Physiofuckology 2 Flashcards by ahmad elmowag | Brainscape

Q

what are the 2 ways to regulate a metabolic pathway and what are the features of each

A

Gene regulation - slower, but allows way more product to be formed
End product feedback inhibition - quicker
if first product is not used then it inhibits the first enzyme , slowing down the whole pathway

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Q

difference between magnetic resonance and diffusion weighted magnetic resonance imaging

A

magnetic resonance - used for diagnosing disease

diffusion weighted magnetic resonance - used for identifying connections

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Q

What do the CNS and PNS include

A

CNS - spinal cord, brain

PNS - spinal nerves, cranial nerves, ganglia

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Q

name the myelinating cells of the CNS/PNS and which is only found in the PNS

A

astrocyte
oligodendrocyte
microglia
epyndemal cells
only PNS - schwann cells

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Q

difference between white and gray matter

A

white - axons reside in white matter

gray - cell bodies reside in gray matter

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Q

what are the 4 brain divisions

A

cerebrum
diencephalon
cerebellum
brain stem

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Q

what are the divisions of the cerebrum

A

frontal lobe
temporal lobe
parietal lobe
occipital lobe

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Q

what is a sulci

A

the infoldings of the cerebrum that form valleys between gyri

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Q

what is a gyri

A

ridges of the unfolded cerebral cortex

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Q

in the cerebrum, which domain is responsible for what

A

frontal lobe - motor
parietal lobe - sensory
temporal lobe - auditory
occipital lobe - vision

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Q

what is each hemisphere of the brain dominant in

A

left - language and math skills

right - visual-spatial skills and creativity

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Q

what is homunculus

A

body is represented in an upside-down fashion in the sensory and motor cortices

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Q

what is located in the diencephalon and what are their functions

A

thalamus - major relay station for sensory information entering the cortex from the brain stem and spinal cord

hypothalamus - autonomic control centre - homeostasis

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Q

function of the brain stem

A

attaches spinal cord and cerebellum to the cerebrum

relay impulses between the cerebrum/diencephalon

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Q

division of the brain stem and their functions

A

midbrain - eye movement, reflexes
pons - major relay area between cerebrum and cerebellum
medulla oblongata - control centre for many involuntary functions

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Q

what protects the spinal cord

A

bone,meninges and CSF

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Q

name the protective tissue layers and their features

A

dura - strongest, usually in contact with bone
arachnoid - adhered closely to dura, web-like in appearance
pia - deepest layer, in direct contact with CNS tissue

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Q

what is CSF and what produces it and where is it located

A

cerebrospinal fluid - clear cell-free fluid
produced by the choroid plexus
located in the subarachnoid space

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Q

what is the BBB composed of, and what does it allow to pass through it

A

blood-brain barrier is composed of endothelial cells and astrocytes
allows O2, CO2, and lipid soluble molecules (hormones)
prevents free diffusion of molecules larger than 500 daltons

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Q

what divisions are in the motor system

A

visceral motor division

somatic motor division

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Q

difference between afferent and efferent

A

afferent - carries info into the CNS

efferent - carries info away from the CNS

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Q

difference between somatic and visceral

A

somatic - refers to the body wall and limbs

visceral - relates to internal organs

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Q

what division of the nervous system controls the visceral aspects of the body

A

ANS - autonomous nervous system

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Q

the visceral motor system can be divided into what?

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

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Q

difference between a myotome and dermatome

A

myotome - provide sensory motor supply to an adjacent muscle mass
dermatome - cutaneous supply to an area of skin

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Q

steps of the reflex arc

A

receptor, sensory neuron, integration centre, motor neuron, effector

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Q

what does the spinal reflex show

A

somatic spinal reflex shows information on the integrity of the reflex arc and the level of excitability by the spinal cord

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Q

what is the resting membrane potential of a neuron

A

-70mV

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Q

what is the membrane potential of a neuron at step 1 of a membrane potential wave

A

-70mV - resting potential

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Q

what happens in step 2 of an action potential

A

membrane is passively depolarised

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Q

step 3 of action potential wave

A

voltage-gated Na+ channels open

Na+ depolarises the membrane

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Q

step 4 of action potential wave

A

positive feedback loop of more Na+ that enters causing more voltage-gated Na+ channels to open
rapid depolarisation

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Q

step 5 of action potential wave

A

peak depolarisation is reached
Na+ channels begin to close
K+ channels begin to open
repolarisation begins

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Q

step 6 of action potential wave

A

Na+ channels closed
Ka+ channels open
rapid repolarisation back to resting membrane potential

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Q

step 7 of action potential wave

A

repolarisation undershoots the resting value

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Q

final step of action potential wave

A

Na+ channels de-inactivate
K+ channels close
returned back to resting potential

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Q

what is the absolute refractory period

A

right after the spike of depolarisation, the membrane is not excitable because the Na+ channels are closed

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Q

why are only a few ions required to activate an action potential

A

because the lipids in the membrane are a capacitor which store electrical charge

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Q

what does Na+/K+ ATPase do

A

pumps out 3 Na+ ions for every 2 K+ ions pumped in

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Q

function of ouabain

A

blocks Na+/K+ ATPase

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Q

why when a neuron is at rest does it have a high energy state

A

because at rest the Na+ are not at equilibrium

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Q

resting membrane potential is largely determined by what

A

the selective permeability of the membrane to K+ ions, mainly

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Q

what are transposable elements

A

mobile DNA elements that translocate from one part of the genome to another

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Q

what are the 2 major classes of transposable elements

A

class I - retrotransposons
class II - DNA transpososns

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Q

what is a titin filament

A

elastic filaments that run along the core of myosin and anchor it to the Z-line

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Q

what are the thin/thick filaments

A

thin - F-actin

thick - myosin

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Q

where is mitochondria mainly located and why

A

I band

close to the myosin and actin filaments

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Q

what is the structure of myosin

A

a dimer of 2 heads with intertwined tails

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Q

how does Ca2+ allow the myosin head to bind to the actin binding site

A

Ca2+ binds to the troponin which will cause the tropomyosin to move off the binding site
allows myosin head to bind to it

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Q

what is the connective tissue in smooth muscle called

A

endomysium

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Q

what releases the Ca2+ ions in a smooth muscle cell

A

calveole

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Q

function of Ca2+ activated calmodulin

A

activates myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)

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Q

how does phosphorylated MLCK allow myosin bind to actin

A

phosphorylated MLCK activates myosin ATPase

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Q

what do latch-bridges allow

A

allow for smooth muscle cell to maintain contraction even when Ca2+ is removed and myosin kinase is inactivated

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Q

what is a varicosity

A

varicosities are swollen regions found on an autonomic neuron which lines multiple smooth muscle cells
they contain vesicles containing neurotransmitters which are released when an action potential passes the varicosity

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Q

visceral muscle is connected by what and why

A

gap junctions

the muscle contracts as a single unit

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Q

what is the stress-relaxation response in visceral muscle

A

when a hollow organ is filled, the stretching induces a contraction in the visceral tissue
immediately followed by relaxation to prevent all contents from being expelled prematurely

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Q

what are multi-unit smooth muscle cells and where are they located

A

don’t contain gap junctions, electrical impulses are limited to the originally stimulated cell
large blood vessels
respiratory airways
eyes

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Q

function of intercalated disks

A

gap-junctions which allow the spread of excitation

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Q

what is end-diastolic volume

A

the amount of blood that fills the ventricles from venous return
approx. 110-120ml

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Q

what is the ejection fraction

A

the fraction of end-diastolic volume ejected from the ventricles
approx. 60%

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Q

what is end-systolic volume normally and for a strong contraction

A

amount of blood left in the ventricle after systole
normal - 40-50ml
stronger - 10-20ml

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Q

equation for cardiac output

A

CO = (EDV - ESV) x HR

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Q

what are the global controls for heart regulation

A

autonomous nervous system

Starling’s law

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Q

what are the local controls for heart regulation

A

nitric oxide

tissue pH

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Q

what causes an increase in K+ efflux and decreased Ca+ influx in the heart

A

parasympathetic neurones (ACh) signal to the muscarinic receptors on autorhythmic cells

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Q

what causes increased Na+ and increased Ca+ influx in the heart

A

sympathetic neurones (NAdr) signal to B1 receptors on autorhythmic cells

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Q

pressure difference / total peripheral resistance = ?

A

cardiac output

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Q

function of a sphincter

A

guard different sections and control movement through the digestive tract

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Q

name the 4 layers of the gastrointestinal tract

A

mucosa
sub mucosa
smooth muscle
serosa

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Q

what does the mucosa contain in the GI tract

A

transporting epithelial cells
connective tissue
nerve fibres
blood vessels

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Q

what does the submucosal contain

A

the submucosal plexis

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Q

features of smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract

A

important for lumen contraction

contains myenteric plexus

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Q

name the accessory organs of the digestive system

A

salivary glands
pancreas
liver
gall bladder

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Q

what are phasal contraction and what cells do they apply to in the digestive system

A

produce slow wave potentials, cycle of relax-contract

interstitial cells of cajal

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Q

what are tonic contractions and what cells do they apply to in the digestive system

A

long term contractions

sphincter cells

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Q

function of the submucosal plexus

A

contains sensory neurones that receives signals from the lumen and control secretion

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Q

function of the myenteric plexus

A

controls motitlity

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Q

function of smooth muscle in tracheobronchial tree

A

increase resistance

reduce dead space

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Q

function of cartilage in the tracheobronchial tree

A

increase dead space

reduce resistance

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Q

what causes the saline layer in the tracheobronchial tree

A

pseudostratified mucociliary epithelium

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Q

what is the Hz that the specialised cilia beat at

A

20Hz

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Q

how many alveoli are contained in 2 lungs

A

300 million

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Q

what surrounds the lung in the thoracic cavity

A

pleural fluid

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Q

how is a negative pressure between the visceral surface of the lung pleura and the parietal pleura of the thoracic cavity achieved

A

continual transfer of fluid into the lymphatic channels

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Q

what is pleural pressure

A

pressure in the intrapleural space

always slightly negative

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Q

what is alveolar pressure

A

pressure inside the alveoli

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Q

what is transpulmonary pressure

A

alveolar pressure - pleural pressure = transpulmonary pressure

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Q

what is the pleural pressure at the beginning of inspiration

A

-5cm

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Q

what is the pleural pressure at maximal inspiration

A

-7.5 cm of water

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Q

what is pneumothorax

A

when the lung collapses to its unstretched size

Q

what does a lower compliance mean and what diseases cause this

A

lungs and thorax are harder to expand
pulmonary fibrosis
pulmonary oedama

Q

how long does it take for blood to equilibrate with gases in a normal lung

A

0.2 seconds

Q

how does increasing blood flow (perfusion, Q) effect O2 levels in the blood

A

has no effect

Q

what can blood in lungs with oedema/fibrosis not do

A

reach full O2 saturation

full CO2 release

Q

effects of increasing pulmonary arterial blood pressure

A

increases blood flow speed through capillaries from 0.8 to 0.25 seconds
opens collapsed vessels in the lung, increasing overall alveolar perfusion

Q

what is the pulmonary/systemic capillary pressure

A

pulmonary capillary pressure - 7mmHg

systemic capillary pressure - 25mmHg

Q

what are the 2 regulatory factors that determine O2/CO2 transfer between alveolus and tissue

A

rate of alveolar ventilation, V

blood flow, Q

Q

not all alveoli are equally ventilated, where is V and Q higher and lower in the lungs

A

upper lung - V is higher, Q is lower

lower lung - V is lower, Q is higher

Q

what is the ventilation perfusion ratio trying to achieve

A

balance between alveolar blood flow and alveolar ventilation

Q

what is hypoxic vasoconstriction and why is it useful

A

when the pO2 drops in alveoli decreases, there is a decrease in blood flow to that alveoli
allows more blood to be directed towards alveoli with higher pO2

Q

how does hypoxic vasoconstriction work

A

results of O2 sensitive K+ channels in the smooth muscle cell membranes in the arterioles
when low pO2, K+ channels close, causes the cell to depolarise and contract
causes arterioles to partially close

Q

what does V/Q equal

A

0.8

Q

how does hypoxic vasoconstriction maintain the ventilation perfusion ratio

A

V/Q < 0.8 in alveoli that has low pO2 but normal blood flow
after decreased blood flow the V/Q rises to about 0.8 again
matches the blood flow to gas exchange ability to minimise dead space

Q

what is anatomical dead space

A

the volume of respiratory tract involved in conducting gas which isn’t transferring blood

Q

what is physiological dead space

A

portion of tidal volume not participating in gaseous exchange with pulmonary capillary blood

Q

what is Henry’s law

A

concentration of a gas in a liquid is determined by its partial pressure and its solubility coefficient

Q

what is the equation to Henry’s law

A

concentration dissolved = PP of gas x solubility

Q

when saturated how much O2 does 1 gram of haemoglobin carry

A

1.3mls

Q

what % oxygen is transported in haemoglobin and plasma

A

haemoglobin - 98.5%

plasma 1.5%

Q

at what partial pressure does the oxy-haemoglobin dissociation curve show that haemoglobin is fully saturated

A

80mmHg

Q

what occurs during prolonged hypoxia (2-3hours)

A

more anaerobic glycolysis occurs

1,3-diphosphoglycerate and hence 2,3-biphosphoglycerate increases in blood and hence in RBC

Q

what are the 4 factors that affect haemoglobin affinity for oxygen

A

H+ concentration (pH)
partial pressure of CO2
temperature
concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate

Q

what is the Haldane effect

A

central peptide of oxyhaemoglobin (lung) is a stronger acid than haemoglobin (tissue)

Q

how is CO2 displaced in haemoglobin

A

H+ ions react at carbamino termini (-NH3) of Hb

Q

when H+ ions react with the carbamino termini, what does the increased acidity cause

A

causes bicarbonate ions to form carbonic acid

carbonic acid dissociates into H2O and CO2 which is then released into the alveoli

Q

function of C anhydrase

A

aids in the dissociation of carbonic acid into water and carbon dioxide

Q

how is CO2 transported and the % each mode contains

A

bicarbonate ions - 70%
blood proteins - 24%
plasma - 6%

Q

how does plasma pH regulate breathing

A

a drop in plasma pH indirectly causes an increase in respiration rate to drive off CO2

Q

what does the respiratory control centre consist of and where is it located

A

several groups of neurons

located bilaterally in the medulla oblongata and pons

Q

what does the dorsal respiratory group consist of and its function

A

dorsal medulla

mainly causes inspiration

Q

constituents and function of the ventral respiratory group

A

ventrolateral medulla

modifies expiration and inspiration

Q

location and function of the pneumotaxic centre

A

dorsally in the superior pons

mainly controls rate and depth of breathing

Q

what happens when the dorsal respiratory group is separated from the lower and higher inputs

A

causes the neurons to spontaneously burst

leads to an intrinsic repetitive potential

Q

location and function of the apneustic centre

A

located in the lower pons

prevents turn off of the ramp signal

Q

what is the apneustic centre regulated by

A

vagal input - stretching of the lung

pneumotaxic centre

Q

what does the pneumotaxic centre time

A

times the switch off point of the inspiratory ramp

Q

what does a stronger signal from the pneumotaxic centre lead to

A

shorter inspiration - panting

Q

what does the ventral respiratory area contribute to during heavy exercise and where does it send signals to

A

to both inspiration and expiration

sends signals to abdominal muscles

Q

together what do the respiratory control centres have

A

basic rhythmic activity - DRC

regulatory activity - (pneumotaxic and apneustic centres)

Q

to regulate lung activity, where from and to do signals reach and via what

A

several types of receptors in the lungs
peripheral chemoreceptors
transmit sensory signals through the glossophyrangeal nerves into the respiratory centres

Q

in terms of respiratory regulation, what are cortical factors

A

voluntary respiratory control:
speech
swallowing
exercise

Q

what stimulates the central chemoreceptors

A

the low pH in the cerebrospinal fluid

Q

where is the chemo-sensitive area that detects H+ ions

A

in the medulla, lying directly under the pia

Q

what is the Herring-Breuer reflex

A

stretch receptors on the walls of the lungs which send impulses to terminate inspiration

Q

why is the Herring-Breuer reflex needed

A

prevents over expansion of the lung

co-ordinates the pneumotaxic and apneustic centres

Q

when do peripheral chemoreceptors play a role

A

only when blood oxygen levels fall too low

pO2<70mmHg or 90% Hb saturation

Q

how is dopamine released in response to low oxygen levels

A

carotid body chemoreceptors cells detect hypoxia
closes K+ channel leads to depolarisation
activated voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
results in exocytosis of dopamine

Q

in terms of hypoxia, what is the effect of dopamine

A

increases the activity of the chemosensory afferent fibre

Q

what is anaemic-hypoxia

A

low Hb content

CO poisoning - competes for Hb to form HbCO complexes

Q

what is stagnant-hypoxia

A

poor circulation
shock
congestive heart failure

Q

what is histotoxic-hypoxia

A

inhibition of oxidative processes by poisons

cyanide

Q

how does cyanide kill

A

binds with cytochrome oxidase

prevents O2 from acting as a final electron acceptor

Q

what does the cephalic reflex stimulate

A

ECL cells

parietal cells

Q

what happens when acid acts on pepsinogen

A

pepsin is formed

Q

what are zymogens

A

inactive enzymes secreted from the pancreas

Q

name the zymogens secreted from the pancreas

A

trypsinogen
chymotrypsinogen
procarboxypeptidase
procolipase
prophospholipase

Q

what activates trypsin and where is it located

A

enteropeptidase

brush border of the intestinal mucosa

Q

what enzymes does trypsin activate

A

chymotrypsin
carboxypeptidase
colipase
phospholipase

Q

function of hepatocytes and give an example of a bile acid and bile pigment

A

produce and secrete bile
bile acid - detergent
bile pigment - bilirubin

Q

difference between GLUT2 and GLUT5

A

GLUT2 - hexose transporter

GLUT5 - fructose transporter

Q

how is glucose transported from the small intestine into the blood

A

enters the intestinal mucosa from the lumen of the intestine with Na+ on SGLT
glucose then is transported in GLUT2

Q

difference between endo and exopeptidase

A

endopeptidase - digests internal bonds in an amino acid chain
exopeptidase - digests from an amino acid chain from the terminals

Q

how are amino acids absorbed into the small intestine

A

Na+ co-transport

Q

how are di/tri-peptides absorbed into the small intestine

A

H+ cotransport

Q

how are small peptides absorbed into the small intestine

A

endo/exocytosis

Q

what is required for lipid emulsion and the product of it

A

bile

micelles

Q

how is iron transported in and out of cells

A

in - DMT1

out - ferroportin

Q

what are the ways Na+ can enter a cell

A

sodium channels
Cl- cotransport
proton pumps

Q

where is primary lymphoid tissue found

A

bone marrow

thymus

Q

where is secondary lymphoid tissue found

A

spleen

lymph nodes

Q

features of innate immunity

A

immediate response
targets groups of pathogens
limited diversity of antigen receptors
no memory of pathogens

Q

features of adaptive immunity

A

gradual response - over days
targets specific pathogens
highly diverse antigen receptors
produces immunological memory

Q

what is the innate response to a virus

A

mucus
antigen presenting cells
phagocytes
cytokines

Q

name the non-specific defences

A

skin
mucous membrane
temperature
pH
chemical mediators
phagocytic
inflammatory

Q

name the non-specific chemical mediators

A

lysosomes
interferons
complement - lyses microbes
toll like receptors (TLRs)

Q

what component of inflammation causes redness, swelling and heat

A

vasodilation

Q

what is margination

A

attraction of blood monocytes and neutrophils into endothelial of venules

Q

what is extravasation

A

emigration from the vessel between the endothelial cells into the tissue

Q

what is chemotaxis

A

migration to the site of injury/invasion

Q

what do monocytes differentiate into when they leave the bloodstream

A

macrphages

Q

when is pathogen killing inititated

A

when the phagocytic vacuole fuses with the lysosome forming a phagolysosome

Q

what does a phagolysosome release

A

oxygen radicals
chlorine products
nitric oxide pathway

Q

what is NAHD oxidase and where is it located

A

a membrane bound enzyme complex

faces the inner space of phagosomes

Q

what are used to destroy lipid membrane and bacterial DNA

A

superoxide
hydrogen peroxide
chlorine
hypochlorite
hydroxyl radical

Q

what does superoxide dismutase convert super oxide into

A

hydrogen peroxide

Q

what converts hydrogen peroxide into hypochlorite

A

myeloperoxidase

Q

what are pattern recognition receptors

A

the innate immune system uses these to detect repeating patterns on the surface of the microorganism

Q

what are mannose receptors

A

binds to mannose residues on the pathogen surface

Q

what are glycan receptors

A

binds to polysaccharides on the surface of bacteria and yeast

Q

what are scavenger receptors

A

recognise complex sugars on bacteria and yeast

Q

what are toll-like receptors (TLR)

A

bind to lipopolysaccharides (LPS) on the cell wall of gram negative bacteria

Q

what are complement receptors (CR)

A

recognise complement covered structures on yeast and bacteria

Q

function of TLR

A

signals to immune cells the type of pathogen that has invaded

Q

what releases IL-12

A

macrophages

Q

what is IFNy (gamma) stimulated by

A

IL-12

Q

what does IFNy lead to

A

further macrophage activation

leads to a feedback loop which amplifies the innate immune response

Q

function of IL-1 and TNFalpha and what does this allow

A

induce endothelial cells to express adhesion molecules

allows neutrophils and monocytes to leave the bloodstream

Q

what is IL-8

A

a potent neutrophil chemoattractant

activates macrophages

Q

what interleukins increase endothelium permeability

A

TNFalpha
platelet activating factor (PAF)
PG

Q

what is a complement

A

a group of plasma and cell membrane proteins that lead to the formation of a membrane attack complex and inflammation
bitches cant take em

Q

what triggers the acute phase

A

if the reason for the inflammation is not eliminated, cytokines in the blood rise
causes a systemic acute phase

Q

what does IL-1 cause in the brain

A

fever
sleepiness
anorexia

Q

what does IL-6 do in the liver

A

stimulates hepatocytes to release many acute phase proteins

these rise by 100-1000x

Q

what is opsonisation and when does it occur

A

C-reactive proteins binds phosphocholine on pathogenic organisms and damaged cells to facilitate uptake
occurs during the acute phase

Q

function of phospholipase C

A

hydrolyses negatively charged bacterial membranes

Q

what are the cells of the adaptive immune response

A

B cells
CD4+T cells
CD8+T cells

Q

what cell is active in the humuoral immune response

A

B cell

Q

what cells are active during the cellular immune response

A

CD4+ T cells

CD8+ T cells

Q

where are T-lymphocytes derived from

A

thymus

Q

where are B lymphocytes derived from

A

bursa of fabricus in bone marrow

Q

what do B-lymphocytes produce

A

immunoglobulins - Ab antibodies

Q

what are antibodies

A

opsonins that binds proteins, sugars and sometimes lipids

Q

in terms of Daltons how heavy are the heavy and light chains of antibodies

A

heavy chain - 50-75kDa

light chain - around 25kDa

Q

what is the hinge region of an antibody composed of

A

prolines in an alpha-helical structure

Q

what does an antibody bind to

A

a specific part of the antigen called an epitope

Q

how big is the epitope

A

8-22 amino acids

Q

what is avidity

A

binding of a whole antibody ( 2 or more epitope bindings)

Q

difference between a monoclonal and polyclonal antibody

A

monoclonal - produced by 1 B-cell and recognises only one epitope
polyclonal - produced by multiple B-cells and recognises multiple

Q

what are the 5 classes of antibodies

A

IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgD

Q

what is the most abundant antibody

A

IgG

70%

Q

what are the first 3 functions of antibodies

A

1 - activates B-lymphocytes
2 - acts as opsonins to tag antigens for phagocytosis
3 - causes antigen clumping and neutralises pathogenic toxins

Q

what are function 4-6 of antibodies

A

4 - activate antibody-dependant cellular activity
5 - activate complement
6 - trigger mast cell degranulation

Q

specific function of CD4+T cells

A

immunity against intracellular bacteria and parasites
provides help to CD8+T cells
promotes humoural immune response

Q

features of CD8+T cells

A

when activated they become cytotoxic
kill virally infected cells
kill tumour cells

Q

where do all blood-borne immune cells originate from

A

hematopoietic stem cells (HSC)

Q

what is hematopoiesis

A

formation of erythrocytes (RBC)

Q

when and where does hematopoiesis occur

A

3rd to 7th months of gestation

from liver to spleen

Q

difference between live attenuated vaccines and inactivated vaccines

A

live attenuated - weakened version of the virus

inactivated - killed virus

Q

what is a recombinant vaccine

A

targeted towards a specific sub-unit of the virus

Q

what is a toxoid vaccines

A

toxin released by the virus

Q

what are the forces during glomerular filtration

A

capillary blood pressure - 55mmHg
osmotic pressure - 30mmHg
fluid pressure - 15mmHg

Q

what is GFR

A

filtration efficiency

Q

what is filtration coefficeint

A

surface area of glomerular capillaries

permeability of endothelial cells

Q

what happens in terms of arterioles in the kidney if there is high blood pressure

A

afferent arterioles constrict

efferent arterioles dilate

Q

what is the auto regulatory range for renal blood flow pressure

A

80mmHg - 180mmHg

Q

out of the substances that pass through the kidneys, which one isn’t reabsorbed

A

creatinine