Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

haematology > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 types of blood cells

A

Red blood cells
White blood cells
Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Haematopoiesis

A

The production of blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Haematopoiesis in the embryo

A

Yolk sac , then liver , then marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When do blood cells start to be produced in the spleen in an embryo

A

3rd - 7th month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where are blood cells produced at birth

A

Mostly bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where are blood cells produced during childhood

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where are blood cells produced in an adult

A

Restricted to skull, ribs, sternum, pelvis and proximal ends of the femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

State the 3 types of white blood cells

A

Granulocytes
Monocytes
Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the 3 types of granulocytes

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do neutrophils look like

A

Segmented nucleus , stains neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

4 ways to assess haemopoeisis

A
  • peripheral blood (blood count and film)
  • bone marrow
  • immunophenotyping
  • other signs e.g. splenomegaly, hepatomegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is bone marrow usually taken from

A

Posterior iliac crests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which 2 key organelles do red blood cells not have

A

Nucleus and mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What maintains water balance in red blood cells

A

Sodium-potassium pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Structure of haemoglobin in most adults

A

2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Structure of foetal haemoglobin

A

2 alpha chains and 2 gamma chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Structure of haemoglobin in HbA2

A

2 alpha chains 2 delta chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many oxygen molecules can bind to one haemoglobin

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

State 3 functions of haemoglobin

A
  • delivers oxygen to tissues
  • acts as a buffer for H+
  • CO2 transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Erythropoiesis

A

Red cell production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where does erythropoesis occur

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What regulates erythropoiesis

A

Erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is erythropoietin found

A

In the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

On which chromosome are alpha like genes found

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many alpha genes do we have per chromosome

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

On which chromosome are beta like genes found

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where does RBC destruction usually occur

A

Spleen and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the haem group broke down to

A

Iron and bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is metHb

A

Hb with Fe3+ instead of Fe2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Embden-Meyerhof pathway

A

Red blood cells are able to generate ATP and NADH through the glycolysis pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can cause an oxygen dissociation curve to the right (3)

A

2,3-DPG
Low pH
Increased temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the main role of iron in the body

A

Crucial for reversible oxygen binding to haemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Name 3 biological components in which iron is present

A
  • haemoglobin
  • myoglobin
  • enzymes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a potential risk associated with iron due to its chemical reactivity

A

Can lead to oxidative stress and the production of free radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where does iron absorption occur

A

Duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What enhances iron absorption (3)

A
  • haem vs non-haem iron
  • ascorbic acid
  • alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What inhibits iron absorption (3)

A
  • calcium
  • tannins (e.g. tea)
  • phylates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where are phylates found in the diet

A

Cereals, bran, nuts, seeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the main regulator of iron uptake

A

Hepcidin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When and where is hepcidin produced

A

In the liver in response to increase iron load and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Role of ferroportin

A

Facilitates iron export from the duodenal enterocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What transports iron around the body

A

Trasferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Role of hepcidin

A

Binds to ferroportin and causes its degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Where are lots of transferrin receptors found

A

Erythrocytes marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does low ferritin suggest

A

Iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How do we assess functional iron

A

Haemoglobin concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How do we assess transport iron

A

% saturation of transferrin with iron

48
Q

How do we assess storage iron

A

Serum ferritin

49
Q

Haemostasis

A

The arrest of bleeding and the maintenance of vascular patency

50
Q

State the 4 components of a normal haemostatic system

A
  • formation of a platelet plug
  • formation of fibrin clot
  • fibrinolysis
  • anticoagulant defences
51
Q

Primary haemostasis

A

Formation of a platelet plug

52
Q

Secondary haemostasis

A

Formation of a fibrin clot

53
Q

How and where are platelets formed

A

In the marrow by budding from Megakaryocytes

54
Q

Formation of a platelet plug (4)

A
  • endothelial wall damage
  • exposes collagen and releases von willebrand factor
  • secretion of chemicals from the platelets
  • aggregation at the site of injury
55
Q

State the 3 causes of failure of the platelet plug formation

A
  • vascular
  • platelets
  • Von Willebrand factor deficiency
56
Q

Vascular causes of failure of the platelet plug formation (3)

A
  • Marfans
  • vasculitis
  • vit C deficiency
57
Q

Consequences of failure of platelet plug formation (4)

A
  • easy bruising
  • mucosal bleeding
  • intercranial haemorrhage
  • retinal haemorrhage
58
Q

Screening test for primary haemostasis

A

Platelet count

59
Q

Causes of failure of fibrin clot formation (4)

A
  • single clotting factor deficiency
  • liver failure
  • vit K deficiency
  • increased fibrinolysis
60
Q

Test which identifies failure in the extrinsic pathway

A

prothrombin time

61
Q

Test which identifies failure in the intrinsic pathway

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time

62
Q

Lifespan of a RBC

A

120 days

63
Q

Lifespan of a neutrophil

A

7-8 hours

64
Q

Lifespan of platelets

A

7-10 days

65
Q

What are blasts

A

Nucleated precursor cells

66
Q

Megakaryocytes

A

Platelet precursor

67
Q

Myelocytes

A

Nucleated precursor between neutrophils and myeloblasts

68
Q

Reticulocyte

A

Immature red blood cells

69
Q

What is proliferation

A

Increase in numbers

70
Q

Where do haemopoietic stem cells originate embryonically

A

Mesoderm

71
Q

How are mature blood cells released from the bone marrow

A

Pass through fenestrations in endothelial cells of the sinusoids

72
Q

What is the release of RBCs from the marrow associated with

A

Sinusoidal dilation and increased blood flow

73
Q

Difference between red and yellow marrow

A

Red is active, yellow is fatty and inactive

74
Q

What regulates neutrophil precursor maturation

A

G-CSF

75
Q

What is the role of thrombopoietin

A

Regulates the growth and development of Megakaryocytes from their precursors

76
Q

What are lymphatic channels

A

Blind ended vessels that permit passive unidirectional flow of lymphatic fluid

77
Q

Role of the lymphatic system

A

Prevents oedema by returning fluid from extracellular connective tissues to the circulation

78
Q

What are the 3 important regions of a lymph node

A

Cortex
Paracortex
Medulla

79
Q

Cortex of a lymph node

A

Nodules of B lymphocytes arranged in follicles

80
Q

Paracortex of a lymph node

A

Mainly T lymphocytes
Forms interfollicular tissue which surrounds follicles and extends out and merges with medulla

81
Q

Medulla of a lymph node

A

Contains cords and sinuses draining into the hilum

82
Q

What happens in the dark zone of a lymphoid follicle

A

Clonal expansion and somatic hypermutation

83
Q

What happens in somatic hypermutation

A

The DNA of B cells undergoes random mutations leading to changes in the antibody genes

84
Q

What happens in the light zone of a lymphoid follicle

A

B cell selection and affinity maturation

85
Q

How do B cells move from the dark zone to light zone

A

Increased antigen affinity

86
Q

What happens to positively selected B cells in the light zone

A

Re enter dark zone and keep proliferating
Differentiate into plasma cells
Differentiate into memory B cells

87
Q

Role of follicular dendritic cells (3)

A

provide architectural support to Germinal centre
Facilitates debris removal through secreting bridging factor
Role in antigen capture for memory B cells

88
Q

What is a centroblast

A

Proliferating B cell in the dark zone

89
Q

What is a Centrocyte

A

Differentiated centroblast
B cell in the light zone

90
Q

Flow of lymphatics (5)

A

Afferent channels drain lymph through the capsule into the subscapular sinus
Percolates through the node
Enters medullary cords and sinuses
Sinuses merge at hilum and form efferent lymphatics
Lymph rejoins extranodal circulation

91
Q

Troiseries sign

A

Manifestation of metastasis from an abdominal malignancy

92
Q

Sentinel lymph node

A

The first lymph node to which cancer cells are likely to spread

93
Q

2 characteristics of malignant haemopoiesis

A

Increased numbers of abnormal and dysfunctional cells
Loss of normal activity

94
Q

What are the causes of abnormal haemopoiesis in malignancy

A

Increased proliferation in the absence of a stimulus
Lack of differentiation
Lack of maturation

95
Q

Molecular pathogenesis in acute leukaemia

A

Proliferation of abnormal progenitors with a block in differentiation and maturation

96
Q

Molecular pathogenesis in chronic myeloproliferative disorders

A

Proliferation of abnormal progenitors but no differentiation or maturation block

97
Q

What are clones

A

Population of cells derived from a single parent cell

98
Q

What are the 3 main ways we can class haematological malignancies

A

Lineage
Developmental stage
Anatomical site involved

99
Q

2 different types of lineage in haematological malignancy

A

Myeloid or lymphoid

100
Q

Naming haematological malignancies based on developmental stage

A

Blastic is primitive
Cytic is more mature

101
Q

What is the exception to naming haematological malignancies based in anatomical site involved

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Can involve both blood and lymph nodes

102
Q

Features of histological aggression in haematological malignancies

A

Large cells with high nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio
Prominent nucleoli
Rapid proliferation

103
Q

Features of clinical aggression in haematological malignancies

A

Rapid progression of symptoms

104
Q

What are immunoglobulins

A

Antibodies produced by b cells and plasma cells

105
Q

What are immunoglobulins made from

A

Proteins made from 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains

106
Q

What determines the class of antibody produced

A

The heavy chain type

107
Q

How can immunoglobulins be used

A

Can be expressed on B cell surfaces
Released into the blood stream as antibodies by plasma cells

108
Q

Role of B cells

A

Antibody production
Act as antigen presenting cells

109
Q

Role of plasma cells

A

Produce large quantities of antibody

110
Q

Polyclonal increase in immunoglobulins

A

Ig produced by many different plasma cell clones

111
Q

What does polyclonal increase in immunoglobulins indicate

A

A reactive cause

112
Q

Monoclonal increase in immunoglobulins

A

All derived from clonal expansion of a single B cell

113
Q

What are the 2 ways we can detect immunoglobulins

A

Serum electrophoresis
Serum immunofixation

114
Q

Bence jones protein

A

Immunoglobulins light chains present in myeloma

115
Q

How do we detect Bence jones protein

A

Urine electrophoresis and immunofixation

haematology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions