PHYSIO Flashcards

1
Q

During fetal placental circulation, fetal hemoglobin (HbF) will have a higher affinity to oxygen than maternal hemoglobin (HbA) because

A. HbA does not bind to oxygen efficiently at high pO2
B. HbF has a lower affinity to 2,3-BPG
C. HbF always exists in T state throughout fetal
life
D. HbA is a tetramer while HbF is a monomer
with a lower p50 value - both are tetramers. HbA is composed of 2 alpha and 2 beta, while HbF is composed of 2 alpha and 2 gamma

A

B HbF has a lower affinity to 2,3-BPG

This greater affinity for oxygen is explained by the lack of fetal hemoglobin’s interaction with 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG or 2,3-DPG). In adult red blood cells, this substance decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. 2,3-BPG is also present in fetal red blood cells, but interacts less efficiently with fetal hemoglobin than adult hemoglobin. This is due to a change in a single amino acid (residue 143) found in the 2,3-BPG ‘binding pocket’: from histidine to serine, which gives rise to the greater oxygen affinity.

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2
Q

True about the alternate pathway of the complement system

A. Has C1 complex as the recognition unit
B. Begins with C3 for activation
C. Has C4b2a as its C3 convertase
D. Properdin inhibits the pathway

A

Begins with c3 for activation

**2019

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3
Q

True regarding omega-3 PUFAS
A. Sources include canola oil and corn oil - Omega-6
B. Shown to decrease both LDL and HDL-cholesterol
C. Help lower total cholesterol especially in hypercholesterolemic patients
D. Decrease serum triacylglycerols
Omega 3 FAs are found in oily fishes such as tuna, salmon, and mackerel Lowers LDL and TAGs
increases HDL

A

Omega 3 FAs are found in oily fishes such as tuna, salmon, and mackerel Lowers LDL and TAGs
increases HDL

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4
Q
A more negative membrane potential results in the opening of this channel
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Sodium
D. Magnesium
A

Potassium

PISO
Potassium In Sodium Out
At resting membrane potential, the cell is negatively charged at -65 mV
K is an intracellular cation (positively charged). Opening of K channels will cause voltage K to move extracellularly following its concentration gradient, leaving the cell more negative
Na is an extracellular cation. Opening of Na channels will cause Na to move intracellularly following conc. gradient, making the cell positive

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5
Q

In the skeletal muscle, cross bridge formation between actin and myosin filaments results from:

A. Acetylcholinesterase action at the synaptic junction
B. Ryanodine receptor activation leading to dihydropyridine channels opening
C. Hydrolysis of ATP at SERCA
D. Calcium binding to troponin leading to
tropomyosin activation

A

D. D. Calcium binding to troponin leading to
tropomyosin activation

In the resting state, myosin is thought to have partially hydrolyzed ATP (state a). When promotes movement of tropomyosin on the actin filament such that myosin binding sites on actin are exposed. This then allows the “energized” myosin head to bind to the underlying actin (state b). Myosin next undergoes a conformational change termed “ratchet action” that pulls the actin filament toward the center of the sarcomere (state c). Myosin releases ADP and Pi during the transition to state c. Binding of ATP to myosin decreases the affinity of myosin for actin, thereby resulting in the release of myosin from the actin filament (state d). Myosin then partially hydrolyzes the ATP, and part of the energy in the ATP is used to recock the head and return to the resting state.

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6
Q

Work of breathing is increased in a/an:

A. Asthmatic patient with adequate airway resistance
B. Preterm 32 weeks infant with increased lung elastance
C. COPD patient with minimal bronchial secretions
D. Patient with anterior neck mass not in cardiorespiratory distress

A

B

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7
Q
A 34 year old night shift nurse was stabbed on his way to work. Post-operatively, he is hypotensive for the past 6 hours despite fluid resuscitation. Continuous ischemia will compromise this liver zone & affect:
A. Detoxification
B. Bile synthesis
C. Degradation of ROS
D. Distribution of O2 and nutrients
A

B. Synthesis

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8
Q
This will lead to an increase in GFR:
A. Increased sympathetic stimulation
B. Decreased renal blood flow
C. Outflow obstruction
D. Hypoproteinemia
A

Hypoprotenemia

makes sense cos increased in GFR pag may nephrotic syndrome

Hypoprotenemia

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9
Q

The increase in cutaneous blood flow when there is an increase in the activity of sympathetic cholinergic nerves is through a vasodilator substance called:
A. Bradykinin
B. Norepinephrine C. Nitric Oxide
D. Adenosine

A

A. bradykinin

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10
Q
What voltage-gated ion channel causes the relative refractory period?
A. Na+
B. Cl-
C. Ca2+ 
D. K+
A

D. K+

The Relative Refractory Period frequently extends well beyond phase 3. Even after the cell has completely repolarized (due to K+ channels). This characteristic of slow-response fibers is called Post-Repolarization Refractoriness.

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11
Q
What type of intracellular communication (signaling) is used by organisms during early tissue development?
A. Paracrine
B. Juxtacrine 
C. Autocrine 
D. Endocrine
A

Autocrine

Autocrine Signals often occurs during early development of an organism to ensure that cells develop into the correct tissues and take on the proper function. It is particularly important for self renewal of embryonic stem cells.

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12
Q
Type 1 respiratory failure is due to:
A. Decreased respiratory muscle activity
B. Increased dead space
C. Impaired gas exchange
D. Increased minute ventilation
A

A

Type 1 Respiratory Failure (Acute Hypoxemic Respiratory Failure) occurs with alveolar flooding and subsequent intrapulmonary shunt physiology. Alveolar flooding may be a consequence of pulmonary edema, lung injury, pneumonia, or alveolar hemorrhage.

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13
Q

A child goes on a ride at an amusement park. This ride spins him first in one direction and then in the other. When he steps off the ride, he staggers to regain his balance. The ride has activated which descending tracts making postural adjustments to changes in head position?
A. Tectospinal
B. Reticulospinal
C. Lateral vestibulospinal D. Corticobulbar

A

C

The Lateral Vestibular Tract ensures that different muscle groups are coordinated during postural control.

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14
Q

Which statement is true based on B the normal oxygen-dissociation curve
of hemoglobin and myoglobin?
A. Hemoglobin is a better oxygen transporter than myoglobin because it has a higher oxygen affinity
B. The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to right as a consequence of Bohr effect & increased 2,3 bisphosphoglyceric acid
C. The p50 value increases when affinity of oxygen to both hemoglobin and myoglobin increases
D. The hyperbolic shape of the oxygen- myoglobin
dissociation curve reflects the positive cooperativity of oxygen binding of myoglobin

A

B

The causes of shift to right can be remembered using the mnemonic, “CADET, face Right!” for CO2, Acid, 2,3-DPG, Exercise and Temperature. Factors that move the oxygen dissociation curve to the right are those physiological states where tissues need more oxygen. For example, during exercise, muscles have a higher metabolic rate, and consequently need more oxygen, produce more carbon dioxide and lactic acid, and their temperature rises.

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15
Q
Which of these patients will C benefit from primary prevention of diabetes using medical nutrition
therapy?
A. Obese 47 year-old male with an HbA1c 7.5 percent
B. 7 year old female with low
C-peptide and insulin assay
C. Bank executive with an FBS
of 109mg/dL on routine
annual examination
D. Hypersensitive with normal
BMI & 2 hour 75g post
glucose load of 206 mg/dL
A

C - prediabetic

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16
Q
Which of these increase HDL A levels?
A. saturated fatty acids
B. w-3 PUFA in diet
C. high TAG levels
D. w-6 PUFA in diet
A

A

Saturated fatty acids - Increase LDL & HDL
w-3 PUFA in diet - Decrease TAG
High TAG levels - Decrease HDL
w-6 PUFA in diet -Decrease LDL and HDL

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17
Q

In patients with HIV/AIDS, weight D assessment is best evaluated in
terms of

A

D

Loss of lean body mass, without loss in overall body weight, a condition called cachexia, can adversely affect a person’s ability to function and recover from injuries and illnesses.
• It has been observed in patients with HIV, even when successfully treated with HAART.
• Whilst AIDS wasting in the pre-HAART ear was predominantly caused by reduced calorie intake and diarrhoea, weight loss in people receiving HAART is more subtle and less well understood.

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18
Q
An expected Starling's force in the B peritubular capillaries is
A. High capillary hydrostatic pressure
B. High capillary oncotic pressure
C. Low interstitial hydrostatic pressure
D. High interstitial oncotic pressure
A

The oncotic pressure of the peritubular capillaries is relatively high because a significant percentage of the vascular fluid is filtered out in the glomerulus and into the tubule, leaving a higher-than-normal concentration of plasma proteins in the blood entering the peritubular capillaries

19
Q
Secretion of creatinine occurs in A this segment
A. Proximal tubule
B. Thick ascending Loop of
Henle
C. Distal tubule
D. Cortical collecting duct
A

Proximal Tubule

20
Q

The kidneys of a 60 year old with D heart failure, pulmonary and bipedal edema will respond to
A. Stimulation of angiotensin II and aldosterone
B. Dilatation of both the afferent and efferent arteriole due to ANP
C. An increase in GFR as a response to increase sympathetic activity
D. An increase in filtered load of Na+ reaching distal segment of nephron

A

An increase in filtered load of Na+ reaching distal segment of nephron

Renal tubule transport functions decrease with age.
The kidneys do not respond as effectively to changes in sodium load, do not dilute or concentrate urine as effectively, and also have a somewhat impaired ability to excrete potassium, phosphate, and acid.

21
Q

True of the topographic B representation of the different parts of
the body in the sensory cortex:
A. The bigger the organ, the bigger the space occupied in the cortex
B. The size of the representation can be modified by experience
C. Body parts on the right side are represented by the renal cortex
D. The size of representation is directly proportional to size of receptive field

A

The size of the representation can be modified by experience

22
Q

This is an example of a steroid hormone:

A. Leptin -
B. Oxytocin
C. Dehydroepieandrostenedione
D. Corticotropin-releasing
hormone
A

Dehydroepieandrostenedione

23
Q
This effect is due to atropine administered to a patient prior to
induction of general anesthesia:
A. Urinary frequency
B. Decreased salivation
C. Decrease in pupillary
diameter
D. Bronchoconstriction
A

Atropine
- anti-cholinergic effect:
- parasympathetic: “body at rest” or rest and digest
- sympathetic: “emergency situations” also fight or flight
A. Urinary *retention - instead of frequency
B. Decreased salivation or dry mouth - correct! C. Increase in pupillary diameter (mydriasis) D. Bronchodilation

24
Q
A 22 yr. old varsity basketball player suddenly experienced palpitations and difficulty of breathing during a game. His heart rate was 202 bpm. The effect of increased heart rate beyond physiologic limit will
A. Increase myocardial tension
B. Be more than the effect of
decreased SV
C. Reduce diastolic filling time
D. Increase duration of systole
A

C. reduce diastolic filling time

25
Q

While walking barefooted, the right foot of a man steps on a piece of broken glass. One of the following physiologic responses will protect him from further injuries
A. Elicit flexor reflex in the left limb and extensor reflex in the right limb
B. Maintain a prolonged after discharge in the extended limb
C. Supply more ATPs to the involved muscles to prevent fatigue
D. Lengthen the duration of application of the stimulus

A

B

Maintain a prolonged after discharge in the extended limb

26
Q

Dangerous hemolytic transfusion D reaction can occur in
A. Rh- recipient receiving Rh+ blood for the first time
B. Rh+ recipient receiving Rh- blood for the first time
C. Type B recipient receiving type AB packed RBC
D. Type O recipient receiving type AB packed RBC

A

D

O is univ donor lang pero di magrereceive

27
Q

A 6-month old infant is diagnosed B to have congenitally absent biliary
system causing build up of bile and
liver injury. Expected liver function in
this patient:

A. Able to remove Urea in the Body
B. Decreased Vit K dependent clotting factors (2,7,9,10)
C. Large Glycogen stores
D. Intact First Pass metabolism

A

B. Diagnosis of liver disease is greatly aided by the availability of reliable and sensitive tests of liver injury and function. A typical battery of tests used for the initial assessment of liver disease includes measurement of levels of serum alanine (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferases (AST), Alkaline phosphatase (AlkP), direct and total serum bilirubin and albumin and prothrombin time.

28
Q

Positive feedback control of the hemostatic response is accomplished by:
A. Fibrin binding to thrombin to limit further thrombin activation.
B. Fibrin degradation products interfering with fibrin formation & polymerization.
C. Thrombin activating platelets & promoting the release of Factor V.
D. Thrombin activation of the protein C pathway.

A

C. Thrombin activating platelets & promoting the release of Factor V.

After the activation of prothrombin to thrombin by prothrombinase complex (Factor Xa with its cofactor, Factor Va), it will activate Factors XI, VIII & V.

Intrinsic, Extrinsic, Common Pathway

29
Q
This is a characteristic of active C immunity
A. Induced by immunoglobulin injection
B. Facilitated by transfer of antibodies
C. Longer lasting protection
D. Rapid onset of protection
A

C. Longer lasting protection

Active vs. Passive immunity

30
Q
Volume of air in the conducting airways is approximately how much % of each tidal volume?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
A

29 WR 2019

D. 30

31
Q
A 20y/o male came in due to high fever, which started 5 days ago, accompanied by malaise and headache. The test results will suggest recent and previous dengue infection:
A. Dengue NS1 positive
B. Dengue IgM (-) and Dengue IgG
(+)
C. Dengue IgM (+) and Dengue IgG
(+)
D. Dengue IgM (+) and Dengue IgG
(-)
A

C. Dengue IgM (+) and Dengue IgG
(+)

NS1 (Non-structural antigen 1)
- Specimen: blood serum
- detects antigen on Days 1-4, after onset of symptoms
- Not specific for dengue; it will be (+) in the presence of other flavivirus
Dengue IgM
- Detects IgM antibodies as early as Day 5 (and beyond)
- Definitive diagnosis: (+) Seroconversion
- Seroconversion: From (-) in the acute phase to (+) in the convalescent phase;
indicates recent infection
Dengue IgG
- Detects IgG antibodies 2 weeks after onset
- Primary dengue: (+) Seroconversion
- Secondary dengue: Fourfold increase in IgG titer
- Presence of IgG in the acute phase is for previous dengue serotype

32
Q

Low concentrations of Angiotensin II has this effect on the kidney:
A. Constriction of afferent arteriole predominates
B. Constriction of both afferent arteriole and efferent arterioles
C. Decreased GFR
D. Decreased renal blood flow

A

The decline in plasma angiotensin II concentration has three effects:
(1) NaCl and water reabsorption by the nephron (especially the proximal tubule)
falls.
(2) Aldosterone secretion decreases, thus reducing NaCl reabsorption in the thick
ascending limb, distal tubule, and collecting duct.
(3) angiotensin is a potent vasoconstrictor, a reduction in its concentration permits
the systemic arterioles to dilate and thereby lower arterial blood pressure.
(Berne and Leve Physiology. 7E (2018) pg. 619)

33
Q

Pain relief from applying light pressure A such as rubbing the affected area is due to:
A. inhibition of pain signals by tactile
stimulation mediated by Aβ fibers
B. blocking pain signals carried by Aδ or C fibers via dorsal column pathway
C. tactile sensory signal inhibiting enkephalinergic interneuron in the substancia gelatinosa
D. activation of dorsal horn inhibitory interneuron by small unmyelinated fibers

A

There are various types of nerve fibres (axons) whose free endings form nociceptors. These fibres all connect peripheral organs to the spinal cord but differ greatly both in diameter and in the thickness of the myelin sheath that surrounds them. Both of these traits affect the speed at which these axons conduct nerve impulses: the greater the diameter of the fibre, the thicker its myelin sheath, and the faster this fibre will conduct nerve impulses.

34
Q

A alpha
A beta
A delta
C

Given information carried
Myelin sheath
Diameter
Conduction

A

Diameter lumiliit from A to C
Myelin sheath - lahat myelinated except C (non-myelinated)

A alpha - proprioception
A beta - touch
A delta - mechanical/thermal pain (fast pain)
C - mechanical/thermal/chemical (slow pain)

35
Q

During skeletal muscle contraction, calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum will bind to this protein leading to a series of events resulting in sarcomere shortening
A. Calmodulin B. Calsequestrin C. SERCA
D. Troponin C

A

D. Troponin C

Troponin C (TnC) is the calcium binding protein subunit that initiates the sequence of conformational changes on the thin filament. Mechanism of Contraction: Activation of Contraction
Ca2+ binding to troponin C is the key event in activation of contraction. As described previously, depolarization leads to transient Ca2+ release from SR. As sarcoplasmic [Ca2+] rises, Ca2+ binds to TnC. Tropomyosin normally sterically blocks the interaction between myosin heads and actin. The troponin complex controls the behavior of tropomyosin in skeletal muscle, and as TnC saturates with Ca2+, it reverses the tropomyosin inhibition of myosin binding to actin. The result is that myosin heads are able to contact actin, with formation of active cross-bridges and generation of tension. The initiation of cross-bridge formation by calcium is called activation of contraction. SR reuptake of calcium post- stimulus lowers sarcoplasmic [Ca2+], desaturating the TnC and allowing the tropomyosin inhibition of cross-bridge formation to be reasserted.
36
Q
This condition happens when the distance between the cornea and the retina is too short
A. Myopia
B. Astigmatism
C. Diplopia
D. Hyperopia
A

D. Hyperopia

37
Q

This is TRUE of the events in the countercurrent multiplier
A. The reabsorption of water in the thin descending limb of the loop due to its permeability is known as the single effect- the transport of solute out of the ascending limb into the interstitium represent single effect
B. The thin ascending limb of the loop actively reabsorbs Na * creating a maximum gradient of 200 mOsm /L with the interstitium- NaCl is passively absorbed in the thin ascending limb
C. The longer and deeper the loop down the papilla, the greater is the longitudinal gradient - lesser gradient
D. The descending limb of the vasa recta allows the influx of solutes with efflux of water making the blood hyperosmolar

A

Countercurrent multiplier #27 WR R 2018

38
Q

The anion gap of a patient with the following C laboratory results (mmol/L) is
Na = 140 K = 4 HCO3 = 25 Cl = 105 Phosphate =
5
A.
B.
C.
D. 14

A

The anion gap represents unmeasured anions ( albumin, phosphate, sulfate, acetoacetate, and organic anions) in the plasma. Normal AG = 8-10 mmol/L Formula of Anion gap: AG = (Na) - (HCO3 + Cl)
Four principal causes of a high-AG acidosis (KLIR):
oKetoacidosis
oLactic acidosis
oIngested Toxins
oRenal failure – acute and chronic

More specific causes of High AG Metabolic Acidosis: MUDPILES Methanol intoxication
Uremia
Diabetic ketoacidosis (or any form of ketoacidosis; alcoholic, starvation, uremic)
Paracetamol, Phenfromine, Paraldehyde, Propylene glycol, Pyroglutamic acid (5-oxoproline)
Isoniazid, Iron, or Inborn errors of metabolism
Lactic acidosis

39
Q

This is the proper sequencing of events of the signal transduction pathway initiated by G protein-coupled receptor (GCPR) stimulation

if 
1 - Receptor
2 - Effector Protein and 2nd Messenger
3 - Protein Kinase and Downstream Proteins 
4 - 1st messenger
5 - G Protein

A. 4-3-1-2-5
B. 4-2-3-5-1
C. 4-1-5-2-3
D. 4-5-2-3-1

A

The signaling cascades of a GPCR initiate from the binding of an external signaling molecule in the form of a ligand or other signal mediator (1st messenger) causing conformational change in the receptor and triggers the interaction between GPCR and a nearby G protein, leading to the activation of a G protein.

Inactive state - the GPCR is bound to a heterotrimeric G protein complex (Gα + GDP + Gβ and Gγ)

Active state - unbound (Gα, GTP, Gβγ)

Gα and Gβγ subunits interact with other effector proteins and second messengers (e.g. adenylate cyclase à cAMP, PLC à IP3 and DAG, etc.) leading to activation of protein kinase and other downstream proteins.

40
Q

Which mechanism results in decrease in C GFR?
A. Decrease in afferent arteriolar resistance
B. Decrease in glomerular osmotic pressure
C. Increase in bowman’s space hydrostatic pressure
D. Increase in efferent arteriolar resistance

A

Starling forces:
GFR= (PGC - PBS) - (πGC - πBS)

PGC - hydrostatic pressure of glomerular capillary
PBS - hydrostatic pressure of bowman’s space
πGC - oncotic pressure of glomerular capillary
πBS- oncotic pressure of bowman’s space (normally 0- since no proteins are filtered into bowman space)

Increase in Afferent arteriolar diameter = decrease in resistance = increase in GC hydrostatic pressure = increase GFR

Decrease in Efferent arteriolar diameter = increase in resistance = increase in GC hydrostatic pressure = increase GFR

41
Q
Renal alpha 1 hydroxylase activity is A increased by:
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Hyperphosphatemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. FGF23
A

A. Parathyroid hormone

Renal alpha 1 hydroxylase/25-hydroxyvitamin D-1α-hydroxylase is a tightly regulated cytochrome P450–like mixedfunction oxidase expressed in the proximal convoluted tubule cells of the kidney.
● PTH and hypophosphatemia are the major inducers of this microsomal enzyme in the kidney
● Calcium, FGF23, and 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D [1,25(OH)2D] repress it.

42
Q
Which factor binds to platelets via the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor?
A. von willebrand
B. factor II
C. fibrinogen
D. thrombin
A

Renal alpha 1 hydroxylase/25-hydroxyvitamin D-1α-hydroxylase is a tightly regulated cytochrome P450–like mixedfunction oxidase expressed in the proximal convoluted tubule cells of the kidney.
● PTH and hypophosphatemia are the major inducers of this microsomal enzyme in the kidney
● Calcium, FGF23, and 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D [1,25(OH)2D] repress it.
*Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine 20th ed p2918

43
Q
What cardiovascular reflex will be stimulated  in a patient who is hypertensive?
A. arterial baroreceptor
B. peripheral chemoreceptor
C. cushing
D. bezold-jarish
A

A. arterial baroreceptor