is removed

The remaining part of the colon forms a colostomy

169
Q

Which vertebral level do cervical ribs most commonly arise?

A

C7

Can compress subclavian artery or present with neurological symptoms

170
Q

Which disorder is characterised by a PTEN mutation and intestinal hamartomas?

A

Cowden Disease

171
Q

Which polyposis syndrome has a mutation of the APC gene?

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis

172
Q

Name the 2 interventions considered for patents with infected pancreatic necrosis secondary to pancreatitis?

A

Either radiological drainage or surgical necrosectomy

173
Q

Compare the approach to manage hydroceles in children and men?

A

Children - ligation of patent processus vaginalis via inguinal approach

Older men - excision of hydrocele sac via scrotal approach

174
Q

Which syndrome has a mutation of the p53 tumour suppressor gene?

Which 4 malignancies are they predisposed to?

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

Sarcoma, breast Ca, brain and adrenal malignancies

High risk of developing leukaemia

175
Q

Compare the management of inguinal hernias in children and adults?

A

Children - high risk of strangulation, an inguinal herniotomy is optimal treatment

Adults - Herniorraphy (repair of abdominal wall, can use mesh).

Herniotomy = removal of the hernial sac

176
Q

Name the 2 therapies in current guidance for actively bleeding peptic ulcers?

A

Dual therapy guidelines

Adrenaline injeciton and endoscopic clipping

Following these therapies, patients should have PPI infusion

177
Q

What must be rapidly excluded in a patient presenting with painful third nerve palsy?

A

Posterior communicating artery aneurysm

178
Q

Which clotting factor is less likely to be affected in a patient with liver disease? Why?

A

Factor VIII

It is synthesised in the endothelial cells of the liver rather than the liver itself, so less prone to effects pf hepatic dysfunction

179
Q

Compare the clotting factors affected by heparin and warfarin?

A

Heparin = 2, 9, 10, 11

Warfarin = 2, 7, 9, 10

180
Q

What is a left sided varicocele a recognised presenting sign of?

What is most appropriate initial investigation?

A

Recognised sign of renal tumour occluding the renal vein

The left testicular vein drains into the renal vein

Abdominal US

181
Q

Which clothing factor does von Willebrand stabilise?

A

Factor VIII

182
Q

What are the most common organisms isolated in Fournier’s Gangrene?

A

E.Coli and bacteroides

183
Q

Name the 2 most effective ways of raising core temperature in hypothermia?

A
  1. Extracorporeal circulatory devices
  2. Warmed intra peritoneal fluid
184
Q

A defect in which function causes osteopetrosis?

A

Defective osteoclast function leads to increased bone density but defective architechture

Leads to brittle bones

185
Q

What is the difference between schistosomia mansoni and schistosomia haematobium?

A

Haematobium = urinary schistosomiasis (risk factor for squamous cell bladder ca)

Mansoni = intestinal schistomiasis

186
Q

What is the main anaesthetic risk in a patient with severe aortic stenosis?

A

They cannot increase their cardiac output if vasodilation occurs

187
Q

Which substance can be used to achieve the most accurate measurement of glomerular filtration rate?

A

Inulin

Creatinine declines with age due to reduced renal function and age

188
Q

How can cystic stump leaks following cholecystectomy be managed?

A

ECRP, sphincterotomy and stent

189
Q

Name the 3 antibodies involved in anti phospholipid syndrome?

A

Lupus anticoagulant
anti-cardiolipin
anti B2 glycoprotein

190
Q

What 3 medications should be started in a postmenopausal women with a fragility fracture?

A

Biphosphonates, calcium and vit D

191
Q

Compare direction of antegrade vs retrograde ureteric stents?

A

antegrade = pass from kidney to ureter

Retrograde = pass from bladder into ureter

192
Q

How should most insulinomas be managed?

A

Enucleation of the lesion

193
Q

What often causes diffuse parotid swelling, facial pain and facial nerve palsy?

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

It commonly infiltrates the facial nerve and may cause neuropathy

194
Q

Which vessels are kidney transplants usually anastomosed to?

A

External iliac artery and vein

195
Q

What type of epithelium is most likely to be found in Meckles diverticulum?

A

Ileal mucosa

If there is bleeding associated with it, gastric mucosa lining is more likely

196
Q

On a Congo red stain, what would be consistent with a diagnosis of amyloidosis?

A

Positive bifringence and green staining of fibres under polarised light

197
Q

Why can significant generalised oedema occur in patients with severe burns?

A

The significant burns results in loss of high molecular weight proteins, therefore reducing the capillary oncotic pressure

Therefore, fluid remains in the interstitium and will cause oedema

198
Q

What is the commonest type of fistula in ano?

A

Intersphincteric fistuals

199
Q

Describe the difference in mechanism of finasteride and tamsulosin?

A

Finasteride - stops conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone. Stops growth of prostate and reduces risk of urinary retention

Tamsulosin - alpha blocker. Relaxes smooth muscle in prostate gland and bladder neck

200
Q

In terms of HIV testing, compare the timeframes that HIV antibody test and p24 antigen test would show positive result?

A

p24 antigen test - usually positive from 1 week to 3/4 weeks after infection with HIV

HIV antibody test - most develop HIV antibodies at 4-6 weeks

201
Q

What location is a Meckels diverticulum most commonly found?

A

60cm proximal to the ileoceacal valve

202
Q

What is the mechanism of action of clopidogrel and how soon prior to surgery should it be stopped?

A

It decreases ADP induced platelet aggregation (ie - it makes platelets dysfunctional)

It persists for 120 hours following final dose so needs to be stopped 5-7 days prior to surgery

203
Q

What is a cervical rib due to?

A

It is due to an elongation of the transverse processes of the 7th cervical vertebra

204
Q

Name 2 classes of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall formation

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins

205
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines, macrolides and aminoglycosides?

A

Inhibit protein synthesis

206
Q

What is the main aim of fluid resuscitation in burns patients?

When is most fluid lost following a burn injury?

A

Prevent the burn deepening

Most fluid is lost 24 hours following burn injury

207
Q

Why is the electrical burn infusion protocol different from other burn protocols?

What is the fluid infusion protocol for electrical burns?

A

Electrical burns have greater risk of rhabdo

Aim for urine output 100ml/hr
Use Hartmans at 4ml/kg/%total body surface

208
Q

Which ions are responsible for rapid depolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential?

A

RAPID sodium influx

209
Q

Which thyroid malignancy is synonymous with haematological spread resulting in lung lesions?

A

Follicular thyroid cancer

Papillary thyroid cancer tends to spread via lymphatics, and will go to neck nodes first

210
Q

Where does vasopressin (ADH) work, and what is its action?

A

Works at distal tubule and collecting ducts of the kidneys

Recruits more aquaporin channels to increase permeability of distal tubule, resulting in more water uptake

211
Q

Which type of brain infarct is associated with isolated hemisensory loss or hemiparesis?

A

Lacunar infarct

212
Q

Name the 3 features seen in a Total Anterior Circulation Infarct (TACI)?

A

Hemiparesis/Hemisensory loss
Homonymous hemianopia
Higher cognitive disfunction (Dysphasia)

213
Q

Compare the presentation of Total anterior circulation with partial anterior circulation infarct?

A

Partial anterior infarct will present with 2/3 of TACI symptoms

Ie - hemisensory/hemiplagia, homonymous hemianopia, higher cognitive dysfunction (dysphasia)

214
Q

What is the cell of origin of almost all pancreatic carcinomas?

A

The ductular epithelium

Over 90% of pancreatic carcinomas are adenocarcinomas, therefore are ductular epithelium in origin

215
Q

Which cell type provides the greatest contribution to complement protein and glycoprotein production?

A

Hepatocytes

Most soluble proteins are synthesised by the liver

216
Q

Which thyroid cancer may metastasise to bone?

A

Follicular carcinoma of thyroid

Haematological spread, possibly to bone

217
Q

Why may medullary thyroid cancer be associated with hypertension and a family history?

A

In medullary carcinoma, pheochromocytoma may also be present (part of MEN disorder, causing hypertension)

Medullary carcinoma may be inherited in AD fashion

218
Q

Name the 3 features of an addisonian crisis?

How is it treated?

A

Hyponatremia
Hypoglycemia
Hyperkalemia

100mg IV hydrocortisone, 6 hourly until patient stable

219
Q

Which thyroid cancer is associated with a fluctuant pulsatile mass on the forehead?

They also have a positive Berry’s sign…?

A

Follicular thyroid cancer

Berry’s sign = absent carotid pulse due to malignant thyromegaly

220
Q

Which disease process may result in development of Aschoff-Rokitansky sinuses?

A

Recurrent, chronic cholecystitis

These sinuses are a result of hyperplasia and herniation of epithelial cells through fibromuscular layer of gallbladder wall

221
Q

Name the 4 features seen in MEN IIB?

A

Marfanoid appearance
Medullary thyroid cancer
Phaeochromocytoma
Mucosal neuroma

222
Q

In the coagulation cascade, which pathway needs tissue factor released by damaged tissue?

A

The extrinsic pathway

It is the main pathway

223
Q

Compare the clotting factors involved in the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway?

A

Intrinsic = factors 8,9,11,12

Extrinsic = factor 7

224
Q

Which test is best for initial assessment of recurrence of follicular carcinoma of the thyroid?

A

Elevated serum thyroglobulin

225
Q

When would an axillo-bifemoral bypass graft be favoured over an aorto-bifemoral bypass graft?

A

In patients with major co-morbidities

Axillo-bifemoral graft isn’t as major an operation but doesn’t have as good long term patency rates

226
Q

What is the first line management for ureteric stones with diameter of less than 10mm?

A

Extra corporeal shock wave lithotripsy

If this is unsuccessful, then consider ureteroscopy

227
Q

What size do renal stones for percutaneous nephrolithotomy to be considered 1st line management?

A

> 20mm or a staghorn calculi

228
Q

In terms of lymphoedema, compare Meiges disease and Milroy’s disease?

A

Milroy’s disease is present from birth (is congenital)

Meige’s disease develops after birth

229
Q

What is the most common congenital heart disease to present with cyanosis in a neonate who has just been delivered?

A

Transposition of the great vessels- most common at birth

Tetralogy of Fallot is most common overall

230
Q

What is the most common acyanotic congenital heart disease?

A

Ventricular septal defect (account for 30% of congenital heart disease)

231
Q

What disease process are Reed Steenberg cells synonymous with?

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

232
Q

Name the 3 B symptoms seen in Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

10% weight loss, fever, night sweats

233
Q

Which artery is prone to damage in an extra dural haematoma?

A

Middle meningeal artery

234
Q

Appearances of melanosis coli on colonoscopy is indicative of what?

A

Laxative abuse

Consists of lipofuschin laden macrophages that appear brown

235
Q

Compare what Stensens and Whartons duct drains?

A

Stensen’s duct - drains parotid gland

Wharton’s duct - drains the submandibular gland

236
Q

What is the eponymous name for a distal radius fracture (Colles/Smith) with associated radoiocarpal dislocation?

A

Barton’s fracture

The radiocarpal dislocation is a defining feature and differentiates it from Colles/Smith fracture

237
Q

Compare Galeazzi and Monteggia fractures?

A

Galeazzi - “Glasgow Rangers” - Radial shaft fracture with distal radioulnar joint dislocation

Monteggia - Ulnar shaft fracture with proximal radioulnar joint dislocation

238
Q

How to remember the fracture site and where radioulnar dislocation occurs in Galeazzi fracture?

A

Galeazzi fracture = Glasgow Rangers

Radial shaft fracture with distal radioulnar joint dislocation

Distal because rangers are far down the table

239
Q

What hormone is secreted by zona glomerulosa?

A

Aldosterone

240
Q

What hormone is secreted by the zona fasiculata?

A

Glococorticoids

241
Q

What hormone is secreted by zona reticularis?

242
Q

Describe in more depth how achalasia is a failure of muscle relaxation rather than a stricture?

A

Achalasia is due to degeneration of the ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus in oesophageal wall

This leads to failure of the LOS to relax and a loss of peristalsis of the distal oesophagus

243
Q

În orchidectomy for malignancy, what is the route taken? Inguinal or scrotal approach?

A

Inguinal approach

There is no role for orchidectomy via scrotal approach

244
Q

Which cancer is associated with Epstein Barr virus?

A

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Rare in most parts of the world other than southern China

245
Q

What spinal tract is specifically affected by syringomyelia? How does this present ?

A

Syringomyelia specifically affects the spinothalamic tracts

Will result in a loss of pain and temperature sensation

246
Q

What causes adrenaline to be released from the adrenal medulla?

A

Increased sympathetic discharge from preganglionic sympathetic fibres of the splanchnic nerves

247
Q

Compare the most common adverse event seen during transfusion of PRCs and FFP?

A

PRCs = pyrexia

FFP = urticaria

248
Q

Where in the gut is the main site of occult blood loss and IDA?

A

Right colon

249
Q

Describe the calcium, phosphate and alk phos levels in someone with osteomalacia?

A

Calcium and phosphate LOW

Alk phos HIGH

250
Q

What is the usual presenting feature of renal artery thrombosis in a renal transplant patient?

A

Presenting feature is sudden cessation of urine output

Rare, but usually occurs early post transplant

251
Q

What is released from the sympathetic nervous system to stimulate the adrenal medulla?

A

Acetyl Choline

This stimulates adrenaline release

252
Q

Which murmur is most associated with rheumatic fever?

A

Mitral valve stenosis

253
Q

Which organism is most likely to cause a staghorn calculus?

A

Proteus Mirabilis

254
Q

How are rectal cancers managed initially?

A

Chemoradiotherapy it T4 disease

if T1,2,3/N0 disease, should proceed straight to surgery

255
Q

Which liver lesion has strong links to the oral contraceptive pill?

A

Liver cell adenomas

90% of patients with liver cell adenomas have used the OCP in the past

256
Q

Which type of congenital hernia is associated with lung hypoplasia? Which lung is most commonly affected?

A

Bochdalek congenital hernia

85% of cases located in left hemidiaphragm, so Left lung most commonly affected

257
Q

Compare the anatomical structures that may herniate in Bochdalek and Morgagni hernias?

A

Bochdalek = stomach may herniate

Morgagni = transverse colon may herniate

258
Q

Compare treatment options for Bochdalek and Morgagni hernia?

A

Bochdalek = direct anatomical apposition or placement of mesh

Morgagni = direct anatomical repair

259
Q

Which monoclonal antibody is used to treat KIT positive gastrointestinal stroll tumours?

260
Q

First line treatment of meconium ileus in newborns?

A

N-acetyl cysteine or gastrograffin enemas

261
Q

Name the site that a spigelian hernia occurs?

A

Lateral to the rectus muscle at the level of the arcuate line

Abdominal contents pushes through the rectus abdominus and internal oblique aponeurosis

262
Q

What is a Meckel’s diverticulum lined by?

A

If asymptomatic, likely to be lined with ileal cells

If bleeding, likely to be lined with ectopic gastric mucosal tissue and produce bleeding

Can cause IDA

263
Q

What does histology of classical seminoma often show?

A

Lymphocytic stromal infiltrate

Seminoma is the commonest type of testicular cancer and more common in 30-40 y/os

Teratoma more common in 20-30 y/os

264
Q

What is the best course of action for undisplaced fractures of the proximal pole of the scaphoid?

A

Surgical Fixation

Proximal pole fractures should be fixed as non-union rates of up to 34% can be seen when cast immobilisation alone is attempted

265
Q

In which thyroid condition is intense lymphocytic infiltrate with acinar destruction and fibrosis seen?

A

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

266
Q

How are asymptomatic hepatocellular adenomas in males managed?

A

They are usually excised - they have greater risk of malignant transformation, especially in males

267
Q

Compare the sites affected by malignancy in FAP and Lynch syndrome?

A

FAP- usually affects colon and rectim

Lynch syndrome - malignancy usually affects right side of the colon
(Lynch syndrome = mutation of mismatch repair genes)

268
Q

What metabolic disturbance can occur if excessive amounts of 0.9%NaCl is administered?

A

Hyperchloraemic acidosis

269
Q

Compare management of a spontaneous small pneumothorax and one occurring due to trauma?

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax - observation

Traumatic pneumothorax - chest drain insertion. They are more likely to progress to tension pneumothorax

270
Q

What calculation can be used to establish the MAP?

A

MAP = diastolic + 0.333(systolic - diastolic)

271
Q

How can cerebral perfusion pressure be calculated?

A

Cerebral perfusion pressure = MAP - ICP

272
Q

How is splenic vein thrombosis diagnosed and managed?

A

Diagnosed = CT angiogram

Managed = splenectomy

Thrombosis of the splenic vein can complicate pancreatitis

273
Q

What medication is first line for thrombolysis in a patient with a life threatening, massive PE?

A

Alteplase 50mg bolus is recommended 1st line for thrombolysis

274
Q

Which type of malignant mass is associated with stag horn calculus?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

SCC of the kidney usually arise in an area of chronic inflammation, such as stag horn calculus

275
Q

What is the single most important prognostic factor in breast cancer?

A

Nodal status

It serves as a marker of tumour metastatic potential

276
Q

Damage to which nerve during rectal surgery can cause impotence?

A

Nervi Erigentes

These autonomic nerves lie near the seminal vesicles and can be compromised by diathermy or radiotherapy

277
Q

Which nerve is damaged if patient has vertical diplopia and unable to look down and in?

A

Trochlear nerve

Has longest intracranial course

278
Q

How should oesophageal SCC be managed?

A

Radical chemoradiotherapy

279
Q

How should middle and distal oesophageal tumours be managed?

A

Ivor lewis oesophagectomy

280
Q

Which part of the GIT is most potassium excreted from?

A

The rectum

This is why patients with villous adenoma of the rectum can end up having hypokalaemia

281
Q

Compare the innervations in voice production?

Ie- innervation of cricothyroid muscle and the intrinsic larynx muscles?

A

Cricothyroid muscle = Superior laryngeal nerve

Intrinsic larynx muscles = Recurrent laryngeal nerve

282
Q

Why must erythrocytes produce ATP from anaerobic respiration?

A

They lack mitochondria

283
Q

Which breast cancer shows lymphocytic infiltrate on histology?

A

Medullary breast cancer

284
Q

How is APTT and prothrombin time affected in haemophilia A?

A

APTT prolonged

Prothrombin time unaffected

There is reduced levels of factor 8:C in haemophilia A

285
Q

What is the most appropriate management for junctional (type 2) oesophageal tumours where limited oesophageal resection is required?

A

Transhiatal oesophagectomy

286
Q

What is most appropriate management for middle and distal oesophageal tumours?

A

Ivor Lewis oesophagectomy

If the adenocarcinoma is in distal oesophagus and is classed as Tis or T1 disease, an endoscopic mucosal resection would be more appropriate

287
Q

What is the commonest cause of an amoebic liver abscess?

A

Entamoeba Histolytica

288
Q

What is the follow up plan for a patient who has high risk polyp findings on colonoscopy?

A

One off surveillance colonoscopy at 3 years

High risk findings = more than 2 premalignant polyps including >1 advanced colorectal polyp or more than 5 premalignant polyps

289
Q

Administration of what agent is most useful in managing bleeding from the commonest type of vWB?

(clue- its not a clotting factor)

A

Desmopressin/tranexamic acid

It would have a vasoconstrictor approach, which is likely to be of brief duration but effective enough

290
Q

What structure is best to be used for coronary artery bypass?

A

Internal mammary artery

291
Q

Jaundice will affect which clothing factors?

Which part of a coag screen will reflect this best?

A

Jaundice affects vit K dependant clotting factors

ie - clotting factors 2, 7, 9, 10

Best reflected by Prothrombin time

292
Q

What is bleeding time a measure of?

A

Platelet function

293
Q

If there is an implant related concern in breast surgery, what is the imaging modality of choice?

A

MRI

Also the imaging of choice if there are concerns about ?malignant changes

294
Q

Where are the reticulo-endothelial cells concentrated within the spleen?

A

Within the white pulp

The reticulo-endothelial cells are concerned with the immune functions of the spleen

295
Q

What is the purpose of the red pulp in the spleen?

A

It contains fine erythrocyte fenestrations, which the blood flows over

The fenestrations trap and destroy any old or deformed erythrocytes