Compre 2018 Flashcards

1
Q

electronic fetal heart rate monitoring: presence of late decelerations in more than 50% of a twenty minute tracing.

A. negative
B. positive
C. reactive
D. non-reactive

A

B. Positive

CST:
(-) no late or significant variable decelerations, good sign as baby can adapt to contractions

(+) late decelerations following 50% or more contractions, non-reassuring FHR pattern, should do cesarean section!

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2
Q

Contraction Stress Test vs. Non-Stress Test

Which assesses uteroplacental insufficiency?

Which assesses fetal condition?

A

Contraction Stress Test vs. Non-Stress Test

Which assesses uteroplacental insufficiency? Contraction

Which assesses Non-Stress Test?

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3
Q

Assessment of fetal condition?

Assessment for uteroplacental insuffiiency?

A

Assessment of fetal condition? - Non-stress test

Assessment for uteroplacental insuffiiency? - Contraction Stress Test

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4
Q

Prominent U waves can signify

A

Hypokalemia
Sinus brady
Type 1A Antiarrhythmics (Quinidine)

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5
Q

Prolonged QT interval can signify

A

Hypokalemia
Hypomagnesemia
Hypocalcemia

Decrease K, Mg, Ca

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6
Q
The culture grew small
Gram negative cocobacilli occurring
singly on chocolate agar only, which is oxidase positive. The mode of drug resistance of this organism is the production of:
A. Group B carbapenemase
B. bla-imp
C. bla-vim
D. B-Lactamases
A

D.

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7
Q

JONES CRITERIA

A

Jones Criteria = evidence of GAS antecedent infection + 2 major

OR

1 major and 2 minor manifestations

Major - Carditis, Polyarthritis, Chorea, Erythema marginatum, Subcutaneous nodules

Minor - Clinical findings of arthralgia and fever; Laboratory findings of elevated ESR, CRP, Prolonged PR interval
Supporting evidence of GAS infection - Positive throat culture or rapid streptococcal antigen test, or elevated or rising ASO or antiDNAse B

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8
Q

At 37 weeks AOG, the recommended screening test for
pregnant women to avoid sepsis in a neonate is:
A. MRSA screening test
B. ESBL screening test
C. GBS screening test
D. Carbapenemase screening

A

C. GBS screening test

D/t STREPTOCOCCUS AGALACTIAE

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9
Q

Pulsus alterans

A

alternating strong and weak beats. Indicates severe left ventricle failure

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10
Q

Pulsus parvus et tardus:

A

physical exam finding in aortic valve stenosis. The term “parvus” means weak and “tardus” means late, thus the pulse is weak and late.

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11
Q

Corrigan’s pulse:

A

A pulse that is forceful and then suddenly collapses. It is usually found in patients with aortic regurgitation

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12
Q

Pulsus paradoxus:

A

Abnormally large decrease in stroke volume, systolic blood pressure and pulse wave amplitude during inspiration.

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13
Q
ECG showed atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular
response and the ejection fraction is
30%. She should be given
intravenous (IV):
A. verapamil
B. digoxin
C. esmolol
D. amiodarone
A

DIGOXIN

Atrial Fibrillation with Rapid Ventricular Response

Ejection Fraction 30%

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14
Q

Exudate vs Transudate

Saan low glucose?
Saan high ang LDH?

A

Saan low glucose? - EXUDATE

Saan high ang LDH? - EXUDATE

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15
Q

The biopsy of her pericardial sac showed confluent aggregates of
epithelioid histiocytes, the differential diagnosis will NOT include this
condition:

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
infection
B. Bartonella quintana infection
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Amyloidosis
A

Amyloidosis hindi kasama

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16
Q
If the previous renal biopsy of this  patient showed positive immunofluorescence to IgM, IgG, IgA,
C3 and C1q, you will request for this
test in order to confirm the diagnosis:
A. Rheumatoid Factor
B. ASO titer
C. dsDNA
D. TSH
A

C. dsDNA

Full house pattern: staining on all 5 major immunohistochemical stains Classic situation in lupus nephritis
SLE is diagnosed with dsDNA antibodies.

17
Q

If you are considering leptospirosis as the cause of his renal failure, this information is important in the history:
A. age of the patient B. occupation
C. smoking history D. alcoholic intake

18
Q
The best diuretic to address oliguria is:
A. spironolactone
B. hydrochlorothiazide
C. furosemide
D. indapamide
A

C. Furosemide

Spironolactone – Potassium-sparing

Furosemide - acts on the luminal NKCC channel

Hydrochlorothiazide, Indapamide - inhibits Na reabsorption in DCT by inhibiting

19
Q

Spironolactone – Potassium-sparing

Furosemide - acts on the luminal NKCC channel

Hydrochlorothiazide, Indapamide - inhibits Na reabsorption in DCT by inhibiting

A

skl hahaha

20
Q

In most cases, the diagnosis of Leptospirosis is confirmed
serologically by this method done in a reference laboratory:

A. dark-field microscopy
B. complement fixation test
C. microagglutination test
D. neutralization test

A

The MAT, which uses a battery of live leptospiral strains, and the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), which uses a broadly
reacting antigen, are the standard serologic procedures. (Harrison’s 20th ed.)

21
Q

This histomorphologic characteristic favors a benign ulcer
over a malignant ulcer:
A. heaped-up margins
B. sharply punched-out defect C. presence of hemorrhage
and necrosis
D. mucosal margin overhangs
the base

A

34 2nd yr Compre 2018

B sharply punched-out defect

22
Q
H. pylori-associated chronic  gastritis most commonly occurs in the:
A. body
B. fundus
C. antrum
D. corpus
23
Q

The effect of Aspirin (2 years intake) on the patient’s platelets:
A. depression of platelet production in the bone marrow
B. interference with platelet function
C. shortened lifespan of platelets in the peripheral blood
D. production of anti-platelet antibodies

A

B. interference with platelet function

Mechanism: irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase → decreased prostaglandin and thromboxane levels (TXA needed for platelet aggregation)

24
Q

This determines whether a treatment is obligatory:
A. high success rate of treatment
B. acceptability of treatment by most practitioners
C. gold standard treatment
D. good prognosis and minimal
cost of the treatment

A

D. good prognosis and minimal

cost of the treatment

25
``` The initial IV medication you will start for the seizure is: A. phenytoin B. carbamazepine C. diazepam D. valproic acid ```
Intravenous or intramuscular formulations of lorazepam, diazepam, midazolam, and clonazepam are typically used as the initial treatment agents in seizure emergencies.
26
``` The most appropriate maintenance antiepileptic that can be given as monotherapy is A. ethosuximide B. phenobarbital C. gabapentin D. tiagabine ```
Phenobarbital - Generalized tonic-clonic seizures, partial seizures, myoclonic seizures, generalized seizures, neonatal seizures, status epilepticus Gabapentin - Generalized tonic-clonic seizures, partial seizures, generalized seizures Ethosuximide - Absence seizure Tigabine - partial seizures
27
Absence seizure
Ethosuximide
28
Phenytoin, you would expect these dose-related adverse effects. ``` A. ataxia and diplopia B. paradoxical hyperactivity C. hepatotoxicity and sedation D. extrapyramidal symptoms and somnolence ```
A ataxia and diplopia
29
``` If the brain becomes affected, A and the offending agent has been completely eliminated, it will heal through: A. fibrosis B. regeneration C. chronic inflammation D. complete resolution ```
Fibrotic wall formation is essential for limiting pathogen dissemination.
30
If this is TB, the resistance gene that can be detected with MTb PCR by GeneXpert is: A. inh gene B. mecA gene C. rpo gene D. pza gene
C rpo gene
31
his element of informed consent is primarily absent in a 21 y/o patient with mental disability. A. Competence B. Comprehension C. Voluntary consent D. Disclosure of information
A. Competence
32
Investigators examine data from medical records to identify whether non-wearing of seat belt led to driver fatality vs driver non-fatality. This is an example of a: A. Case control B. Cross sectional C. Prospective cohort D. Retrospective cohort
D. Retrospective cohort
33
A researcher compiled a list of 600 employees in a company. He selected a sample of 150 employees by choosing every 8th employee on the list. This sampling method is: A. Simple random B. Systematic random C. Stratified random D. Cluster
B. Systematic random
34
``` The family assessment tool is D used to analyze the family’s capacity to participate in the provision of health care or cope with crisis. A. Minuchin’s map B. APGAR C. Family lifeline D. SCREEM ```
D. Screem (social, cultural, religious, economic, education, medical)
35
Rapid screening test instrument for family dysfunction
APGAR ADAPTATION PARTNERSHIP GROWTH AFFECTION RESOL VE 8 -10 points: highly functional family 4 - 7 points: moderately dysfunctional family 0 - 3 points: severely dysfunctional family